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Laboratory Medicine > Written > Flashcards

Written Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following could be a complication of venous blood sampling?

a) Cramps
b) Syncope
c) Hematoma
d) Seizures

A

c) Hematoma

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2
Q

Which one(s) of the following viruses is/are transferred through contact with infected blood?

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B and HIV
c) Measles
d) Mumps

A

b) Hepatitis B and HIV

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3
Q

What is the difference between serum and plasma?

a) Fibrinogen is present in serum
b) Fibrinogen is absent in serum
c) Fibrinogen is absent in plasma
d) Fibrin is present in plasma

A

b) Fibrinogen is absent in serum

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4
Q

The citrate tube (light blue capped) is used primarily for the following purposes:

a) The test of complete blood cells count
b) The measurement of prothrombin time, APTT, TT
c) The determination of glucose concentration
d) For the determination of uric acid level

A

b) The measurement of prothrombin time, APTT, TT

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5
Q

Which of the following laboratory parameters are affected by extensive physical activity?

a) CK and GOT enzyme activities decrease, potassium levels increase
b) CK, GOT, potassium, lactate values increase, glucose levels decrease
c) Potassium levels decrease
d) CK and GOT values increase , lactate levels decrease

A

b) CK, GOT, potassium, lactate values increase, glucose levels decrease

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6
Q

Which one of the following hormone has the highest peak in the morning?

a) ACTH
b) TSH
c) Prolactin
d) Growth hormone

A

a) ACTH (—> Cortisol?)

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7
Q

The reference interval of parameters following Gaussian distribution usually equals to:

a) The mean ± SD
b) The mean ± 2SD
c) The median, range min-max.
d) Median, interquartile range

A

b) The mean ± 2SD

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8
Q

The normal pH value in a fresh urinary sample:

a) pH 3-4
b) pH 5-6
c) is nearly equal to the blood pH (7.35-7.45)
d) pH 8-9

A

b) pH 5-6

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9
Q

The urinary reagent strips (dipstick) do not detect:

a) The presence of nitrifying bacteria
b) The presence ketones
c) The presence of fungi
d) The presence of hemoglobin

A

c) The presence of fungi

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10
Q

Which sample is used for complete blood count by hematology analyzers?

a) Tube with red top (native)
b) Tube with blue top contains sodium-citrate
c) Tube with purple/violet top contains EDTA-K2
d) Tube with black top contains citrate

A

c) Tube with purple/violet top contains EDTA-K2

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11
Q

Increased ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), except:

a) Pregnancy
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Hemolysis
d) Polycytaemia rubra vera

A

d) Polycytaemia rubra vera

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12
Q

Frequently associated with metabolic syndrome:

a) hyperuricaemia
b) low HDL cholesterol level
c) hypertriglyceridaemia
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

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13
Q

What is indicated by the MCV parameter in hematology?

a) Mean corpuscular (cell) volume
b) Average platelet volume
c) Average white blood cell volume
d) Distribution of the size of the platelets

A

a) Mean corpuscular (cell) volume

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14
Q

What is the unit of MCV?

a) mL (milliliter)
b) μL (microliter)
c) fL (femtoliter)
d) g/L (gram per liter)

A

c) fL (femtoliter)

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15
Q

At which age should 190 g/L (19 g/dL) hemoglobin concentration and 0.60 (60%) hematocrit values should be considered as normal?

a) All ages
b) The first few days after birth
c) After 3-4 years of age
d) In adult women

A

b) The first few days after birth

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16
Q

Hematocrit is determined by:

a) ELISA method
b) Measurement of enzymes in RBCs
c) Centrifugation
d) Freezing-point depression

A

c) Centrifugation

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17
Q

In normal peripheral blood smear which one of the following cell types is absent?

a) Segment
b) Eosinophil
c) Monocyte
d) Myeloblast

A

d) Myeloblast

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18
Q

In hemolytic anemia the characteristic laboratory alteration is:

a) Decreased haptoglobin concentration in serum
b) Increased haptoglobin concentration in serum
c) Does not change the haptoglobin level in serum
d) Decreased LDH activity and bilirubin level in serum

A

a) Decreased haptoglobin concentration in serum

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19
Q

What is the common cause of microcyter hypochromic anemia?

a) vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Folic acid deficiency
c) Iron deficiency anemia
d) Presence of HbF

A

c) Iron deficiency anemia

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20
Q

What is that cut-off value for platelet counts that indicates high risk of bleeding?

a) 100 g/L
b) 50 G/l
c) 5 G/L
d) 1G/L

A

b) 50 G/l

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21
Q

Which statement is correct for folate (folic acid) concentration?

a) In plasma > in RBC
b) In plasma < in RBC
c) In RBC = in plasma
d) There is no folate in RBC

A

b) In plasma < in RBC

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22
Q

What is the common cause of macrocytic anemia?

a) Deficiency of vitamin B6
b) Folic acid deficiency
c) Excess vitamin B12
d) Iron deficiency

A

b) Folic acid deficiency

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23
Q

Very high (800-1000 G/L) platelet count suggests:

a) Septic condition
b) Post-transfusion condition
c) Essential thrombocythaemia
d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

A

c) Essential thrombocythaemia

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24
Q

What are the primary hemostasis laboratory tests?

a) Bleeding time, platelet count and von Willebrand factor test
b) Fibrinogen concentration
c) Prothrombin time
d) Protein-C and Protein-S levels

A

a) Bleeding time, platelet count and von Willebrand factor test

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25
Q

Which laboratory test(s) is/ are used to assess fibrinolysis?

a) Bleeding time
b) Fibrin concentration
c) Prothrombin time
d) D-dimer and fibrin degradation products (FDP)

A

d) D-dimer and fibrin degradation products (FDP)

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26
Q

Which coagulation factor has an important role in adhesion of platelets (primary hemostasis)?

a) Factor V
b) Factor VIII
c) von Willebrand factor Factor XI
d) Factor XI

A

c) von Willebrand factor Factor XI

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27
Q

If PT and APTT are abnormal, thrombin time normal and the mixing tests correct the abnormalities, what next step of investigation?

a) We measure factor VIII activity.
b) We measure fibrinogen level.
c) We examine the common pass-way factors (II, V, X.)
d) We measure Factor XIII activity.

A

a) We measure factor VIII activity.

