Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OMM 101 Written Exams > Written Exam 2 > Flashcards

Written Exam 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Physics 101 flashcards Psychology 101 flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards Biology 101 flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards Sociology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What happens when there is a dysfunction of the left?

A

The neutral point is shifted to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is soft tissue a direct of indirect technique?

A

Direct technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are three mechanisms of treatment for soft-tissue techniques?

A

Traction
Kneading
Inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the indications for somatic dysfunction of soft tissues?

A

Tissue texture change
Asymmetry
Restriction
Tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is counterstrain direct or indirect?

A

Indirect technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes a counter strain point?

A

Proprioceptive imbalance due to abnormal neurophysiologic activity between agonist and antagonist muscles including abnormal muscle spindle activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is proprioceptive theory?

A

Tenderpoints develop when muscle fibers are maintained in a hypertonic state due to an inappropriate proprioceptive reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the abnormal metabolism theory?

A

Tissue injury alters local body position, affecting local microcirculation and tissue metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the impaired ligamento-muscular reflex theory?

A

Same as proprioceptive except dysfunction may result from protective reflex that occurs when a ligament is placed under strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the maximum number of counterpoints to treat in one session?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Direct myofascial release can include what four mechanisms?

A

Shearing force
Pressure
Heat
Electric fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is HVLA classified as?

A

Direct, passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is muscle energy techniques classification?

A

Direct, active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What causes the relaxation of agonist muscle fibers in post-isometric relaxation?

A

Golgi tendon organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the ratio between humeral abduction and scapular rotation?

A

2:1

Example: 15 degree abduction of shoulder is 10 degrees humerus and 5 degrees scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many degrees can the shoulder flex forward? Extend back?

A

180

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many degrees can the shoulder internally/medially rotate? Externally/laterally rotate?

A

70

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the drop arm test test for?

A

Supraspinatus tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are tender points?

A

Hypersensitive areas within myofascial structures that result in localized pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are trigger points?

A

Hypersensitive areas within myofascial structures in which palpitation causes referred pain away from site to distant zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are Chapman’s points?

A

Neurolymphatic and reflect specific visceral organ involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What muscle does counterstrain treat?

A

Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What muscle does muscle energy treat?

A

Agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why are counterstrain treatments returned to neutral slowly?

A

To avoid reactivation of gamma receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the normal inclination angle for the femur?

A

120-135 degrees

26
Q

What is a common dislocation of the head of the femur?

A

Posterior and inferior

27
Q

What is coxa valgus?

A

Angle of inclination greater than 135

28
Q

What is coxa varus?

A

Angle of inclination less than 120

29
Q

What would coxa valgus cause?

A

Knock knee

30
Q

What would coxa varus cause?

A

Bowlegged knees

31
Q

What is the strongest ligament in the body?

A

Iliofemoral ligament

32
Q

What is the strongest flexor of the thigh?

A

Iliopsoas

33
Q

What is the origin of Iliopsoas? Insertion?

A

T12-L5

Lesser trochanter

34
Q

Signs of psoas syndrome?

A

Patient bent forward
Ipsilateral foot everted
Leans ipsilateral to psoas spasm
Non-neutral L1 or L2 sidebent ipsilaterally
Sacral rotation on ipsilateral oblique axis
Contralateral pelvic side shift
Contralateral piriformis spasm w/ tender point
Pain in contralateral hip

35
Q

Action of rectus femoris?

A

Flexes thigh at hip and extends leg at the knee

36
Q

What is the IT band a location for?

A

Viscerosomatic reflexes

37
Q

What is the sympathetic innervation to the lower extremity?

A

T11-L2

38
Q

What is the innervation for muscles responsible for foot inversion? What is the dermatomes for the nerve? What is the reflex tested?

A

L4
Medial aspect of leg and foot
Patellar tendon reflex

39
Q

What is the innervation for extensor hallucis longus? What reflex is this nerve responsible for? What is the dermatome?

A

L5
Medial hamstring
Lateral side of leg and dorsum of foot

40
Q

What is the innervation for muscles responsible for eversion? What is the dermatomes? What is the reflex?

A

S1
Lateral malleolus and lateral aspect of foot
Achilles tendon reflex

41
Q

What test helps differentiate between sciatic and hamstring pain?

A

Braggard’s Test

42
Q

What are the degrees of external rotation for femoroacetabular joint?

A

45-55

43
Q

What are the degrees of internal rotation for femoroacetabular joint?

A

35-45

44
Q

What is the terrible triad of O’Donoghue?

A

Medial meniscus tear
Ruptured ACL
Ruptured MCL

45
Q

What does valgus stress test?

A

Stability of MCL

46
Q

What does varus stress test?

A

Stability of LCL

47
Q

What is genu varus and genu valgus?

A

Decreased Q angle

Increased Q angle

48
Q

What is the normal Q angle?

A

Longitudinal axis of femur and tibia 10-12

49
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the leg?

A

Popliteal-> Superficial inguinal-> Deep inguinal-> Iliac

50
Q

Which way do the navicular and cuboid bones rotate in somatic dysfunction?

A

Medially (inversion)

Laterally (eversion)

51
Q

What ligaments can be damaged in an inversion ankle sprain?

A

Anterior tibiofibular ligament

Lateral collateral ligament

52
Q

What layer of fascia covers the internal thoracic wall?

A

Endothoracic fascia

53
Q

What does the endothoracic fascia become when it rests on the diaphragm?

A

Superior diaphragmatic fascia

54
Q

What emerges out of the thoracic cage piercing Sibson’s fascia and reemerges?

A

The left lymphatic duct

55
Q

Surface landmarks and dermatomes of thoracic wall:

A

T2 Nipple line
T7 Xiphoid
T10 Umbilicus
T12 Inguinal ligament

56
Q

Which ribs work with the pump handle motion?

A

1-6

57
Q

Which ribs work with the bucket handle motion?

A

7-10

58
Q

What dimension does bucket handle motion increase?

A

Lateral

59
Q

What dimension does pump handle motion increase?

A

Anterior

60
Q

What do you treat the most superior rib of a group of ribs with?

A

Exhalation

61
Q

What do you treat the most inferior rib of a group of ribs with?

A

Inhalation

62
Q

What sympathetics innervate heart and lungs?

A

T1-T6

OMM 101 Written Exams (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions