Written Flashcards

1
Q

When is the active phase of the first stage of labour considered to be abnormal?

A

Cervical dilatation of less than 2cm in 4 hours

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2
Q

How should the active stage of labour be managed?

A

10iU oxytocin with the birth of the anterior shoulder

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3
Q

How often should foetal HR be checked if there are no indications for continuous CTG?

A

15 minutes

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4
Q

How often should frequency of contractions be checked in labour?

A

Every 30 minutes

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5
Q

How often should maternal HR be checked in labour?

A

Every hour

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6
Q

How often should maternal BP & temperature be checked, and how often should a vaginal exam be performed in labour?

A

4 hours

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7
Q

How long after birth should maternal obs be checked?

A

2 hours

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8
Q

When should APGAR score be checked?

A

1, 5, 10 mins post birth

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9
Q

When should breastfeeding be initiated?

A

Within the 1st hour after birth

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10
Q

When should vitamin K be administered to a newborn?

A

In the delivery room

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11
Q

When should vaginal progesterone be used to prevent preterm labour?

A

16-24wks
If Hx spontaneous preterm birth
If Hx mid trimester loss
If cervical length <25mm on TV USS

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12
Q

How is preterm labour managed?

A

Maternal Corticosteroids
Tocolytics (Nifedipine, Atosiban)
IV Magnesium Sulphate

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13
Q

What is the antidote for magnesium sulphate toxicity?

A

Calcium Gluconate

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14
Q

How is P-PROM managed?

A

Speculum
Erythromycin
Betamethasone
Magnesium Sulphate

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15
Q

How is PROM managed with clear amniotic fluid?

A

Admit, 24h foetal surveillance

Offer IOL after 24h

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16
Q

How long should you monitor a neonate for signs of infection after delivery with PROM?

A

12 hours

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17
Q

How is shoulder Dystocia managed?

A
Call for help
Mcrobert's Manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure
Episiotomy
Rubin II
Wood's Screw
Deliver posterior arm
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18
Q

What is the risk of delivering the posterior arm in shoulder dystocia?

A

Humeral fractures

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19
Q

How is breech managed?

A

ECV at 36 if P0, 37 if PX

If declined, CS/breech delivery

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20
Q

How would you manage delivery if the baby is in the mento-posterior position (chin posterior)?

A

C Section

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21
Q

What is the main risk of vaginal prostaglandins in induction of labour?

A

Uterine Hyperstimulation

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22
Q

What is the main risk of artificial rupture of membranes?

A

Umbilical Cord Prolapse

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23
Q

How would you induce labour in a woman with a bishop’s score of more than 6?

A

Amniotomy

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24
Q

How would you induce labour in a woman with a bishop’s score of 6 or less?

A

Vaginal Prostaglandin if no Hx of hyperstimulation

Balloon catheter otherwise

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25
Q

How should you proceed if 2 hours after amniotomy labour has not begun?

A

IV Syntocinon

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26
Q

How should you proceed if umbilical cord prolapse is suspected?

A

Call for help
Continuous CTG
Theatre for immediate delivery
Elevate presenting part, reposition mother to all fours

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27
Q

How does PPH prophylaxis differ in C Section vs Vaginal delivery?

A

Vaginal -> IM oxytocin

CS -> IV Oxytocin

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28
Q

How should chronic hypertension be managed in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol -> Nifedipine
Aspirin from 12wks to birth
Growth scans every 4 weeks

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29
Q

How often should diabetics monitor glucose during pregnancy?

A

7x a day

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30
Q

How is thyrotoxicosis managed in the postpartum period?

A

Propranolol

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31
Q

Which drug should be avoided in the intrapartum period in asthmatics and those with heart disease?

A

Ergometrine

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32
Q

What is the second line treatment for UTI in pregnant women?

A

Amoxicillin

Cefalexin

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33
Q

How is toxoplasmosis treated in a pregnant woman?

A

Spiramycin

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34
Q

Which drug may be used to treat pregnant women with a high viral load of hepatitis B?

A

Tenofovir

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35
Q

How are neonates treated when mum had hep B?

A

Hep B Ig and Hep B vaccine given within 24h

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36
Q

What is the third line treatment for gestational hypertension?

A

Methyldopa

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37
Q

How should methyldopa use be managed in the postpartum period?

A

Stopped within 2 days of birth

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38
Q

How long after resolution should someone take a pregnancy test to see if their miscarriage is complete?

A

3 Weeks

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39
Q

What is the first line option for medical management of miscarriage?

A

Vaginal Misoprostol

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40
Q

What is the first line option for medical management of an ectopic?

A

Methotrexate

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41
Q

How would you follow up after salpingotomy for ectopic?

A

serum hCG every week until negative

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42
Q

How would you follow up after salpingectomy for ectopic?

A

Pregnancy test after 3 weeks

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43
Q

What is the first line management for molar pregnancies?

A

Suction curettage

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44
Q

For how long after sex can Ulipristal be used as emergency contraception?

A

120 hours

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45
Q

For how long can Levonorgestrel be used as emergency contraception after upsi?

A

72 hours

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46
Q

What is the recommended form of emergency contraception for women with a bmi >26?

A

EllaOne (Ulipristal)

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47
Q

Missed 2 coc pills in week 1?

A

Take 2 pills
Use condoms for 7 days
Emergency contraception

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48
Q

Missed 2 coc pills in week 2?

A

Take 2 pills
Use condoms for 7 days
No need for emergency contraception

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49
Q

Missed 2 coc pills in week 3?

A

2 Pills
Use condoms for 7 days
Finish current pack and omit pill-free break

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50
Q

How long should you use condoms if starting POP in the first 5 days of your cycle?

A

No need, immediate protection

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51
Q

How should cleft palates be managed surgically?

A

Primary lip closure at 3m

Primary closure at 6-12m

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52
Q

How should a neonate with cmv be managed?

A

Barrier nursing

Valganciclovir

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53
Q

How should neonatal conjunctivitis be managed?

A

Same day referral to Opthalmologist

Chloramphenicol eye drops if mild

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54
Q

What might 10% of children with Down Syndrome display on FBC?

A

Transient Abnormal Myelopoiesis

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55
Q

How is neonatal GBS managed?

A

Penicillin (Benpen if csf +ve)

Gentamicin

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56
Q

When is exchange transfusion indicated in a neonate?