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28
Q

Hemostasis tests are not justified:

a) in thrombosis of unknown origin
b) during investigation of re-occurrence of thrombosis
c) for population screening
d) in thrombosis of unusual location

A

c) for population screening

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29
Q

Which factor deficiency/deficiencies is/are inherited X-linked chromosome?

a) Factor II deficiency
b) Factor VIII and Factor IX deficiencies
c) Factor V deficiency
d) Factor XIII deficiency

A

b) Factor VIII and Factor IX deficiencies

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30
Q

Which is the most important factor for platelet adhesion?

a) Fibronectin
b) von Willebrand factor
c) Tissue factor
d) Free calcium ion

A

b) von Willebrand factor

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31
Q

Which complex is produced at the first during hemostasis?

a) Tenase complex (FVIIIa-FIXa)
b) Prothrombinase complex (FXa-FVa)
c) Tissue factor -FVIIa complex (TF-FVIIa)
d) Thrombin-Antithrombin complex

A

c) Tissue factor -FVIIa complex (TF-FVIIa)

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32
Q

Which disorder(s) is/are inherited in an X-linked way?

a) von Willebrand factor deficiency
b) Haemophilia A and B
c) Factor XI deficiency
d) Afibrinogenaemia

A

b) Haemophilia A and B

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33
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dicoumarol?

a) It is an antioxidant
b) it inhibits absorption of calcium
c) It is antagonist to vitamin-K action
d) It prevents platelet aggregation

A

c) It is antagonist to vitamin-K action

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34
Q

Base excess (BE in mmol/L) is:

a) The base or acid quantity which is necessary for blood pH 7.4 (pCO2 = 40 mmHg)
b) The base or acid quantity which is necessary for blood pH 7.0 and pCO2 30 mmHg
c) The base or acid quantity which is necessary for blood pH 7.0 and pCO2 35 mmHg
d) The base or acid quantity which is necessary for blood pH 7.0 and pCO2 40 mmHg

A

a) The base or acid quantity which is necessary for blood pH 7.4 (pCO2 = 40 mmHg)

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35
Q

Interpret the following blood gas parameters: pH↑ pCO2↓ HCO3 normal Base excess normal

a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Respiratory alkalosis

A

d) Respiratory alkalosis

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36
Q

Interpret the following blood gas parameters: pH↓ pCO2 normal HCO3↓ Base excess↓

a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Respiratory alkalosis

A

a) Metabolic acidosis

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37
Q

Hyperkalemia can be caused by:

a) Vomiting
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Kidney failure
d) Liver failure

A

c) Kidney failure

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38
Q

Serum potassium level 7.9 mmol/L may occur commonly in case of:

a) Hemolysis
b) Renal tubular dysfunction
c) Hepatic insufficiency
d) in vitro hemolysis + renal tubular dysfunction

A

d) in vitro hemolysis + renal tubular dysfunction

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39
Q

Serum immunoglobulin levels in healthy adult population:

a) IgA < IgM
b) IgA > IgM
c) IgG< IgA
d) IgG < IgM

A

b) IgA > IgM

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40
Q

Which laboratory parameter responds first (most quickly) to bacterial infection?

a) WBC count
b) ESR (Erythrocyte sediment rate)
c) PCT (Procalcitonin)
d) CRP (C-reactive protein)

A

c) PCT (Procalcitonin)

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41
Q

Which statement is correct?

a) Serum myoglobin is absolute specific for acute myocardial infarction (AMI).
b) Serum myoglobin levels are increased in skeletal muscle injuries.
c) Serum myoglobin level increases 1-2 days after AMI
d) Serum myoglobin level is low in anemia

A

b) Serum myoglobin levels are increased in skeletal muscle injuries.

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42
Q

Negative acute-phase protein:

a) Amyloid
b) Procalcitonin
c) C-reactive protein
d) Albumin

A

d) Albumin

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43
Q

Which one of the following autoantibodies is present in the majority of systemic autoimmune diseases?

a) The red blood cell antibody
b) Smooth muscle antibody
c) TSH receptor antibody
d) Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

A

d) Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

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44
Q

Oral glucose tolerance test procedure:

a) 75 gram galactose in 300 mL water ingested in 5 minutes
b) 75 gram lactose in 300 mL water ingested in 5 minutes
c) 75 gram glucose in 300 mL water ingested in 5 minutes
d) 75 gram anhydrous glucose in 300 mL water ingested in 2 hours

A

c) 75 gram glucose in 300 mL water ingested in 5 minutes

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45
Q

The concentration of glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects:

a) Daily blood glucose concentration, only
b) Blood glucose average concentration in the last 8-10 week
c) The size of RBC
d) The type of diabetes

A

b) Blood glucose average concentration in the last 8-10 week

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46
Q

What is the therapeutic target value of HbA1c in diabetic patients?

a) < 5 % (31 mmol/mol)
b) < 6% (42 mmol/mol)
c) < 7 % (53 mmol/mol)
d) < 8% (64 mmol/mol)

A

c) < 7 % (53 mmol/mol)

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47
Q

In which environment is the use of a POCT ammonia meter justified?

a) In an intensive care unit
b) In a laboratory
c) At home monitoring
d) All three answers are correct

A

d) All three answers are correct

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48
Q

In which environment is the use of a POCT lactate meter justified?

a) In laboratory
b) In intensive care unit
c) In sport medicine
e) All three answers are correct

A

e) All three answers are correct

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49
Q

Where are LDH and GPT enzymes localized in the cells?

a) In the membranes
b) In the membranes In the nucleus
c) In the mitochondria
d) In the cytoplasm

A

d) In the cytoplasm

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50
Q

When are GOT (AST) and GPT (ALT) enzyme activities extremely high (up to 100-500 folds of the normal) serum?

a) In mushroom poisoning
b) In autoimmune disease
c) In chronic renal failure
d) In chronic alcoholism

A

a) In mushroom poisoning

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51
Q

Which is the most specific marker for myocardial damage?

a) Creatinine-kinase (CK)
b) C-reactive protein (CRP)
c) Myoglobin
d) Troponin-I or Troponin-T

A

d) Troponin-I or Troponin-T

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52
Q

Which of the listed drug levels is recommended to be monitored in a lab?

a) Oral antidiabetics
b) Oral analgesics
c) Cardiac glycosides - Digoxin
d) Antihypertensives

A

c) Cardiac glycosides - Digoxin

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53
Q

Which enzyme can be used as a tumor marker?

a) Neuron specific enolase (NSE)
b) Amylase
c) Lipase
d) Gamma glutamyl transferase (γ-GT)

A

a) Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

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54
Q

The following is true in primary hyperthyreosis:

a) High TSH and low fT4 levels
b) High TSH and high fT4 levels
c) Low TSH and low fT4 levels
d) Low TSH and high fT4 levels

A

d) Low TSH and high fT4 levels

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55
Q

What is the reference range of the cerebrospinal fluid glucose concentration?

