Written Test

Question 1

Void times - What is the correct procedure for alerting ATC

Answer 1

Must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time

Question 2

VFR-on-Top clearance - What altitude do you choose?

Answer 2

Choose any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions

Question 3

Visual illusion - What happens when a runway is upsloping?

Answer 3

The runway will look narrower than usual

Question 4

What is RVR?

Answer 4

Runway visual range - Horizontal distance a pilot can see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft. NOT SLANT RANGE.

Question 5

Minimum Sector Altitudes - what do they provide?

Answer 5

1000 feet obstacle clearance within 25nm radius of the nav facility but not adequate navigation signal coverage

Question 6

Turn Coordinator - What does it directly indicate?

Answer 6

Indicates directly rate of roll, rate of turn - indirectly indicates bank attitude

Question 7

What are the maximum holding pattern speeds?

Answer 7

Above 14k ft = 265 kt
Between 6k ft and 14k ft = 220 kt
Below 6k ft = 200 kt

Question 8

What to look for with a VOT check?

Answer 8

Tolerance is +/- 4 degrees
360-degree radial transmitted in all directions
Needles should be aligned on a 180-degree course w/ to flag or 360-degree course w/ from flag

Question 9

What can you expect to be the difference between winds at the surface and winds aloft?

Answer 9

Winds at the surface = cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker
Winds aloft = parallel the isobars

Question 10

When can you expect Wind Shear?

Answer 10

It may be associated with

• Low-level temperature inversion
• Jet stream
• Frontal zone

Question 11

What is the appropriate action when climbing on an airway?

Answer 11

Stay on centerline unless maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VMC

Question 12

When can you begin to descend on an approach?

Answer 12

When you’ve been cleared for the approach, you can begin descent upon reading back the approach clearance and reporting leaving your current altitude. Must maintain appropriate altitude (OROCA, MSA, etc.)

Question 13

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Answer 13

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

Question 14

What is the maximum procedure turn speed on an approach?

Answer 14

200 knots IAS maximum

Question 15

What are the primary pitch instruments?

Answer 15

Altimeter
Airspeed indicator
VSI

Question 16

What are the standard compass errors in the northern hemisphere?

Answer 16

ONUS = Overshoot north, undershoot south

Turns from the south = compass will turn faster than the plane (overshoot your desired heading)

Turns from the north = compass will turn slower than the plane (undershoot your desired heading)

ANDS = Accelerate north, decelerate south (most pronounced on east or west headings)

When your airplane accelerates the compass will indicate a slight turn to the north

When your airplane decelerates the compass will indicate a slight turn to the south

Question 17

When do you need to pick up your IFR clearance when departing from a Class G airport?

Answer 17

Before entering controlled airspace (Class E or greater)

Question 18

What is the impact of medium to coarse sandpaper roughness and thickness of ice on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil?

Answer 18

Reduced lift as much as 30 percent and increased drag by 40 percent

Question 19

Visual illusions - what impact does Haze have?

Answer 19

HAZE creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway and causes pilots to fly a lower approach

Question 20

In the flight levels, what type of attitude measurement are you maintaining?

Answer 20

Pressure altitude, not indicated altitude.

E.g. if you’re flying at FL 250 and you hear a local altimeter setting of 28.92’ Hg - you are still at 25,000 pressure altitude.

Question 21

How do you establish a climb in IMC (full panel)?

Answer 21

Increase back pressure until the attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the airspeed you want to climb at

Question 22

What is the appropriate heading/bearing deviation to account for one-half mile DME deviation on a DME arc?

Answer 22

10 to 20 degrees of relative bearing change (turn 10, twist 10)

Question 23

How many degrees change on the OBS should cause a full-scale deflection in either direction on a VOR?

Answer 23

10-12 degrees

Question 24

What is the sensitivity of a VOR at 60 miles from the station? I.e. How many miles off course are you per degree of CDI deflection?

Answer 24

1 degree = 1 mile off course at 60 miles from the station.

Question 25

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

Answer 25

Cumulonimbus

Question 26

What do the yellow dashed lines mean on the high-level significant weather prognostic chart?

Answer 26

Yellow dashed lines enclose areas of moderate or greater turbulence (light turbulence is not forecast on high-level prog charts)

Question 27

What do the FL numbers mean on the significant weather prognostic chart in reference to particular areas of weather activity?

Answer 27

FL numbers supplied to indicate the tops and bases of the weather, and the inverted V symbol indicates the severity of turbulence (if applicable).

Question 28

What are the limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

Answer 28

700 AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace

Question 29

What precession errors can be experienced on some attitude indicators?

Answer 29

Acceleration = indicated climb
Deceleration = indicated descent

Question 30

What happens when you switch to the alternate static source in the air?

Answer 30

Altimeter = higher than normal
Airspeed = greater than normal
VSI = momentary climb

Question 31

How do you know when you’ve passed a VOR station?

Answer 31

The first positive, complete reversal of the TO/FROM indicator

Question 32

How long does a microburst typically last?

Answer 32

Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

Question 33

How do surface winds move in the northern hemisphere?

Answer 33

Clockwise and outward from high pressure and counterclockwise and inward into low pressure.

Most consistent with this concept in mountainous areas.

Question 34

What altitude measure is used for reporting ceilings on a Graphical Forecast?

Answer 34

MSL Altitude

Question 35

Can you descend on a STAR if you’ve been cleared to fly it?

Answer 35

Not unless ATC clears you to descend to a lower assigned altitude.

Question 36

What are the most accurate compass readings during a level 360 degree turn at 15 degrees bank?

Answer 36

90 and 270 degrees

Question 37

What is the acceptable navigation signal coverage assurance at a MOCA?

Answer 37

Up to 22nm from the VOR station

Question 38

What is a defining characteristic of a functioning gyro?

Answer 38

Resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc

Question 39

When is an altitude encoding coded transponder required equipment for IFR?

Answer 39

At and above 10,000 ft MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 ft AGL

Question 40

What are you required to document in the airplane log as a pilot when doing a VOR check?

Answer 40

Place of check, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature

Question 41

When does an IFR flight plan need to filed and appropriate ATC clearance received?

Answer 41

Prior to entering controlled airspace when IMC prevail

Question 42

What type of air normally allows for temperature inversions to form?

Answer 42

Stable air.

Question 43

What should you expect if squalls are reported along your route or at your destination?

Answer 43

Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute

Question 44

What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?

Answer 44

Upward currents