A

Rapidly rising bilirubin despite phototherapy

Significant anaemia <100

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57
Q

How is NEC managed?

A

Stop feeding
NG Tube
Cefotaxime and Vancomycin
Surgery if failure to respond

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58
Q

When is IV dextrose indicated in a neonate?

A

<1.5

Symptomatic

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59
Q

How is persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn managed?

A

Maintain High kPa
Intubate
High-frequency oscillatory ventilation
Inhaled Nitric acid if demand remains high

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60
Q

How is Hyaline membrane disease managed?

A
ABC
Resp Support
Fluids
IV Abx
CXR
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61
Q

How is sudden infant death syndrome prevented?

A
Sleep on back
No Overheating
Feet to foot
No smoking
Parent's room for 6m
Don't sleep w baby in same bed
Breastfed
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62
Q

How is toxoplasmosis treated in the newborn?

A

Pyrimethamine
Sulfadiazine
Folinic Acid

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63
Q

How is tracheoesophageal fistula managed?

A

Surgery

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64
Q

When should antibiotics be used in management of transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

Persistent tachypnoea after 4-6h

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65
Q

How is paediatric aortic stenosis managed?

A

Balloon Valvulotomy

Transcatheter Aortic Valve Replacement if severe

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66
Q

When is paediatric ASD treated?

A

Pulmonary to Systemic Blood Flow ratio >1.5

If symptomatic

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67
Q

How is paediatric ASD treated?

A

Transcatheter closure

Open heart surgery

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68
Q

How is the hyperoxia test carried out?

A

10 minutes 100% oxygen

If sats remain low = likely congenital cyanotic heart disease

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69
Q

What may be used to close a PDA if medical management fails?

A

Surgical Ligation

Percutaneous catheter

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70
Q

How is acute rheumatic fever treated?

A

High dose aspirin

Benzathine Benzylpenicillin if signs of persistent infection

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71
Q

How is TOF managed?

A

Prostaglandin E1
Blalock-Taussig Shunt
Surgery after 4 months

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72
Q

How is transposition of the great arteries managed?

A

Prostaglandin E1

Balloon Atrial Septostomy

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73
Q

What is a Blalock-Taussig Shunt?

A

Maintains shunt between subclavian and pulmonary arteries

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74
Q

What can be used to stop fainting when warning signs appear?

A

Physical counter-pressure manoeuvres and tilt training

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75
Q

How are VSDs managed?

A

Observation
Prophylactic Amoxicillin
Surgical repair if large (3-6m)

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76
Q

When should antibiotics be used in acute otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin if systemically unwell or rapid deterioration

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77
Q

Which Abx are indicated in Acute Epiglottitis?

A

Ceftriaxone

Rifampicin prophylaxis to close contacts

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78
Q

How is rapidly developing angioedema managed?

A

Chlorphenamine

Hydrocortisone

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79
Q

How should asthma be managed in a 5-16yo if an LTRA is ineffective?

A

Stop LTRA, add LABA
No? Switch to a MART regime
No? Increase to Moderate ICS
No? Seek advice (maybe high dose/theophylline)

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80
Q

How is a severe asthma attack defined?

A
33-50%
Can't complete sentences
Sats less than 92
HR > 125
RR > 30
Accessory Muscle use
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81
Q

How is a life-threatening asthma attack defined?

A
<33% PEFR
Sats less than 92%
Altered consciousness
Exhaustion
Silent Chest
Hyptoension
Cyanosis
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82
Q

How is a life threatening asthma attack managed?

A
Admit
Oxygen aim 94-98%
Nebulised Salbutamol 
Nebulised Ipratropium 
Nebulised Magnesium Sulphate
Prednisolone
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83
Q

Which screening should be done in a child with bronchiectasis?

A

Sweat test

Antibody Deficiency

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84
Q

How should children with bronchiectasis be managed?

A

Strep & Flu vaccines

Empirical antibiotics in acute exacerbation

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85
Q

Name an antiviral which may be used in paediatric COVID 19?

A

Remdesivir

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86
Q

How should severe croup be managed?

A

Oral Dexamethasone
Oxygen
Nebulised Adrenaline

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87
Q

What is the first line mucoactive agent used for prophylaxis in CF?

A

rhDNase

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88
Q

What is the second line mucoactive agent used for prophylaxis in CF?

A

Hypertonic sodium chloride

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89
Q

What is the third line mucoactive agent used for prophylaxis in CF?

A

mannitol dry powder

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90
Q

What should be used to treat chronic infection in a patient with cystic fibrosis?

A

Colistimethate sodium

Tobramycin

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91
Q

What should be used to treat intestinal obstruction in CF?

A

Gastrograffin (diatrizote)

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92
Q

How is foreign body inhalation managed?

A

Cough
Back Blow/Heimlich
Flexible/Rigid Bronchoscopy
Surgery

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93
Q

How is diptheria managed?

A

Isolate

BenPen

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94
Q

How is laryngitis managed?

A

Cefalozin

Cefalexin

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95
Q

Which antibiotic is used for Scarlet Fever?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin (Pen V)

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96
Q

How would you determine if a child needs antibiotics for tonsilitis?

A
CENTOR score 3 or 4 
Fever
Exudate
No cough
LAD
3-14years
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97
Q

How is viral episodic wheeze managed?

A

Burst Therapy salbutamol

10 puffs using high volume spacer, every 30-60s do a puff

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98
Q

What regimen would you give to a child in need of fluid resuscitation?

A

0.9% NaCl 20ml/kg in less than 10 mins

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99
Q

How is dehydration corrected in children?

A

% dehydration x kg x 10

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100
Q

What are routine maintenance fluids for children?

A

100ml/kg 0-10kg
50ml/kg 10-20kg
20ml/kg over 20kg
Over 24h

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101
Q

How are formula fed children with GORD managed?

A
Smaller feeds
Thick formula
Alginate 
PPI
Refer
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102
Q

How are paediatric inguinal hernias managed?

A

Reducible? Manual reduction & elective surgery

Non-Reducible? Emergency manual reduction and repair after 48h

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103
Q

How are paediatric umbilical hernias managed?

A

small? observe until 4-5

Large? Elective repair at 2-3

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104
Q

How is Hirchsprung’s managed?