a) Always higher than in the blood (the demand for energy due to brain cells)
b) Always the same as the blood (due to the free diffusion of glucose)
c) 60-70 percent of the actual blood glucose levels
d) Solely depends on the amount of CSF

A

c) 60-70 percent of the actual blood glucose levels

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56
Q

The following enzyme is raised in obstructive jaundice:

a) CK
b) Amylase
c) Lipase
d) γ-GT

A

d) γ-GT

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57
Q

Which specific lab test is used to diagnose coeliac disease?

a) Fecal fat test
b) D-xylose absorption test
c) Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) titer
d) Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTG)

A

d) Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTG)

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58
Q

What tests are suggestive for alcoholic liver damage?

a) GPT, γ-GT, ChE enzyme activities and lipid levels in serum
b) Alpha1-antitrypsin, ceruloplasmin and cupper concentration in plasma
c) Prothrombin time
d) Blood-pH and blood-gas analysis

A

a) GPT, γ-GT, ChE enzyme activities and lipid levels in serum

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59
Q

What tests are suggestive for biliary duct obstruction?

a) Serum protein electrophoresis
b) Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
c) Ammonium concentration in plasma
d) γ-GT, AP enzyme activities and bilirubin levels in serum

A

d) γ-GT, AP enzyme activities and bilirubin levels in serum

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60
Q

Which tumor markers are elevated in ovarian cancer?

a) Neuron specific enolase + alkaline phosphatase
b) CA-125 + HE4
c) Catecholamines (epinephrine + norepinephrine)
d) Thymidine kinase

A

b) CA-125 + HE4

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61
Q

Which abnormality is often seen in primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)?

a) hyperkalemia
b) hypokalemia
c) hypercalcemia
d) hypocalcemia

A

b) hypokalemia

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62
Q

Which hormone is a tumor marker?

a) TSH
b) Thyroxine
c) Calcitonin
d) Vasopressin

A

c) Calcitonin

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63
Q

BRCA1 gene mutation is a risk factor for:

a) Bone tumor
b) Brain tumor
c) Breast and ovarian cancer
d) Kidney tumor

A

c) Breast and ovarian cancer

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64
Q

After an acute myocardial infraction serum myoglobin concentration peaks at:

a) 0.5 hour
b) 1-2 hours
c) 4-8 hours
d) 24-48 hours

A

c) 4-8 hours

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65
Q

Which one is correct for acromegaly?

a) Serum growth hormone (GH) concentration is low
b) Serum GH level is normal
c) Serum IGF-I and GH levels are high
d) Serum LH and FSH concentration are high

A

c) Serum IGF-I and GH levels are high

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66
Q

Which laboratory test is informative in carcinoid tumors?

a) Plasma PTH
b) Urinary free cortisol
c) Urinary 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA, as metabolit of serotonin)
d) Serum CEA

A

c) Urinary 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA, as metabolit of serotonin)

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67
Q

Which of the following parameters increase the most when the lying patient stands up?

a) hemoglobin
b) renin
c) total protein
d) cholesterol

A

b) renin

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68
Q

Which of the following parameters is correlated with age?

a) osmolality
b) BUN
c) IgA
d) ammonia

A

c) IgA

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69
Q

Which of the following parameters is not correlated with age?

a) cholesterol
b) chloride
c) total protein
d) alkaline phosphatase

A

b) chloride

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70
Q

Which of the following parameters decrease with age?

a) IgG
b) creatinine
c) albumin
d) potassium

A

d) potassium

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71
Q

Which of the following parameters has a peak value at noon?

a) iron
b) testosteron
c) hematocrit
d) norepinephrine

A

a) iron

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72
Q

Which parameter is not increased in hemolysed samples?

a) lactate hydrogenase
b) potassium
c) alanin aminotransferase
d) aspartate aminotransferase

A

c) alanin aminotransferase

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73
Q

During which phase do most errors with lab tests occur?

a) pre-pre- analytical
b) analytical
c) post-analytical
d) post-post- analytical

A

a) pre-pre- analytical

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74
Q

What is the major source of pre-analytical errors?

a) environmental factors
b) mistake wrong indication of during lab tests requests
c) biological variability
d) sampling

A

d) sampling
(b) mistake wrong indication of during lab tests requests (??? by doctors or people at the lab)**

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75
Q

Which of the following is the most frequent sampling error?

a) inappropriate tube
b) clots
c) insufficient volume
d) misindification

A

c) insufficient volume

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76
Q

Which statement is false?

a) hemoglobin interferes with photometry
b) hemolysis interferes with chemical reactions
c) at 0,1 g/l free hemoglobin level the hemolysis is visible
d) serum levels of intracellular analytes increase

A

c) at 0,1 g/l free hemoglobin level the hemolysis is visible

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77
Q

How can hemolysed samples be recognised? Mark the wrong answer!

a) measuring hemolysis index
b) adding LipoClear
c) inspecting the sample
d) measuring potassium levels

A

b) adding LipoClear

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78
Q

Capillary sampling. What should you pay attention to?

a) keep the capillary vertical during sampling
b) never rotate the sample several times
c) the first drop is the most preferable for measuring
d) forced massage can cause hemolysis

A

d) forced massage can cause hemolysis

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79
Q

Which is the right order of tubes during sampling?

a) blood culture - sodium fluoride tube for blood glucose tests - native tube for serum - citrate tubes for hemostasis test - heparin tube
b) blood culture - native tube for serum - heparin tube – sodium fluoride tube for blood glucose tests - citrate tubes for hemostasis test
c) blood culture - native tube for serum - heparin tube - citrate tubes for hemostasis test - sodium fluoride tube for blood glucose tests
d) blood culture – citrate tubes for hemostasis test – native tube for serum - heparin tube – sodium fluoride tube for blood glucose tests

A

d) blood culture – citrate tubes for hemostasis test – native tube for serum - heparin tube – sodium fluoride tube for blood glucose tests

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80
Q

Which one is not a pre-analytical error?

a) lipemic sample
b) wrong request
c) random error
d) prolonged storage

A

c) random error

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81
Q

What does TAT refers to in laboratories?

a) time between arrival of sample to the lab and the generation of the results
b) time needed for antitrombin degradation
c) half life of tyreoid antibodies
d) transcription time of thymine-adenine- thymine sequences

A

a) time between arrival of sample to the lab and the generation of the results

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82
Q

What is the lot number of reagents?

a) the amount of sample that the reagent is enough for
b) a number which shows that a measure is how reproducable
c) production number
d) expiration date

A

c) production number

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83
Q

Which of the following expresses the rate of systemic error?

a) imprecision
b) bias
c) reproducibility
d) accuracy

A

b) bias

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84
Q

What should be done in case of significant error?

