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D1 Foundations > Written Exam 2 > Flashcards

Written Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

This person discovered X-rays

Used cathode rays on photo plate in his physics lab

A

Roentgen

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2
Q

This individual performed the first intraoral x-ray in 1895

A

Walkoff

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3
Q

This individual is known as the father of U.S. dental radiography

A

Kelly

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4
Q

Who developed “hot cathode” coolidge tube (hot, inefficient) using tungsten

Shockproof unit in 1919

A

Coolidge

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5
Q

This individual warned of X-ray damage and developed patient protection guidelines

A

Rollins

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6
Q

What warned of X-ray damage and developed patient protection guidelines

A

Rollins

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7
Q

What is the study or science of radiation as used in medicine/dentistry

A

Radiology/Roentgenology

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8
Q

What is a recorded images produced by X-ray on photographic film

A

radiograph

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9
Q

What is a transparent material covered with photographic emulsion

A

film

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10
Q

What serves the same purpose as film, receive the radiation?

What are the different types?

A

sensor

  • Direct digital detectors = wired to the computer, receives the remnant radiation
    • Most sensitive - meaning less radiation is necessary
  • Indirect digital detector = are used like film, photostimulable phosphor (PSP) imaging plates are thin and w/o wires, take in the remnant radiation and a computer reads it and produces a latent image
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11
Q

What is the act of making or exposing a radiograph?

A

exposure

***Radiographs are MADE, not taken

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12
Q

What appears dark on the radiograph, signifies a lack of structure or a less dense structure which higher amounts of remnant radiation passed through to sensor during exposure

A

Radiolucent

X-rays go through the image and have slight refraction

pulp chambers and sinuses

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13
Q

Appears light on a radiograph, signifies the presence of increasingly dense structure where little remnant radiation from exposure can reach the sensor

A

Radiopaque

X-rays cannot penetrate the structure

Enamel, restorations

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14
Q

What is the lamina dura?

A

Space around the tooth root

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15
Q

Explain the process of producing an X-ray

A
  1. Produced by bombarding a tungsten target (anode) with a stream of high-velocity electrons
  2. The electrons are produced at the tungsten filament (cathode) and are propelled toward the anode
  3. Onto a focal spot
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16
Q

Explain the component of an X-ray Tube

A
  1. Cathode (-)
    1. Filament is a coil of tungsten
    2. Electrons released by thermionic emission - “boiling off” of electrons
    3. Focusing cup of negative molybdenum directs the cathode electrons to the Anode
  2. Anode (+)
    1. Tungsten in a copper stem
    2. Target of the Cathode electrons
  3. Focal Spot
    1. Where in the Tungsten target of the Anode the electrons are directed, smaller means a sharper image
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17
Q

What are the types of radiation produced upon electrons hitting the target?

A
  • Bremsstrahlung Radiation (Breaking Radiation) - high energy electrons are deflected by forces within the atom
  • Characteristic Radiation - the high energy electrons strike and eject electrons from their valence shells
  • Give off energy as photons
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18
Q

What are the types of controlling factors in X-rays?

A
  • kV - kilovoltage
    • Controls speed of electrons from cathode to anode (- to +)
    • Controls quality of the X-ray beam
    • High vK means more penetrating power
  • mA - milliamperage
    • controls the number of electrons produced, thus controlling quantity of X-rays
    • High mA means a dark radiograph
  • s- Time
    • Also has an impact on quantity of X-rays
    • Ex: 1 impulse = 1/60 sec
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19
Q

Which of the following controls the number of electrons produced, thus controlling quantity of X-rays

A

mA - milliamperage

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20
Q

What controls speed of electrons from cathode to anode (- to +) and controls the quality of the X-ray beam.

A

kV - kilovoltage

High vK means more penetrating power

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21
Q

What is the degree of blackness of the radiograph?

How is it effected?

What are the controlling factors?

A

Radiographic Density

Effected by X-ray quantity - how many X-rays are produced

Controlling factors: milliamperage (mA) and time (s)

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22
Q

What is the number of shades of gray on the radiograph?

How is it effected?

What is the controlling factor?

A

Radiographic Contrast

Effected by X-ray quality - how well the beam can penetrate

Controlling Factor: Kilovoltage (kV)

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23
Q

What the difference between high contrast and low contrast?