A

Bowel irrigation

Anorectal pull through

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105
Q

Which strategies might be used to calm a crying infant?

A

Holding
Gentle Motion
White Noise
Warm bath

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106
Q

How is intussusception managed?

A
IV Fluids NG Tube
Rectal air insufflation 
Contrast enema
Clindamycin, Gentamicin 
Surgery
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107
Q

How is malrotation managed?

A

Ladd procedure

Cefazolin

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108
Q

How is pyloric stenosis managed?

A

Ramstedt Pyloromyotomy after electrolyte correction

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109
Q

How is volvulus managed?

A

Ladd Procedure

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110
Q

How is biliary atresia managed?

A

Kasai Hepatopotoenterostomy

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111
Q

How is localised impetigo managed?

A

Hydrogen peroxide

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112
Q

How is widespread impetigo managed?

A

Topical Fusidic Acid -> Oral Fluclox

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113
Q

How would you manage a patient with Acne Vulgaris that hasn’t responded to 2 courses of antibiotics and is scarring?

A

Refer for consideration for Isotretinoin

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114
Q

How is eczema managed?

A

Emollient -> Steroid

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115
Q

How is erysepilas managed?

A

Pen V

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116
Q

What is the first line management for guttate psoriasis?

A

Phototherapy

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117
Q

How are haemangiomas causing functional impairment managed?

A

Beta Blocker
Steroid
Surgery if severe and unresponsive

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118
Q

How would you manage candida nappy rash?

A

Topical Imidazole

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119
Q

Name one treatment which may be used in the management of Pediculosis.

A

Dimeticone lotion

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120
Q

How is scabies managed?

A

Topical Permethrin

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121
Q

How is TTP managed?

A

Plasmapheresis

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122
Q

For how long is a congenital hydrocoele considered normal?

A

2 years

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123
Q

What must be present for a boy to undergo surgery after 3m for hypospadias repair?

A

Foreskin

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124
Q

What is the aim of hypospadias repair?

A

Straight Erection

Straight urination

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125
Q

How is Paraphimosis managed?

A

Surgery, unless acute and not necrotic -> manipulation/puncture therapy

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126
Q

How is retinoblastoma treated in a patient with gross vitreous seeding present?

A

Enucleation

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127
Q

What may happen if you use desmopressin in children under 1?

A

Hyponatraemia and Seizures

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128
Q

Name one x ray finding in SUFE.

A

Trethowan’s Sign

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129
Q

When should you offer medication to a child with ADHD?

A

Specialist advice after support groups fail.

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130
Q

How would you manage paediatric absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

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131
Q

How would you manage paediatric tonic-clonic seizures?

A

Sodium Valproate

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132
Q

How can you manage migraine in under 18s?

A

Nasal triptans

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133
Q

How is status epilepticus managed?

A

ABCDE
IV Lorazepam/ Buccal Midazolam/Rectal Diazepam
Second dose
Phenytoin
Induce anaesthesia with thiopental sodium

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134
Q

How is West Syndrome managed?

A

Corticosteroids

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135
Q

How long should it take to replace fluid in DKA?

A

48 hours

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136
Q

How is myopia managed?

A

Concave lenses

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137
Q

How is hypermetropia managed?

A

Convex lenses

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138
Q

How might gonadotrophin dependent precocious puberty be managed?

A
GnRH Agonist (Leuprolide)
GH Therapy
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139
Q

How is congenital adrenal hyperplasia managed?

A

Life long glucocorticoids

Mineralocorticoids if salt losing

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140
Q

What are the main risk factors for miscarriage?

A
Increasing Age
Hx
Chronic Disease
Uterine Abnormalities (Including cone biopsies)
Smoking/Drug use
Weight
Invasive prenatal testing
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141
Q

When can a child with scarlet fever return to school?

A

24h after commencing antibiotics

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142
Q

Why is trace glycosuria common in pregnancy?

A

Increased GFR

Reduction in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose

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143
Q

When should you investigate glycosuria further in pregnancy?

A

1+ 2 or more times

2+ once

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144
Q

Which contraceptive is associated with weight gain?

A

Injectable Progesterone (Depo-Provera)

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145
Q

For how long after TOP might a pregnancy test remain positive?

A

4 weeks

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146
Q

Why should you avoid aspirin when breastfeeding?

A

Risk of Reye Syndrome

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147
Q

What is the school exclusion advice for hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

No exclusion required

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148
Q

When do infants begin to parallel play?

A

2 years (Two parallel lines)

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149
Q

How would you confirm menopause/premature ovarian failure?

A

Raised FSH

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150
Q

Which drug might be used as a deterrent to alcohol use by making it so you violently throw up on consumption?

A

Disulfiram

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151
Q

Which drug might be used to stop alcohol cravings?

A

Acamprosate

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152
Q

Which drug, taken sublingually, provides an alternative opiate replacement therapy to methadone?

A

Buprenorphine

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153
Q

At what age can a child hop on one leg?

A

3-4y

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154
Q

At what age can a child pull to standing

A

8-10m

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155
Q

At what age can a child squat?

A

18m

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156
Q

What is the second line therapy for viral-induced wheeze?

A

Oral Montelukast or Inhaled corticosteroids

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157
Q

What is required for an instrumental delivery to be considered?

A
FORCEPS
Fully dilated cervix
OA position 
Ruptured membranes
Cephalic
Engaged presenting part
Pain Relief
Sphincter (bladder) empty
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158
Q

When is the presenting part considered engaged?

A

At or below the ischial spines

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159
Q

How is SUFE managed?

A

Referall to orthopaedics for in situ fixation with a cannulated screw

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160
Q

How is COCP use managed pre and peri-operatively?

A

Stopped 4 weeks before
Use POP
Restart after mobilisation

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161
Q

What is the triad of results seen on FBC that may indicate ALL in a child?

A

Neutropaenia
Anaemia
Thrombocytopaenia

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162
Q

What is the algorithm for newborn resuscitation?

A

Dry the baby and start the clock
Assess tone, breathing and HR
5 inflation breaths
If not adequate, start chest compressions at 3:1 ratio

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163
Q

When is CVS done?

A

11-13+6 weeks

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164
Q

When is amniocentesis done?

A

Week 15+

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165
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage in CVS?

A

1-2%

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166
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage in Amniocentesis?

A

0.5-1%

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167
Q

How should you proceed if a child younger than 3m old presents with a suspected UTI in GP?