a) the system cannot be used to measure
b) the systems status should be tested
c) in case of necessity: calibration
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

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85
Q

How is the testing done in STAT mode?

a) one type of measurement is done first from all the samples
b) all the requested tests from one sample are initiated
c) emergency requests are done first
d) all answers are wrong

A

c) emergency requests are done first

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86
Q

Which result can be used for clinical decision making?

a) validated result
b) passed result by the technician
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

a) validated result

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87
Q

Bias:

a) difference between the expected value and the real value
b) expresses the rate of random error
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

a) difference between the expected value and the real value

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88
Q

Accuracy

a) depends on reproducibility and bias
b) mean value of measurements divided by standard deviation
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

d) both answers are wrong

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89
Q

Part of internal quality control tasks :

a) applying Westgard-rules
b) calibration
c) daily / regular measurement of control samples of known concentrations
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

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90
Q

External quality control:

a) it is supervised by independent organisation
b) it is evaluated centrally
c) the laboratory is provided samples of unknown analyte levels
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

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91
Q

Specificity:

a) probability of having a negative test result in a healthy subject
b) probability of having a positive test result in a sick patient
c) probability that the tested patient is affected if test result is positive
d) probability that the tested patient is not affected if test result is negative

A

a) probability of having a negative test result in a healthy subject

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92
Q

Positive predictive value

a) probability of having a negative test result in a healthy subject
b) probability of having a positive test result in a sick patient
c) probability that the tested patient is affected if test result is positive
d) probability that the tested patient is not affected if test result is negative

A

c) probability that the tested patient is affected if test result is positive

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93
Q

Negative predictive value:

a) probability of having a negative test result in a healthy subject
b) probability of having a positive test result in a sick patient
c) probability that the tested patient is affected if test result is positive
d) probability that the tested patient is not affected if test result is negative

A

d) probability that the tested patient is not affected if test result is negative

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94
Q

ROC curve:

a) sensitivity on the x-axis and specificity on the y-axis
b) specificity on the x-axis, and sensitivity on the y-axis
c) 1-specificity on the x-axis, and sensitivity on the y-axis
d) 1-sensitivity on the x-axis, and specificity on the y-axis

A

c) 1-specificity on the x-axis, and sensitivity on the y-axis

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95
Q

Emergency lab tests:

a) they are provided only if they fall out of reference range
b) TAT time is higher than 1 hour
c) they are the same in every laboratory
d) passed results by the technician can be seen without validation

A

d) passed results by the technician can be seen without validation

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96
Q

Which statement is true regarding alarm values:

a) They require immediate clinical decision
b) There is no unified guideline, it depends on the clinic sending the sample
c) They are critical values that should be communicated to the doctor immediately
d) All answers are correct

A

d) All answers are correct

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97
Q

What happens if we decrease the cut off value of a test where the high values are abnormal?

a) the sensitivity increases
b) the specificity increases
c) the sensitivity and specificity doesn’t change
d) all three answers are wrong

A

a) the sensitivity increases

98
Q

What kind of test is needed when false positive results have huge consequences?

a) test with high sensitivity
b) test with high specificity
c) test with high positive predictive value
d) test with high negative predictive value

A

b) test with high specificity

99
Q

When should one measure the cholesterol / triglyceride levels?

a) cardiovascular disease in the patient’s history
b) patient younger than 50 years has arcus corneae
c) monitoring the effect of cholesterol-lowering drug
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

100
Q

Falsely low triglyceride level is caused by:

a) high bilirubin level
b) high creatinin level
c) high ascorbic acid level
d) all three answers are correct

A

c) high ascorbic acid level

101
Q

Chronic strangulation / venous compression increases:

a) cholesterol level
b) triglyceride level
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

c) both answers are correct

102
Q

Most often used auxiliary enzyme in cholesterol measurement in clinical laboratories:

a) cholesterol – esterase
b) cholesterol – oxidase
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

c) both answers are correct

103
Q

Component, which can be found in LDL lipoprotein:

a) triglyceride
b) cholesterol – ester
c) apolipoprotein
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

104
Q

Cholesterol

a) detection is only allowed from fasting blood sample
b) the level will be decreased, if it is not taken in fluorid containing tube
c) can be detected from serum and plasma
d) it is mostly unbound in the blood

A

c) can be detected from serum and plasma

105
Q

Hyperlipoproteinaemia is frequent in:

a) familiar disturbed fat metabolism
b) nephrosis syndrome
c) diabetes mellitus
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

106
Q

Mass spectrometry can be used in:

a) clinical toxicology
b) screening inborn errors of metabolism
c) identification of bacteria
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

107
Q

In mass spectrometry the separation is based on:

a) mass and absorbance
b) mass and molecule size
c) mass and charge
d) mass and light scattering

A

c) mass and charge

108
Q

The most common inborn errors:

a) are detected using dried filter blood spots taken on the first week of birth
b) screening is on the 6th week together with vaccination
c) screening uses clinical chemistry methods nowadays
d) all three answers are correct

A

a) are detected using dried filter blood spots taken on the first week of birth

109
Q

Fructose-amine

a) It’s unit indicates the amount of glucose in mmol that binds to 1g albumin
b) has a shorter half-life than that of HbA1c
c) it’s measurement is interfered by the same factors as of HbA1c
d) all three answers are correct

A

b) has a shorter half-life than that of HbA1c

110
Q

What is the eAG value?

a) average HbA1c value
b) average glucose estimated from HbA1c value
c) renal function estimated from creatinin level
d) Hba1c value expected on the basis of age

A

b) average glucose estimated from HbA1c value

111
Q

Measurement of HbA1c is influenced by:

a) abnormalities with the quantity of Hb
b) abnormalities with the quality of Hb
c) RBC abnormalities
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

112
Q

Which is the IFCC unit of HbA1c level?

a) U/l
b) g/dl
c) mmol/mol
d) mmol/l

A

c) mmol/mol

113
Q

Method which can be used for measuring HbA1c:

a) HPLC
b) immunochemistry method
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

c) both answers are correct

114
Q

Generation of HbA1c:

a) ketoamine is produced during a reversible process
b) it is catalysed by the glucokinase enyzme
c) mostly depends on blood glucose level at constant hemoglobin concentrations
d) all three answers are correct

A

c) mostly depends on blood glucose level at constant hemoglobin

115
Q

Characteristic for diabetic ketoacidosis

a) hypervolaemia
b) hyperosmolality
c) increased bicarbonate
d) all three answers are correct

A

b) hyperosmolality

116
Q

In which condition can ketone bodies appear in urine?