A
  • High contrast = short scale, less shades of gray
  • Low contrast = long scale, lots of shades of gray

High vK means increased energy/penetration and lower contrast

Think of contrast as an amount of “difference”

  • High contrast, high difference - less gray area, each color contrasts more with the next
  • Low contrast, low difference - more gray, each color is less contrasting with the next
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24
Q

From a grain hopper and belt standpoint, describe the difference between the Density vs. contrast

A
  • Quantity of grains (electrons) controlled by mAs
  • Speed (energy/quality) of the grains (electrons) controlled by kV
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25
Q

Explain the process of making an X-ray

A
  1. X-radiation (production of X-ray as described previously) is emitted from the end of the cone
  2. X-rays pass through patient tissues
  3. Relatively Dense tissues arrest some of the X-rays
  4. Some X-rays pass through tissue and hit the film/sensor
  5. X-rays that hit the film/sensor produce varying shades of gray (beam quality, penetration, kV) depending on the amount of radiation exposure
  6. Produce the black, white, gray representation of the various densities of each tissue - relative to tissue densities ad the X-ray
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26
Q

What does a full mouth radiographic survey consist of?

Explain each type of x-ray

A

14 periapical and 4 bitewings

  • Bitewings - see both upper and lower arches, apex of the root and alveolar bone not well represented
    • Diagnostic, used to detect caries
    • Must be able to visualize the interproximal spaces to see incipient decay
    • Overlap of proximal surfaces would mean the bitewing is non-diagnostic
  • Periapical - show only an upper and lower, visualize the crown, root and 2-3 mm of surrounding bone
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27
Q

Explain the types of pulpal abnormalities and what they are caused by

A
  • Pulp stones - age or parafunctional activities
  • Obliterated pulp - hard tissue deposits fills the pulp, leave it narrow and restricted
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28
Q

What are bitewing carious lesions?

A

Serve diagnostic purpose of bitewing

  • Demineralization
  • Consider the carious lesion’s proximity to the DEJ
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29
Q

What is at the apex of the tooth, lesion as a result of pulp death?

A

Periapical

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30
Q

What is related to the supporting structure of the tooth: alveolar bone, lamina dura, PDL - periodontal disease can result in loss of the alveolar crease

A

Periodontal

31
Q

What is a (non-vital tooth) RADIOLUCENCY with a Periapical:

  • Abscess: pocket of infection waste (pus) may have sinus, diffusive boarders on X-ray)
  • Granuloma: infected area walled off with macrophages, more circumscribed on X-ray
  • Cyst: membrane-bound fluid sac, large and well-defined on X-ray

Lamina dura may disappear or be continuous with the lesion sclerotic margin, NOT present at apex

A

Rarefying Osteitis

32
Q

On a non-vital tooth, What has diffuse RADIOPACITY at apex, separated with widened PDL space

  • Reactive bone tends to bend into normal bone with no radiolucency between it and normal bone
  • Lamina Dura is lost at apex, widened apical PDL space
A

Condensing Osteitis

33
Q

What is a VITAL radiopacity with no associated radiolucency

  • not associated with an inflammatory process
  • Same density as the cortical bone
    • Defined border not seen in sclerosing Osteitis
A

Idiopathic Osteosclerosis

34
Q

What is a VITAL RADIOPAQUE

  • Excess cementum at the apex
  • PDL surrounds the radiopaque cementum (there is no increase in radiolucency because there is no loss of structure
  • Differentiate the cementum from the dentin (cementum is less calcified)
  • Associated with periapical inflammation, periodontal disease, Paget’s, Gardner’s

Lamina Dura and PDL are continuous with the radiopacity

A

Hypercementosis

35
Q

What is a VITAL RADIOLUCENT on anterior mandibular tooth:

  • Radiolucency is between radiopacity and bone (differentiation from condensing osteitis, as well as vital vs. non-vital)
  • Radiopaque deposits within the radiolucency may appear crescent-shaped
  • Lamina Dura not present at the apex
A

Periapical Cemental Dysplasia

36
Q

What is it if there is a widespread Periapical Cemental Dysplasia (PCD) - beyond the anteriors

A

Florid Cemento-osseous Dysplasia (FCOD)

37
Q

What is it if on a VITAL tooth there is increased radiopacity as it matures:

  • Apex of the root is obliterated by lesion
    • Young adult males is more common
A

Cementoblastoma

38
Q

Describe the relationship of the PDL and Lamina Dura to Apical Lesions for Rarefying Osteitis