A

Refer for immediate assessment in secondary care

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168
Q

Which side effects are common with Ipramine?

A

Dry Mouth

Blurred Vision

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169
Q

A child presents with a multiloculated, hetereogenous cyst above the hyoid bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Dermoid Cyst

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170
Q

A child presents with a soft, transilluminate cyst in the posterior triangle of the neck. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Cystic Hygroma

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171
Q

A child presents with a lateral neck cyst which is smooth, fluid filled and has an anechoic appearance on ultrasound. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Branchial Cyst

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172
Q

Which location for an ectopic pregnancy carries the highest risk of rupture?

A

Isthmus

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173
Q

Can bilirubin be measured transcutaneously in the first day of life?

A

No

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174
Q

What is checked at a booking appointment?

A
BP
Urine Culture
BMI
Hep B, HIV, Syphylis
Rhesus
Group and Save
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175
Q

What causes primary amenorrhoea in Turner’s Syndrome?

A

Gonadal Dysgenesis = high FSH/LH

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176
Q

What are the signs of meconium aspiration syndrome on CXR?

A

Atelectasis

Patchy Infiltrations

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177
Q

What is the triad for shaken baby syndrome?

A

Subdural Haematoma
Retinal Haemorrhages
Encepalopathy

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178
Q

How should secondary dysmenorrhoea be managed in the first instance in primary care?

A

Referral to gynaecology

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179
Q

Name one complication of SSRI use in the third trimester.

A

Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension of the Newborn

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180
Q

What is the typical prodrome of measles?

A

Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis, cKoplik White Spots

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181
Q

What effect may smoking cessation have on clozapine levels?

A

Increase

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182
Q

What happens if two COCP pills are missed in the second week of the cycle and the patient has unprotected sex?

A

No emergency contraception needed as long as first week taken properly

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183
Q

Which form of HRT can be used in a patient with migraine with aura?

A

Combined -> not contraindicated like COCP

Topical > Oral

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184
Q

Name one absolute contraindication to HRT

A

Unexplained Vaginal Bleeding

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185
Q

Which scoring test is used to screen for depression?

A

PHQ-9

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186
Q

What is the key feature of Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

A

‘Magical Thinking’, Obsession with the paranormal

Odd tone to speech

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187
Q

When can an IUS be used for contraception/ menorrhagia in the presence of fibroids?

A

Less than 3cm

Not distorting the Uterine Cavity

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188
Q

How is Whooping Cough managed?

A

Oral Clarithromycin/Azithromycin if within 21 days of onset of cough

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189
Q

When is a radical trachelectomy indicated?

A

1A2 cervical tumours when the patient wants fertility preserved

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190
Q

Which tests make up the quadruple assessment?

A

Total hCG
Unconjugated Oestradiol
AFP
Inhibin A

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191
Q

What is the downside for the quadruple test vs the combined test?

A

4% false positive vs 2%

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192
Q

How might you treat a pregnant woman with breast cancer in the second/third trimesters?

A

Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy only if lifesaving
Not Tamoxifen

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193
Q

Which term describes firm placental adhesion without extending through the full myometrium?

A

Placental Accreta

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194
Q

Which term describes firm adhesion of the placenta which extends through the myometrium?

A

Placental Increta

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195
Q

Which term describes firm adhesion of the placenta with extends through the full myometrium and beyond?

A

Placental Percreta

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196
Q

What are the risk factors for Placental adhesion disorders?

A

Asherman’s Syndrome

Uterine Scarring

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197
Q

At what gestation is the earliest you should consider giving steroids for lung maturation?

A

24 Weeks

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198
Q

How would you investigate a potential PE in a pregnant woman?

A

V/P scan > CTPA

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199
Q

What happens to stroke volume in pregnancy?

A

Increases

30% higher by third trimester

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200
Q

What causes anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Haemodilution by increased plasma volume

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201
Q

What is the failure rate of female sterilisation?

A

1 in 200

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202
Q

When is warfarin contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Third Trimester

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203
Q

Which drug should be offered to treat PE in pregnancy?

A

Enoxaparin

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204
Q

How does Vasa Praevia typically present?

A

Painless bleed at the time of rupture of membranes with subsequent foetal compromise

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205
Q

How should you manage a patient found to be in in eclampsia acutely?

A

ABCDE
Left lateral tilt
Protect Airway
Prepare Magnesium

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206
Q

What are the main complications of Obstetric Cholestasis?

A

Stillbirth
Preterm Labour
Meconium stained liquor

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207
Q

How do you deal with potential chorioamnionitis pre-24 weeks?

A
Antibiotics
Induce labour (unviable)
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208
Q

Are pre-eclampsia, small for age, a scarred uterus and oligohydramnios complete contraindications to ECV?

A

No, only relative

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209
Q

How do you manage T1 diabetes post delivery, if the patient was put on a sliding scale during pregnancy?

A

Return to pre-pregnancy meds once eating and drinking

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210
Q

What risks does SLE bring to a pregnancy?

A
Miscarriage
Foetal Death
Pre-eclampsia
Preterm Delivery
Foetal growth Restriction
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211
Q

What does a patient have if they present, pregnant, with a maculopapular rash, starting as stretch marks before spreading, but with peri-umbilical sparing?

A

Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPP)

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212
Q

A pregnant lady presents with blisters that started in the umbilicus and spread. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Pemphigoid Gestationis

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213
Q

What is the range for protein-creatinine ratio in pregnancy?

A

<30

Higher may indicate pre-eclampsia when joined by hypertension

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214
Q

How would you manage a patient who wants a TOP, is haemodynamically stable and has a suspected pseudocyst seen on transvaginal Ultrasound?

A

B-HCG 48h apart. >67% rise indicates viable intrauterine pregnancy and so can have TOP. Suboptimal rise = likely ectopic

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215
Q

What effect does PCOS have on risk of ovarian and breast cancer?

A

No increased risk

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216
Q

What is the main role of progesterone?

A

Enhance endometrial receptivity

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217
Q

What are the main roles of oestrogen?

A

Stimulate endometrial growth
Increase fat deposition
Increase Bone resorption
Stimulate uterine growth

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218
Q

What is the first line treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding?

A

IUS

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219
Q

Which analgesia would you use during labour if the patient is failing to progress and the baby is unlikely to be born for a while?