a) fasting
b) disturbed carbohydrate metabolism
c) disturbed lipid metabolism
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

117
Q

Mark the wrong answer! Short-term complication of diabetes:

a) lactic acidosis
b) hyperglicemic, hiperosmolar condition without ketosis
c) retinopathy
d) hypoglycemia

A

c) retinopathy

118
Q

Mark the wrong answer! Long-term complication of diabetes:

a) neuropathy
b) atherosclerosis
c) diabetic ketoacidosis
d) nephropathy

A

c) diabetic ketoacidosis

119
Q

Which test is suitable for detecting diabetic complications

a) detecting Glutamate acid decarboxilase autoantibodies
b) measuring C-peptid levels
c) measuring insulin levels
d) all three answers are wrong

A

d) all three answers are wrong

120
Q

Autoantibody present in type 1 diabetes mellitus:

a) Islet cell autoantibodies
b) Glutamate acid decarboxilase autoantibodies
c) Tirosin-phosphatase IA-2 autoantibodies
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

121
Q

Which HLA subtype is the most frequent in diabetic patients?

a) HLA-DR1
b) HLA-DR2
c) HLA-DR3
d) HLA-DR4

A

d) HLA-DR4

122
Q

Insulin level is increased in:

a) later phase of type 2 diabetes mellitus
b) polycystic ovary syndrome
c) insulinoma
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

123
Q

C-peptid level is decreased in:

a) Insulinoma
b) type 1 diabetes mellitus
c) type 2 diabetes mellitus
d) renal failure

A

b) type 1 diabetes mellitus

124
Q

Urinary glucose detection is influenced by:

a) ascorbic acid
b) disinfectant
c) bacterial contamination
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

125
Q

NADPH is monitored in vitro in which method?

a) glucose oxidase method
b) hexokinase method
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

b) hexokinase method

126
Q

Which method used for measuring blood glucose is influenced by ascorbic acid?

a) glucose oxidase method
b) hexokinase method
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

a) glucose oxidase method

127
Q

Which method can be used for measuring blood glucose in laboratories?

a) glucose oxidase method
b) hexokinase method
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

c) both answers are correct

128
Q

An oral glucose tolerance tests result is 6,5 mmol/l after 2 hours

a) the diagnosis is diabetes mellitus
b) the diagnosis is IGT
c) the diagnosis is IFG
d) all answers are wrong

A

c) the diagnosis is IFG

129
Q

An oral glucose tolerance tests result is 9 mmol/l after 2 hours

a) the diagnosis is diabetes mellitus
b) the diagnosis is IGT
c) the diagnosis is IFG
d) all answers are wrong

A

b) the diagnosis is IGT

130
Q

Fasting blood glucose level is 6,5 mmol/l

a) the diagnosis is diabetes mellitus
b) oral glucose tolerance test should be done
c) random blood glucose level should be measured
d) the diagnosis is IGT

A

b) oral glucose tolerance test should be done

131
Q

Fasting blood glucose level is 8,2 mmol/l

a) the diagnosis is diabetes mellitus
b) oral glucose tolerance is needed for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
c) the diagnosis is IFG
d) the diagnosis is IGT

A

a) the diagnosis is diabetes mellitus

132
Q

Recommended frequency of tumor marker tests during monitoring

a) before therapy switch
b) new staging
c) 14-30 days after measuring an abnormal tumor marker level
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

133
Q

TPA:

a) can be used for monitoring lung cancer
b) has prognostic value in superficial bladder cancer
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

c) both answers are correct

134
Q

Which method is used when measuring glicated protein–type tumor markers?

a) clinical chemistry method
b) immunoassay
c) electrophoresis
d) turbidimetry

A

b) immunoassay

135
Q

TK1 can be used without other tumor markers in

a) prostate cancer
b) head-neck epithelial cancer
c) myeloma multiplex
d) colorectal cancer

A

c) myeloma multiplex

136
Q

CA72-2 is often used for monitoring which cancer?

a) gastric cancer
b) lung cancer
c) breast cancer
d) ovarian cancer

A

a) gastric cancer

137
Q

CA125 is often used for monitoring which cancer?

a) prostate cancer
b) gastric cancer
c) ovarian cancer
d) pancreatic cancer

A

c) ovarian cancer

138
Q

CA19-9 is often used for monitoring which cancer?

a) prostate cancer
b) pancreatic cancer
c) ovarian cancer
d) breast cancer

A

b) pancreatic cancer

139
Q

What happens if we increase the cut off value of a test where the high values are abnormal?

a) the sensitivity increases
b) the specificity increases
c) the sensitivity and specificity doesn’t change
d) all three answers are wrong

A

b) the specificity increases

140
Q

Predictive value:

a) it depends on the specificity only
b) it depends on the sensitivity only
c) it depends on characteristics of tested population
d) it is not influenced by the prevalence of disease in the tested population

A

c) it depends on characteristics of tested population

141
Q

The reference range of female sex hormones depends on:

a) age
b) menstrual cycle
c) sexual maturity
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

142
Q

What can a test result be compared to if the results reference range dependens on the gestation time:

a) percentile
b) MoM (multiple of medians)
c) T-score and Z-score
d) all three answers are correct

A

b) MoM (multiple of medians)

143
Q

ROC curve

a) Indicates the true positive rate and the false-positive rate at difference cut-off values
b) The test is more accurate if the curves slope is closer to 45°
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

a) Indicates the true positive rate and the false-positive rate at difference cut-off values

144
Q

Z-score and T-score are used for the examination of :

a) liver
b) bowels
c) bone
d) lungs

A

c) bone

145
Q

Which of the following is absent in a properly collected healthy urine sample?

a) nitrites
b) leukocytes
c) bilirubin
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct (??)

Because: Bilirubin is present in hemolysis (rbc breakdown) and leukocytes and nitrites are signs of infection.

146
Q

Which of the following can cause green-cyanic coloured urine?

a) melanin
b) bilirubin
c) chyluria
d) pseudomonas infection

A

d) pseudomonas infection

According to mayoclinic:

Blue or green urine can be caused by:

Dyes. Some brightly colored food dyes can cause green urine. Dyes used for some tests of kidney and bladder function can turn urine blue.

Medications. A number of medications produce blue or green urine, including amitriptyline, indomethacin (Indocin, Tivorbex) and propofol (Diprivan).

Medical conditions. Familial benign hypercalcemia, a rare inherited disorder, is sometimes called blue diaper syndrome because children with the disorder have blue urine. Green urine sometimes occurs during urinary tract infections caused by pseudomonas bacteria.