A

Abscess, Granuloma, cyst

NON-VITAL - radiolucent (bone loss)

Lamina Dura = may disappear or be continuous with sclerotic margin of lesion. NOT present at apex

39
Q

Explain the relationship of the PDL and Lamina Dura in Sclerosing Osteititis aka Condensing Osteitis

A

NON-VITAL Radiopaque (diffusive mineralization beyond an expanded PDL space)

  • Lamina dura = will be lost at apex
  • Widened apical PDL space
  • Reactive bone that tends to blend into normal bone with no radiolucency between it and the normal bone
40
Q

What is the relationship of PDL and Lamina Dura to Apical Lesions for Hypercementosis

A
  • Lamina dura and PDL are continuous around the radiopacity
  • Cementum is not as dense at dentin so can see the outline of the original tooth
41
Q

What is the relationship of the PDL and Lamina Dura to Apical Lesions for Periapical Cemental Dysplasia, FCOD

A
  • Lamina dura may disappear
  • NOT present at apex
  • Radiopacity deposits within the radiolucency and may appear crescent-shaped
42
Q

What are the local irritants for periodontal disease?

A
  • Calculus - mineralized, hardened dental plaque
    • Spur type (seem to act like an overhang)
  • Overhangs - overhanging restoration material
  • Caries - decay and disease of tooth structure
43
Q

Describe the normal alveolar crest structure as seen on a radiograph

A
  • Anterior crests - more pointed
  • Posterior crests - flattened
  • 1-2 mm apical and parallel to the CEJ
  • Horizontal bone loss, the alveolar crest uniformly lowers, remains parallel to the adjacent CEJs
  • Vertical Bone Loss, alveolar crest downs not decay evenly and is not longer parallel to the adjacent CEJs
44
Q

Describe the types of Furcation involvement

A

Class I = incipient

Class II = partial

Class III = complete

Class IV = Visible clinically

**Furcations are less defined in maxillary molars than mandibular molars because of the superimposition of the palatal root

INVESTIGATE CLINICALLY

45
Q

Explain Extra-oral imaging 0 image receptor outside the mouth

A
  • Panoramic radiograph
  • Cone beam computed tomography -CBCT
    • Divergent X-rays
  • Some offer bitewings
  • Capture the whole mandible, TMJ, Maxilla, Maxillary sinus
  • Treat the radiograph as if you are looking at the patient
  • Pathology/Diagnosis
  • Tell age based on growth and development
  • Can visualize foramen for nerves
  • Can follow CN V3 (inferior alveolar nerve) through the mandibular foramen and the mental foramen
46
Q

What is:

  • “ectopic” sebaceous glands in mouth - embryologic
  • 80% of population
  • Yellow or yellowish-white papules
  • On buccal mucosa and the vermillion boarder
    • No treatment necessary - recognize them for what they are and move on
A

Fordyce Granules

47
Q

What is:

  • White swelling
  • Variation of normal in patients of color
  • Excess fluid in tissue gives milky appearance - stretch and it disappears
  • Intracellular edema
    • No treatment necessary
A

Leukoedema

48
Q

What is:

  • In 0.5% of people
  • Descriptive term = elongated filiform papillae, discolored
  • Retain keratin, make more
  • Trap debris, stain (bismuth - black)
  • More common in smokers, those with poor hygiene
  • Brush to cure
A

Hairy Tongue

49
Q

What is:

  • Long developing
  • Midline bony growth of hard palate
  • More in females, 20-35% of people, more in adults
  • Only concern with trauma, denture fit
  • Asymptomatic
A

Torus Palatinus

50
Q

What is:

  • Long developing
  • Lingual mandible, premolar region
  • Above mylohyoid ridge
  • 7-10% of adults
  • Ethnic predilection
  • Asymptomatic - but may be impacted food, trauma
  • Removal for prosthetics
A

Torus Mandibularis

51
Q

What are common developmental teeth abnormalities

A

Environmental Alterations cause:

  • Affect enamel mineralization
  • Dose dependent
  • Too much during development
  • Caries resistance
  • Esthetic issue
52
Q

What are post developmental abnormalities that can occur on teeth? List and describe

A
  • Attrition = tooth to tooth contact (normal with age, unless bruxism - parafunctional)
  • Abrasion = mechanical action of external agent (hard brush, bobby pin, pipe)
  • Erosion = non-bacterial chemical process (pH of stomach contents in vomit, sucking lemon wedges - sensitivity)
  • Abfraction = occlusal stress with microscopic flexing (class V)
53
Q

What is a localized disturbance?