A

Epidural

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220
Q

What defines a pathological ctg trace?

A

2 non-reassuring features

1 pathological feature

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221
Q

What are the non-reassuring ctg features?

A

160-180/100-109 bpm
<5bpm variability for 40-90min
Absent accelerations, otherwise normal trace
Variable decelerations/Single prolonged less than 3 mins

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222
Q

What are the pathological ctg features?

A

> 180/<100bpm
<5beats variability for 90min
Atypical variable decelerations over 50% contractions/late decelerations for over 30min
Single prolonged deceleration >3min

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223
Q

When must you not give an epidural to a woman in labour?

A

Hypotensive
Allergies
Systemic infection/infection over epidural site
Bleeding disorders

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224
Q

A woman presents 48 hours after delivery with SOB, tachypnoea and signs of congestive heart failure. CXR shows pulmonary oedema and cardiomegaly. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Postpartum Cardiomyopathy

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225
Q

A newborn presents with hydrocephalus, and chorioretinitis. They are observed to be microcephalic. What is the likely cause?

A

Toxoplasmosis gondii

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226
Q

How are bartholin’s abscesses treated?

A

Marsupialisation: Surgery where the abscess is opened and the lining sutured open, so the gland doesn’t later become blocked again

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227
Q

Which cancer does the COCP protect against?

A

Ovarian

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228
Q

How would you identify a vesico-vaginal fistula?

A

Pass a a catheter and fill the bladder with methylene blue dye.
Perform speculum to see if dye is in the vagina

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229
Q

What is Meig’s Syndrome

A

Right sided pleural effusion associated with an ovarian fibroma

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230
Q

How is Risk of Malignancy Score calculated?

A
One point per ultrasound feature = U
U x CA-125 (x3 if post-meonopausal)
>250 = 75% cancer
50-250 = 20% cancer
<50 = 3% cancer
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231
Q

Which form of hormonal contraception can be used in patients also taking enzyme-inducing drugs?

A

Depo-provera

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232
Q

Name 4 potential complications of chickenpox.

A

Disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox
Secondary Bacterial Infection
Encephalitis
Pneumonia

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233
Q

What are the poor prognostic factors for ALL?

A

<2yo >10yo
B/T Cell surface markers
WCC >20*10^9/l

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234
Q

Which contraceptive method shouldn’t be used over the age of 50, and why?

A

Injectable, increases risk of osteoproosis

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235
Q

What proportion of patients with hypospadias also have cryptochordism?

A

10%

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236
Q

What is the algorithm for management of PPH?

A
Uterine Compression
IV syntocinon
Ergometrine ( X HTN)
Syntocinon
Carboprost
Misoprostol (X Asthma)
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237
Q

How is Phimosis managed?

A

<2yo normal, reassure

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238
Q

What is the first line surgical management for uterine atony?

A

Itrauterine Balloon Tamponade

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239
Q

Which type of incontinence is associated with tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Overflow

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240
Q

Which medication is used from 12-14 weeks to prevent pre-eclampsia in high risk individuals?

A

Low dose aspirin

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241
Q

How long after taking Ulipristal Acetate should you wait before restarting hormonal contraception?

A

5 days

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242
Q

Which pulse abnormality is associated with PDA?

A

Collapsing Pulse

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243
Q

Which bacteria causes necrotising fasciitis derived from chickenpox lesions?

A

GAS

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244
Q

Which medications used for neuropathic pain might cause urinary retention?

A

Tricyclic Antidepressants

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245
Q

Which emergency contraception is most effective in those with high BMIs?

A

Copper Coil

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246
Q

Which screening test is used for post-natal depression?

A

Edinburgh Scale

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247
Q

What are the core symptoms of depression?

A

Anhedonia
Anergia
Low Mood

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248
Q

What is the first line treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea?

A

NSAIDS (Mefenamic Acid)

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249
Q

What is the first line non-hormonal management for menorrhagia?

A

Tranexamic Acid

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250
Q

How would you medically manage abortion?

A

Oral Mifepristone

Vaginal Prostaglandin

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251
Q

What UKMEC risk level are anti-phospholipid antibodies with regards to the COCP?

A

4 - Unacceptable risk

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252
Q

Which type of amnesia more commonly occurs due to ECT?

A

Retrograde, remembering events before the procedure

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253
Q

A teenager presents with intermittent locking of their left knee with pain after jogging. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Osteochondritis Dissicans

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254
Q

Which conditions not usually seen in females might present in those with Turner’s Syndrome?

A

X-Linked Disorders, due to the XO genotype

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255
Q

Which conditions are associated with neonatal hypotonia?

A

Prader-Willi
Hypothyroidism
Spinal Muscular Atrophy
Neonatal Sepsis

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256
Q

When should a small umbilical hernia be referred for surgical repair?

A

5yo

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257
Q

If 2 COCP pills are missed in week 1, what would you do if the patient had unprotected sex?

A

2 pills
Emergency
Barrier for 7d

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258
Q

An elderly woman presents with a single episode of brown stained vaginal discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Atrophic Vaginitis

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259
Q

A woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with reduced foetal movements, bradycardia and haematuria. She also complains of severe suprapubic pain. She has a history of 2 previous C-Sections. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Uterine Rupture

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260
Q

What is the most appropriate set of actions when called to assess an agitated patient in hospital?

A

Assess the patient in an appropriate environment with another person present. Then telephone a consultant and prescribe a tranquiliser.

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261
Q

A child with eczema presents with blistering lesions, malaise and fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Dermatitis Herpetiformis

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262
Q

A woman presents with a small amount of red blood on wiping after sex. Smear and ultrasound both return normal. What is the next best step in investigation?

A

Hysteroscopy and Biopsy

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263
Q

A patient presents with secondary amenorrhoea. She is found to have a prolactin of 7000 and low LH. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Prolactinoma

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264
Q

A 38 year old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea for 6 months. She is found to have a high FSH and LH. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Premature Ovarian Failure

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265
Q

A girl presents with secondary amenorrhoea. She is found to have a lacy black rash in her axilla. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

PCOS (Acanthosis Nigricans)

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266
Q

How would you deliver if one twin is breech and the other cephalic?

A

C-Section

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267
Q

What is the most important factor determining delivery mode in a pregnant woman with HIV?