147
Q

Which of the following can’t cause red coloured urine?

a) nitrofurantoin
b) levodopa
c) myoglobin
d) senna

A

c) Myoglobin?? (More brown discoloration- Rhabdomyolysis)

(Mayoclinic) Red or pink urine can be caused by:

Blood. Factors that can cause urinary blood (hematuria) include urinary tract infections, an enlarged prostate, cancerous and noncancerous tumors, kidney cysts, long-distance running, and kidney or bladder stones.

Foods. Beets, blackberries and rhubarb can turn urine red or pink.

Medications. Rifampin (Rifadin, Rimactane), an antibiotic often used to treat tuberculosis, can turn urine reddish orange — as can phenazopyridine (Pyridium), a drug that numbs urinary tract discomfort, and laxatives containing senna.

148
Q

Which of the following doesn’t influence the glucose test of the urinary test strip?

a) ascorbic acid
b) ketones
c) bacteria
d) fructose

A

d) fructose

149
Q

Which ketone body can’t be measured with urinary test strip?

a) acetone
b) acetoacetate
c) beta-hydroxy- butyrate

A

c) beta-hydroxy- butyrate

150
Q

Which of the following conditions doesn’t increase the urinary bilirubin concentration?

a) hemolysis
b) biliary obstruction
c) hepatitis
d) all answers are wrong

A

a) hemolysis

151
Q

In which of the following conditions does the urinary urobilinogen decrease?

a) hemolysis
b) biliary obstruction
c) in the late stage of hepatic damage
d) all three answers are correct

A

b) biliary obstruction

152
Q

Which of the following conditions causes pale/clay-colored stool?

a) pancreatic tumour
b) cholestasis
c) acute hepatic damage
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

153
Q

Which of the following doesn’t influence the bilirubin test of the urinary test strip?

a) ascorbic acid
b) urobilinogen
c) nitrite
d) blood

A

b) urobilinogen

154
Q

Which leukocyte enzyme is detected by the urinary test strip?

a) NADP-oxidase
b) esterase
c) hexokinase
d) enolase

A

b) esterase

155
Q

Which of the following test is done mostly bedside?

a) hydrogen breath test
b) cystic fibrosis test
c) continuous blood glucose monitoring
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

156
Q

Which statement is false regarding bedside testing?

a) it is faster than regular lab tests
b) supports immediate clinical decision making
c) quality control is not necessary
d) comfortable for the patient/doctor

A

c) quality control is not necessary

157
Q

Which analyte has no bedside test?

a) hemoglobin
b) anti-streptococcus antibody
c) glucose
d) cortisol

A

d) cortisol

158
Q

Which method is used when measuring glucose with test strip?

a) glucose-oxidase method
b) hexokinase method
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

a)glucose-oxidase method

159
Q

Which of the following can cause brownish black coloured urine?

a) methemoglobin
b) lipiduria
c) etoxasan
d) ribaflavin

A

a) methemoglobin

160
Q

Which of the following can cause milky urine?

a) etoxasan
b) ribaflavin
c) chyluria
d) senna

A

c) chyluria

161
Q

Which urine? of the following component(s) is/are responsible for the specific gravity of

a) urea
b) NaCl
c) phosphate salts
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

162
Q

Which available test strips? of the following urinary parameters can’t be detected by using the

a) specific gravity
b) urea
c) urobilinogen
d) leukocyte

A

b) urea

163
Q

Which of the following can alter the specific gravity of the urinary test strip?

a) glucose
b) protein
c) contrast agent
d) all three answers are wrong

A

d) all three answers are wrong

164
Q

Which of the following can alter the urinary protein of the urinary test strip?

a) pH change
b) contrast agents
c) turbidity
d) all three answers are correct

A

a) pH change

165
Q

What is the detection principle of the measurement of blood with urinary test strip?

a) chromogen binding of hemoglobin causes a colored substrate
b) GP6DH enzyme activity
c) hem peroxidase activity
d) measuring the potassium ion released from RBC

A

c) hem peroxidase activity

166
Q

Which statement is false regarding biliary obstruction?

a) the stool is pale
b) urinary bilirubin concentration increases
c) serum CA19-9 can be increased
d) urinary urobilinogen concentration increases

A

d) urinary urobilinogen concentration increases

167
Q

Which of the following bacteria species doesn’t produce nitrite?

a) Klebsiella
b) Enterococcus
c) Enterobacter
d) Staphylococcus

A

b) Enterococcus

168
Q

Which statement is false regarding the detection of blood with fecal immunochemical (FIT) test?

a) detects upper gastrointentinal bleeding as well
b) detects human hemoglobin only
c) uses antibodies against hemoglobin

A

a) detects upper gastrointentinal bleeding as well

169
Q

Laboratory alteration of SIRS can be:

a) WBC> 15 G/L
b) WBC <3 G/L
c) >10% bands
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

170
Q

The sepsis continuum:

a) Sepsis - SIRS – severe sepsis – septic shock
b) SIRS – sepsis – septic shock – severe sepsis
c) SIRS – sepsis – severe sepsis – septic shock
d) Sepsis – SIRS – septic shock – severe sepsis

A

c) SIRS – sepsis – severe sepsis – septic shock

171
Q

In serum electrophoresis, the proteins are separated by:

a) mass and size
b) absorbance and charge
c) mass and absorbance
d) size and charge

A

d) size and charge

172
Q

In acute phase reaction:

a) albumin/globulin ratio decreases
b) albumin level increases
c) haptoglobin level decreases
d) alpha-1 proteins level decrease

A

a) albumin/globulin ratio decreases

173
Q

Negative acute phase protein:

a) procalcitonin
b) proteinase inhibitors
c) iron
d) ferritin

A

c) iron

174
Q

Positive acute phase protein:

a) α1 acidic glycoprotein
b) prealbumin
c) apoA1
d) albumin

A

a) α1 acidic glycoprotein

175
Q

Which is not a positive acute phase protein:

a) serum amyloid
b) albumin
c) C3 and C4
d) interleukin-6

A

b) albumin

176
Q

Mark the wrong answer! FUO (fever of unknown origin)

a) is a type of fever, where the origin is still unknown after 3 weeks
b) can be caused by connecting tissue diseases
c) can be caused by infection
d) is mostly caused by tumour

A

d) is mostly caused by tumour

177
Q

Which is common in a bacterial infection:

a) granulocytosis
b) lymphocytosis
c) monocytosis
d) all three answers are wrong

A

a) granulocytosis

178
Q

Which can influence the erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

a) level of alpha-globulins
b) level of fibrinogen
c) level of immunglobulins
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