A

Impaction - physical barrier to eruption (crowding, tumor)

  • Damage to adjacent teeth
  • Treatment = watch, orthodontic pulling/assistance, transplantation, surgical removal
54
Q

What is hypodontia

A

decreased number - third molar, maxillary lateral incisors

55
Q

What is hyperdontia

A

extra teeth, usually premolars

56
Q

What is microdontia

A

smaller than normal = peg lateral

usually maxillary lateral incisor

57
Q

What are shape developmental alterations?

Name and describe

A
  • Germination
    • (developmental twinning, sharped pulp in radiograph
  • Fusion
    • (joining of developing teeth, separate pulp chambers, and root)
  • Concrescence
    • (roots joined by cementum only)
58
Q

What are amelogenesis imperfecta

A

imperfect formation of enamel, pits, fissures

59
Q

What is dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

Imperfect dentin formation under normal enamel

  • Normal teeth are translucent. dentin-less teeth are not translucent
  • Hereditary opalescence Dentin (hereditarily opaque)
  • No pulp chamber on radiograph, but the slightest chamber in there
  • Associated with osteogenesis imperfecta
60
Q

What is mycobacterium tuberculosis cause

A

Tuberculosis

61
Q

This had declined in the US, cinrease in foreign country/foreign born immigrands (undocumented) and there are 3 million deaths from complications with this disease.

A

Tuberculosis

INFECTION DOES NOT MEAN ACTIVE DISEASE

5-10% develop active disease (the immunocompromised)

Healthy body will suppress disease just fine

Immunosuppression can allow latent TB to activate

62
Q

What is the most common pain for tuberculosis patients?

A

tooth ache

The off the grid people end up in dental schools and free clinics

63
Q

How common are oral lesions in tuberculosis patients

A

0.5 - 5%

Non-healing ulcers and granulation (dorsal surface of the tongue, anterior mandibular labial vestibule are most common ulcer sites - it is where the sputum from pulmonary TB collects

64
Q

What is the diagnosis technique for Tuberculosis?

A
  • TB skin test, PPD
  • Sputum culture
  • Histopathology tests
    • Giant cells
    • Granulomas
    • Caseous necrosis (cheesy)
65
Q

What is the treatment for Tuberculosis?

A

Anti TB medications (AB)

Multiple and extremely resistant TB now exists (MDR, XDR)

66
Q

What is a Dimorphic fungus in 30-50% of the population

A

Candidiasis

67
Q

For the Dimorphic fungus of Candidiasis, what is the name for the Yeast form and what is the Hyphal form

A

Yeast form (innocuous)

Hyphal form (disease causing)

68
Q

What type of Candidiasis is opportunistic, commonly found in infants after monther’s AB wears off, in immunosuppresed.

  • Resembles cottage cheese
A

Acute Pseudomembranous Candidiasis

69
Q

Where is Acute Pseudomembranous Candidiasis - Thrust - usually found? and how is it removed/treated?

A

Buccal mucosa, dorsal tongue, palate

Removed with gauze (pseudo mambrane)

(same as vaginal yeast infection)

70
Q

What is commonly described as “burning mouth”, sore mouth (erythema)

A

Acute Pseudomembranous candidiasis - Thrush

71
Q

What is:

  • AB sore mouth
  • Etiology is xerostomic (dry mouth)
  • Cause Atrophic Glossitis - “bald tongue”
  • Scalded sensation
    • Clear infection and it returns to normal
A

Erythematous Candidiasis

Erythema withouth white component

72
Q

What is an inflammation in a diamond shape at the midline

  • AKA Central papillary atrophy of the tongue
  • Infectious, can recur - NOT congenital based on research and presence of candida albicans, and not in any kids
  • Junction of the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the dorsal tongue
  • Treat with antifungal, will recur - we chose not to treat because it has no impact and recurs anyway
A

Median Rhomboid Glossitis

73
Q

What type of Median Rhomboid Glossitis is treated and where is it located?

A

“Kissing Lesion” of the palate

74
Q

What are:

  • Preleche
  • Localized candidiasis
  • Crease because of decreased vertical dimension (denture and attrition can cause decreased VD_ nutritional deficient
A

D1 Foundations (3 decks)

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