A

Viral Load

268
Q

A woman presents 4 days after giving birth with offensive discharge. She had a perineal tear during delivery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Infected suture repair

269
Q

A woman is found to be HPV+ve and have mild dyskaryosis. She is found to have CIN1 at colposcopy.. No treatment is given. When should the next colposcopy take place?

A

12 months

270
Q

A woman is HIV positive, but undetectable, and enters labour. Which procedure is contraindicated?

A

Foetal Blood Sampling

271
Q

Which antibodies are checked to test previous exposure to VZV?

A

IgG

272
Q

A post-menopausal woman presents with post-menopausal bleeding and superficial dyspareunia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Atrophic Vaginitis

273
Q

What is the ultrasound criteria for pipelle biopsy of the endometrium pre and post menopause?

A

> 10mm pre

>4mm post

274
Q

A woman has a preterm prelabour rupture of membranes, and complains of painless bleeding. CTG shows foetal distress. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Vasa praevia

275
Q

What is the most common side effect of the contraceptive implant?

A

Irregular Bleeding

276
Q

Which cancer are patients on combined HRT most susceptible to?

A

Breast

277
Q

Which cancer are patients on oestrogen only HRT most susceptible to?

A

Endometrial

278
Q

A 22yo primigravida is found to have an open cervical os at 9 weeks gestation. What is the diagnosis?

A

Inevitable Miscarriage

279
Q

How would you manage a woman with PPROM who isn’t in labour?

A

Steroids & Erythromycin

280
Q

What is the first question to ask a woman who might be in menopause?

A

When was your last period?

281
Q

An 18 year old girl presents to her GP complaining on pain and heavy bleeding in the first 2 days of her period ever since menarche. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Primary Dysmenorrhoea

282
Q

When is ergometrine contrainidicated?

A

Hypertension

283
Q

What is the first line investigation for a suspected breast abscess secondary to acute mastitis?

A

Aspirate and culture

284
Q

What is the first line management of a woman in labour who is at 4cm dilation after 4 hours of pushing?

A

Artificial Rupture of Membranes

285
Q

How would you manage a patient with a post-partum haemorrhage who is also hypertensive?

A

Syntocinon

286
Q

Which vaccine should be offered to a pregnant woman with no history of antenatal care who has just moved to the UK?

A

Pertussis

287
Q

What is the first line management for heavy periods?

A

IUS

288
Q

A woman is being investigated for infertility, and is found to have bilateral blocked ducts on hysterosalpingogram. What treatment would aid fertility the most?

A

IVF

289
Q

A lady with Down’s Syndrome gets pregnant. her mother wants a TOP, however the patient wants to keep the baby. how should you proceed?

A

Assess the patient’s mental capacity without the mother present.

290
Q

A teenager who is not currently sexually active presents with heavy periods. What is the first line management?

A

Tranexamic Acid

291
Q

What is the first line management in a woman with stress incontinence with a BMI<30?

A

Pelvic Floor Exercises

292
Q

A child is born to a patient with poorly controlled diabetes. The newborn is found to have an abnormal, asymmetric moro reflex. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Brachial Plexus Injury

293
Q

What is tested for at booking for Hep B?

A

Hep B surface antigen

294
Q

What is the most common cause of azoospermia?

A

Varicocele

295
Q

A patient with endometriosis undergoes laparoscopic adhesiolysis. Soon after, she has high crp, low Hb, constipation and absent bowel sounds. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Bowel Perforation

296
Q

What is the most appropriate first line management in a patient with offensive, smelly lochia?

A

Send culture and start empirical antibiotics.

297
Q

During labour, you notice the baby’s head appears, then goes back into the uterus. The chin is not visible. Which complication has likely occurred?

A

Shoulder Dystocia

298
Q

When will exclusive breastfeeders need contraception?

A

6 months after birth

299
Q

A woman is being investigated for subfertility. All testing is normal except for a prolactin, which is a tiny bit high. What is the likely cause?

A

Unknown (30%)

300
Q

How would you manage a patient over 18 found to have FGM?

A

Check to see if any under 18 girls in the family (Might need police/safeguarding referral)

301
Q

When is deinfibulation indicated in FGM?

A

Type 3 (Narrowing of the vaginal opening) when it’s impeding comfortable sex, urination or examination

302
Q

What are the different types of FGM?

A
1 = Removal of clitoris
2 = Removal of clitoris and labia minora
3 = Narrowing of vaginal canal
4 = All other
303
Q

What are the clauses of the Abortion Act?

A
A = Affects the physical/mental health of mother/existing children
B = Termination is necessary to prevent grave, permanent injury to pregnant woman
C= That continuance would risk the life of the pregnant woman
D = Substantial risk of serious physical or mental abnormalities
304
Q

How is pregnancy terminated medically?

A

Mifepristone, followed 24/48 hours later by Misoprostol

305
Q

How long should you stay off work after a hysterectomy?

A

4 weeks or until fully ready

306
Q

When during pregnancy can an anencephalic foetus be terminated?

A

Whenever

307
Q

How long is the minimum stay in hospital after a hysterectomy?

A

24 hours

308
Q

How do you calculate estimated due date?

A

Add 9 months 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period

309
Q

When should the next smear be after a Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone?

A

6 months

310
Q

What does a ‘lambda sign’ on USS indicate?

A

Dichorionic Diamniotic Twins

311
Q

When should Dichorionic Diamniotic twins be delivered?

A

37 weeks

312
Q

A woman is in the second stage of labour and has been pushing for 30 minutes. The foetus is pressing against the perineum and the CTG becomes pathological. What is the most appropriate next step?

A

Forceps Delivery

313
Q

How should you manage a patient with PID?

A

Send home with antibiotics

314
Q

A woman is going travelling for a few months, and would like a form of contraception that will regulate her periods and make them lighter. What should you prescribe?

A

COCP

315
Q

What is the most appropriate first step in managing a patient with potential pre-menstrual syndorme?

A

Ask them to complete a menstrual diary

316
Q

A woman would like to start HRT. Her last period was 5 months ago, and she still has a uterus. What should you offer?

A

Cyclical combined HRT

317
Q

A woman comes for sterilisation. She had unprotected sex since her last menstrual period. What should be done?

A

Cancel the surgery

318
Q

Which extra tests do pregnant women who smoke over 10 a day need to attend?