179
Q

Reference values of erythrocyte sedimentation rate

a) male <10 mm/hour, female <15 mm/hour
b) male <20 mm/hour, female <10 mm/hour
c) male <25 mm/hour, female <40 mm/hour
d) male <40 mm/hour, female <25 mm/hour

A

a) male <10 mm/hour, female <15 mm/hour

180
Q

The correct citrate/blood ratio in the tube of the erythrocyte sedimentation rate test:

a) 1:1
b) 1:2
c) 1:3
d) 1:4

A

d) 1:4

181
Q

How does citrate/blood ratio influence the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?

a) it doesn’t influence ESR
b) more citrate increases ESR
c) less citrate increases ESR
d) all three answers are wrong

A

b) more citrate increases ESR

182
Q

What should you note during the erythrocyte sedimentation rate test?

a) appropiate time should be devoted for the test
b) tube should be vertically positioned
c) the test should be performed at room temperatue
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

183
Q

Mark the wrong answer! C-reactive protein

a) is a calcium binding protein of five subunits
b) enhances phagocytosis
c) only increases in bacterial infection
d) is measured by immunoassay in clinical diagnostic laboratories

A

c) only increases in bacterial infection

184
Q

Extensively increased levels during bacterial infection in blood samples:

a) CRP
b) procalcitonin
c) WBC
d) CRP + procalcitonin

A

d) CRP + procalcitonin

185
Q

Neopterin:

a) has a shorter half-life than that of IFN-gamma
b) levels are increased only after extensive antibody production
c) produced in association with humoral immune response
d) can help to differentiate between bacterial and viral infections

A

d) can help to differentiate between bacterial and viral infections

186
Q

CSF Neutrophil granulocyte count is increased in:

a) Guillan-Barré syndrome
b) sclerosis multiplex
c) bacterial meningitis
d) viral meningitis

A

c) bacterial meningitis

187
Q

CSF Lymphocyte count is increased in:

a) viral meningitis
b) bacterial meningitis
c) empyema
d) brain abscess

A

a) viral meningitis

188
Q

Healthy liquor glucose level:

a) 1-2 mmol/l
b) 4-5 mmol/l
c) 2/3 of plasma glucose level
d) the same value as plasma glucose level

A

c) 2/3 of plasma glucose level

189
Q

Contraindications of CSF sampling:

a) severe fever
b) increased intracranial pressure
c) diabetes
d) renal failure

A

b) increased intracranial pressure

190
Q

During the primary immune response:

a) maximal IgM antibodies
b) maximal IgG antibodies
c) Increased WBC
d) Increased IgG

A

a) maximal IgM antibodies

191
Q

In case of suspicion of meningitis the required laboratory tests are:

a) in liquor: glucose, protein, WBC and urine glucose
b) in liquor: protein, WBC, hemoculture
c) in liquor: creatinin, WBC, protein, microbiology
d) in liquor: glucose, protein, WBC, microbiology and in blood: glucose and albumin

A

d) in liquor: glucose, protein, WBC, microbiology and in blood: glucose and albumin

192
Q

CSF albumin levels in healthy adults:

a) liquor/serum albumin ratio 1:10
b) liquor/serum albumin ratio 1:200
c) 4 g/l
d) 40 g/l

A

b) liquor/serum albumin ratio 1:200

193
Q

Origin of liquor proteins in healthy adults:

a) locally produced proteins
b) neurons
c) blood
d) unknown

A

c) blood

194
Q

When determining cell counts in liquor with a microscope WBCs and RBCs are differentiated by the following procedure:

a) after measuring total cell count, WBCs are measured by peroxidase activity
b) after measuring total cell count, RBCs are lysed with the acetic acid of Türk solution
c) after measuring total cell count, WBCs are lysed with the acetic acid of Türk solution
d) after measuring total cell count, the level of hemoglobin in liquor is measured

A

b) after measuring total cell count, RBCs are lysed with the acetic acid of Türk solution

195
Q

In arteficial bleeding of liquor:

a) the sample remains yellowish after centrifusion
b) after sampling, the bloody CSF cleares up in consecutive tubes
c) RBCs may decrease in size
d) ratio of RBC: WBC is 1:10

A

b) after sampling, the bloody CSF cleares up in consecutive tubes

196
Q

In pathological bleeding of liquor:

a) the glucose level in the liquor is largely decreased
b) after sampling, the bloody CSF cleares up in consecutive tubes
c) ratio of RBC: WBC is 1:700
d) the sample remains yellowish after centrifusion

A

d) the sample remains yellowish after centrifusion

197
Q

The yellowish colour of centrifuged liquor can be caused by:

a) renal failure
b) increased WBC
c) hyperbilirubinaemia
d) artificial bleeding

A

c)hyperbilirubinaemia

198
Q

In case sample of suspicion of meningitis, while waiting for the transport, the liquor:

a) must be stored at room temperature
b) must be put in the fridge
c) must be put in a 40 oC thermostat
d) must be frozen

A

a) must be stored at room temperature

199
Q

The quantity of liquor sample should be taken from healthy adults

a) 1-2 ml
b) 2-3 ml
c) 10-15 ml
d) 30-40ml

A

c) 10-15 ml

200
Q

What can be measured by flow cytometry?

a) receptors
b) adhesion molecules
c) cytokines
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

201
Q

MCV is calculated by using the following formula:

a) =Hb/Htc
b) =Htc/RBC
c) =Htc/Hb
d) =Hb/RBC

A

b) =Htc/RBC

202
Q

MCH is calculated by using the following formula:

a) =Hb/Htc
b) =Htc/RBC
c) =Htc/Hb
d) =Hb/RBC

A

d) =Hb/RBC

203
Q

Which is the measuring principle of hematology analyzers?

a) radiofrequence resistence
b) electric impedence
c) optical based measurement
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

204
Q

What does the LUC stand for? (measured by the ADVIA instrument:

a) Little unstained cells
b) Lymphocyte-like unstained cells
c) Living unstained cells
d) Large unstained cells

A

d) Large unstained cells

205
Q

What is the principle of reticulocyte detection? Transition to sphere and then …

a) reticulocyte DNA detection with fluorescent dye
b) reticulocyte RNA detection with fluorescent dye
c) reticulocyte protein detection with fluorescent dye
d) reticulocyte carbohydrate detection with fluorescent dye

A

b) reticulocyte RNA detection with fluorescent dye

206
Q

CBC changes following 8 hours of storage at room temperature:

a) Increased MCV, increased hematocrit
b) Decreased WBC
c) RBC loose their biconcave shape
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

207
Q

In which condition may cold agglutinin be present?

a) infectious mononucleosis
b) mycoplasma pneumonia
c) autoimmune diseases
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