A

Serial growth scans

319
Q

What is the first line treatment for candidiasis?

A

Oral Fluconazole -> Intravaginal Clotrimazole if oral contraindicated

320
Q

A woman who had anaesthesia during labour develops a headache 24 hours after delivery. What is the most likely cause?

A

Post-dural puncture headache

321
Q

What should be done if a neonate develops chickenpox?

A

IVIg

322
Q

What is the most effective way to predict pre-term labour?

A

Cervical Length

323
Q

What does Gardasil protect against?

A

HPV 6, 11, 16, 18

324
Q

What are the second line choices for UTI in pregnancy?

A

Amoxicillin

Cefalexin

325
Q

What is the 21 week scan most useful for?

A

Detecting Congenital Heart Disease

326
Q

How is premature ovarian failure tested for?

A

High FSH

327
Q

What is the most common side effect of Nexplanon (Implant)?

A

Irregular Bleeding

328
Q

Which ovarian cyst has a ground glass appearance?

A

Endometrioma

329
Q

How would you investigate suspected testicular torsion?

A

Exploratory Laparotomy

330
Q

What are semi-circular bruises on a child’s thigh most commonly caused by?

A

Non-accidental injury

331
Q

A newborn presents with inverted ankles and plantarflexion. What is the name of this sign?

A

Talipes Equniovarus

332
Q

A newborn has a red maculopapular rash around their eyes at birth, what is the likely diagnosis?

A

Erythema Toxicum

333
Q

A 6 year old child with Down Syndrome presents with bilous vomiting and a distended abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Volvulus

334
Q

A 7 year old child presents with a headache and secondary nocturnal enuresis. He’s lost 2kg. Urine dipstick is normal. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Central Diabetes Insipidus secondary to Tumour

335
Q

A toddler has difficulty balancing, cannot build a tower of blocks and has hyperreflexia. Where is the most likely location of a lesion?

A

Cerebellum

336
Q

A child presents with a lump behind the ear causing it to stick out. As such, you cannot examine the ear directly. What is the most likely cause?

A

Mastoiditis

337
Q

A child has a 2cm inframandibular mass on the left side. It is painful and a blood film shows toxic left shift with a reactive neutrophilia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Lymphadenitis

338
Q

How is molluscum contageosum treated?

A

Reassurance and supportive care

339
Q

What should you give a child who has been seizing for 5 minutes and is displaying signs of respiratory difficulty?

A

Buccal Midazolam

340
Q

How should you give a flu vaccine to a child with an egg allergy?

A

IM in hospital

341
Q

A child takes medication for a UTI, and presents with anaemia and jaundice. What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

A

G6PD Deficiency

342
Q

What condition is a foetus at risk of the if the mother has T1DM?

A

Neural Tube defects

343
Q

Which hearing test should be used for toddlers?

A

Pure tone audiometry

344
Q

Which maintenance fluids should you use for children with T1DM?

A

Not In DKA? 0.9% NaCl w/ 5% Dextrose

In DKA? Not the Dextrose

345
Q

A child had chickenpox which had crusted over. She now presents with a fever and cool peripheries. What is the cause?

A

VZ Viraemia

346
Q

What is the definitive test for precocious puberty?

A

Gonadotropin stimulation test

347
Q

A child with cerebral palsy has hemiplegic weakness and brisk reflexes. Where is the lesion most likely to be?

A

Pyramidal Tracts

348
Q

Where are fluids given in a child if IV access is difficult to obtain?

A

Intraosseous

349
Q

An infant presents with signs of heart failure and a systolic murmur that radiates over the precordium. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Ventricular Septal Defect

350
Q

What is the investigation for Orbital/peri-orbital oedema?

A

Refer to Opthalmologist

CT of Nasal Orbits

351
Q

A child complains of smelling weird smells; during these episodes they are hard to communicate with. After, they sleep for an hour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Focal Seizure

352
Q

What most commonly causes IDA in children?

A

Fussy eating

353
Q

How are nappy rashes with satellite lesions that don’t spare the flexures treated?

A

Clotrimazole

354
Q

How are nappy rashes that spare the flexures treated?

A

Zinc and castor oil

355
Q

How is scabies treated?

A

Permethrin

356
Q

A child has a swollen knee. His brother died of a minor head injury. What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

A

Haemophilia

357
Q

What most commonly causes posterior rib fractures in children?

A

Non-accidental injury

358
Q

A patient with anxiety disorder stops taking her regular medication. She presents with coarse tremors, agitation and insomnia. Which drugs has she stopped taking?

A

Benzodiazepines

359
Q

Name one medication which can cause loss of libido?

A

Cetirizine

360
Q

Deficiency of which vitamin might cause visual disturbances, ataxia and confusion?

A

Thiamine

361
Q

Which drugs are used in an agitated patient if verbal de-escalation fails?

A

IM Lorazepam

362
Q

A man on haloperidol develops acute dystonia. Which drug may be useful?

A

Procyclidine

363
Q

A woman blushes in public and becomes very nervous around people. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Social Phobia

364
Q

How would you manage an elderly lady with a poor sleeping pattern in the first instance?

A

Advice on sleep hygeine

365
Q

Acute management of anxiety in a patient with asthma?

A

Benzodiazepines

366
Q

Which section would be used to detain a man in public?

A

136

367
Q

Which drug reduces cravings in alcoholism?

A

Acamprosate

368
Q

Which drug might worsen Lewy Body Dementia?

A

Haloperidol

369
Q

Which drug is used to wean off codeine?

A

Buprenorphrine

370
Q

A patient has dilated pupils, urinary retention and normal obs. Which medication might they have overdosed on?

A

TCAs

371
Q

What is it called if a person sees flowers on wallpaper, but perceive them as moving snakes?

A

Illusion

372
Q

What is it called if a person sees things as being smaller than they really are?

A

Microsopia

373
Q

What is it called if a person feels insects under the skin?

A

Formication

374
Q

A woman witnesses a car crash and goes blind 2 hours later. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Dissociation Disorder

375
Q

What is the first line treatment for ADHD?

A

Parental advice and support sessions

376
Q

Which side effect of citalopram is key to discuss with young people?

A

Sexual Dysfunction

377
Q

Which area of the brain is likely affected in someone presenting with innapropriate behaviour?

A

Frontal Lobe

378
Q

Which area of the brain is likely to be affected first in someone presenting with dementia?