208
Q

In EDTA-induced platelet-agglutination:

a) doesn’t influence platelet count
b) platelet count is falsely low
c) platelet count is falsely high
d) all three answers are wrong

A

b) platelet count is falsely low

209
Q

How does high levels of WBC count affect the platelet count?

a) it doesn’t affect it
b) it significantly increases it
c) it significantly decreases it
d) it slightly increases it

A

a) it doesn’t affect it

210
Q

What can affect the determination of hemoglobin?

a) jaundice
b) heparinated blood
c) severe lipemia
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

211
Q

Which falsely measured parameter can lead to a false hematocrit value?

a) RBC count
b) MCW
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

c) both answers are correct

212
Q

Which RBC may be counted as WBC by the instrument?

a) nucleated RBC
b) fragmented RBC
c) microcyte
d) all three answers are correct

A

a) nucleated RBC

213
Q

Which of following parameters are decreased by hemolysis?

a) RBC
b) hematocrit
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

c) both answers are correct

214
Q

Which of the following substrates can be used as tumor markers?

a) enzymes
b) serum proteins
c) hormones
d) all three answers are correct

A

d) all three answers are correct

215
Q

HOMA-index

a) expresses homocystein – cholesterol ratio
b) high values are an indication for insulin resistance
c) low values are an indication for insulin resistance
d) refers to ovaric cancer

A

b) high values are an indication for insulin resistance

216
Q

EDTA plasma can’t be used for measuring blood glucose in which method?

a) glucose oxidase method
b) hexokinase method
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

b) hexokinase method

217
Q

CA15-3 is often used for monitoring which cancer?

a) breast cancer
b) gastric cancer
c) pancreatic cancer
d) lung cancer

A

a) breast cancer

218
Q

Which of the following parameters are increased by fragmentocytes?

a) RBC count
b) platelet count
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

b) platelet count

219
Q

Giant platelets:

a) they cause an elevation at the left side of the PLT histogram
b) they cause an elevation at the right side of the RBC histogram
c) they significantly increase RBC count
d) are counted as RBCs by the instrument

A

b) they cause an elevation at the right side of the RBC histogram
d) are counted as RBCs by the instrument

???

220
Q

Which cell surface marker is specific for stem cells?

a) CD25
b) CD34
c) CD40
d) CD136

A

b) CD34

221
Q

MCHC is calculated by using the following formula

a) =Hb/Htc
b) =Htc/RBC
c) =Htc/Hb
d) =Hb/RBC

A

a) =Hb/Htc

222
Q

Presepsin is the soluble form of:

a) CD14
b) CD26
c) CD64
d) CD163

A

a) CD14

223
Q

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

a) increases 24 hours after inflammation
b) is always decreased in anemia
c) is decreased by cortizol
d) all three answers are correct

A

a) increases 24 hours after inflammation

224
Q

Procalcitonin:

a) indicates systemic bacterial infection later than CRP
b) levels are increased in medullary thyreoid cancer without infection
c) is never produced by the lungs and bowels
d) is used to measure the condition of bone

A

b) levels are increased in medullary thyreoid cancer without infection

225
Q

What does SIRS stand for?

a) systemic inflammatory response syndrome
b) severe respiratory disorder
c) disorder of renal function
d) disorder of hepatic function

A

a) systemic inflammatory response syndrome

226
Q

Which of the following can cause alkaline urine?

a) renal tubular acidosis
b) consumption of meat
c) methionine
d) metenamine – mandelate

A

a) renal tubular acidosis

227
Q

Which test has low false negative results?

a) test with high sensitivity
b) test with high specificity
c) test with high positive predictive value
d) test with high negative predictive value

A

a) test with high sensitivity

228
Q

Which statement is true regarding alarm values:

a) The reporter’s name and position should be documented
b) the written laboratory results are not needed for the decision making
c) both answers are correct
d) both answers are wrong

A

a) The reporter’s name and position should be documented

229
Q

Sensitivity:

a) probability of having a negative test result in a healthy subject
b) probability of having a positive test result in a sick patient
c) probability that the tested patient is affected if test result is positive
d) probability that the tested patient is not affected if test result is negative

A

b) probability of having a positive test result in a sick patient

230
Q

How is the testing done in batch mode?

a) one type of measurement is done first from all the samples
b) all the requested tests from one sample are initiated
c) emergency requests are done first
d) all answers are wrong

A

a) one type of measurement is done first from all the samples

231
Q

Capillary blood must be drawn from which part of the body under the age of 1?

a) side of the plant
b) heel
c) index finger
d) thumb

A

a) side of the plant

232
Q

Lipemic serum sample (turbid to opaque) indicates:

a) High triglyceride concentrations
b) High HDL-cholesterol concentrations
c) High LDL-cholesterol levels
d) High phospholipid levels

A

a) High triglyceride concentrations

233
Q

What means HbA1c?

a) Glycated hemoglobin
b) Fetal hemoglobin form
c) A breakdown product of hemoglobin
d) Abnormal hemoglobin form in thalassemia

A

a) Glycated hemoglobin

234
Q

What relationship is true for immunoglobulin in serum?

a) IgG > IgM
b) IgG < IgM
c) IgG = IgM
d) IgG < IgA

A

a) IgG > IgM

235
Q

Which type of leukemia is associated with Philadelphia chromosome (t9,22) genetic translocation?

a) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b) Chronic myeloid leukemia
c) Acute monoblastic leukemia (AML FAB-M5)
d) Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia (AML FAB-M7)

A

b) Chronic myeloid leukemia

236
Q

After an acute myocardial infraction serum myoglobin concentration peaks at:

a) 0.5 hour
b) 1-2 hours
c) 4-8 hours
d) 24-48 hours

A

b) 1-2 hours

237
Q

The prevalence of heterozygote Leiden mutation in the overall population is:

a) About 1%
b) About 2-3 %
c) About 10%
d) About 20-25%

A

b) About 2-3 %

238
Q

BRCA1 gene mutation is a risk factor for:

a) Bone tumor
b) Brain tumor
c) Breast and ovarian cancer
d) Kidney tumor

A

c) Breast and ovarian cancer

239
Q

What is the diagnosis based on the following thyroid function test results? TSH: ↓↓ T3:↑↑ T4:↑↑

A

Hyper

240
Q

What is the diagnosis based on the following thyroid function test results? TSH:↑↑↑ T3:↓↓ T4:↓↓

A

Hypo

241
Q

The laboratory report is: serum creatinine 100 µmol/L, urinary creatinine 9000 µmol/L, urine volume 1.44 liter/24 hours. What is the creatinine clearance value?.

A

90ml/min

Laboratory Medicine (2 decks)

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