A

Hippocampus

379
Q

What is extracampine?

A

The sense of feeling a presence/movement in the absence of stimulus (ie. someone being near you)

380
Q

What is flight of ideas a sign of?

A

Mania, not psychosis

381
Q

What is Fregoli Syndrome?

A

Two or more people are the same person, changing disguises in order to deceive

382
Q

What is Capgras Syndrome?

A

Believing someone close to you has been replaced by an imposter

383
Q

What is Ekbom Syndrome?

A

The delusion that you are infested by insects.

384
Q

What is Factitious Disorder/Munchausen’s

A

Consciously feigning illness in order to ‘take the sick role’

385
Q

What is Malingering?

A

Consciously feigning illness in order to receive treatment or for financial gain

386
Q

What is depersonalisation?

A

The feeling of being detached from one-self (ie. I feel as if I’m not real)

387
Q

What is Word Salad?

A

Incoherent speech where real words are used to make nonsensical sentences.

388
Q

What is perseveration?

A

The repetition of ideas or words despite an attempt to change the topic

389
Q

What is a section 5(2) order used for?

A

Detaining an inpatient in a hospital for 72 hours for mental health assessment by 2 doctors. During this period, patients still have the right to refuse treatment, but cannot appeal or leave.

390
Q

What is a section 2 order used for?

A

Detaining a patient for 28 days for mental health assessment, during which the patient cannot refuse treatment, but can appeal.

391
Q

What is a section 3 order used for?

A

Detaining a patient for 6 months for treatment of a psychiatric disorder. This can be extended once by 6 months, then by 12 month increments thereafter.

392
Q

What is a section 136 order?

A

Used by police to take someone suspected of having a psychiatric disorder to a safe place when in public.

393
Q

What is a section 135 order?

A

Used by police to remove a person suspected of being a threat to themselves or others due to psychiatric reasons when in their own home.

394
Q

What is a section 4 order?

A

Used to detain someone suspected of having a psychiatric disorder for 72 hours for emergency treatment.

395
Q

What is a section 5(4) disorder?

A

Used by a registered nurse to detain an inpatient for 6 hours for a mental health assessment.

396
Q

Under which section might leave be offered?

A

17

397
Q

What is the most important side effect of quetiapine?

A

QT Prolongation

398
Q

How would you manage clozapine-induced hypersalivation?

A

Hyoscine

399
Q

Which class of medications should be avoided with SSRIs and why?

A

Triptans, as can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome

400
Q

What should be prescribed if a course of NSAIDs are prescribed to someone on SSRIs?

A

PPI

401
Q

What are the main side effects of risperidone?

A

Prolactinaemia

Dyslipidaemia

402
Q

What important complication of atypical antipsychotics must you be aware of when using them in elderly patients?

A

Stroke/VTE

403
Q

Which side effects are considered ‘extra-pyramidal’?

A

Dystonia
Akathisia
Parkinsonism
Tardive Dyskinesia

404
Q

Which side-effects are common across atypical antipsychotics?

A

Sedation, weight gain, hyperglycaemia

405
Q

What happens to cloazpine levels if a smoker decides to quit?

A

They increase

406
Q

How would you manage a patient who develops dystonia whilst on an atypical antipsychotic?

A

Anticholinergic

407
Q

Ho would you manage a patient who develops akathisia whilst on an atypical antipsychotic?

A

Switch drug/lower dose

408
Q

How would you manage a patient who develops tardive dyskinesia whilst on an atypical antipsychotic?

A

Switch Drug

Tetrabenazine

409
Q

Which features of depression might worsen for 2 weeks when starting an SSRI?

A

Suicidal Ideation

Anxiety

410
Q

How long should an SSRI be continued after becoming effective, if this is a relapse of previous depressive episodes?

A

2 years

411
Q

Why wouldn’t you use a TCA if there is a risk of suicide?

A

Fatal in overdose

412
Q

What can low dose TCAs be used for?

A

Aiding sleep

413
Q

What is the most common side effect of TCAs?

A

Urinary retention, dry mouth, blurry vision (anticholinergic)

414
Q
What class of medication are:
Phenelzine 
Isocarboxacid
Selegiline
Tranylcypromine
?
A

MAOIs

415
Q

Which benzo has the shortest half-life, hence has the most potent withdrawal effects?

A

Lorazepam

416
Q

How do you safely withdraw from benzodiazepines?

A

Reduce the dose by 1/8th every week until it’s half the original dose, then repeat.

417
Q

What is Flumanezil?

A

Benzodiazepine antagonist, used in benzo/z-drug overdose

418
Q

What are Z-Drugs?

A

Benzos that treat insomnia (eg. zopiclone)

419
Q

Which side effect of Z-drugs is important to consider when prescribing them?

A

Increased risk of falls

420
Q

What might dexamphetamine be used to treat?

A

Narcolepsy

ADHD

421
Q

What are the key side effects of lithium?

A

Mild tremor
Hypothyroidism
Nephrogenic DI
Eyebrow hair loss

422
Q

What are the symptoms of lithium toxicity?

A
>1.2 mmol/L
Coarse tremor
Hyperreflexia
Nystagmus 
Ataxia
423
Q

How should you monitor lithium use?

A

Every 3 months for lithium levels

Every 6 month for U&Es and TFTs

424
Q

What might cause lithium overdose?

A

Dehydration
Deliberate
Drugs (NSAIDs, ACEi, Diuretics)

425
Q

What might lithium use in pregnancy cause?

A

Ebstein’s Anomaly

426
Q

What is Ebstein’s Anomaly

A

Tricuspid regurgitation due to a defect in the tricuspid valve

427
Q

What is the most classical side effect of lamotrigine?

A

Severe Skin rash (Steven-Johnson Syndrome)

428
Q

What is the most common method of suicide?

A

Hanging

429
Q

How would you manage Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

A

Dantrolene

Bromocriptine

430
Q

A patient who recently started on an atypical antipsychotic presents with confusion, muscular rigidity and hyperthermia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

431
Q

Which enzyme is most commonly raised in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

A

Creatine Kinase

432
Q

A patient on an SSRI presents with a hyperacute onset of Confusion, jerking, hyperthermia and tachycardia. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Serotonin Synrome

433
Q

Which antipsychotic most commonly causes Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

A

Haloperidol

434
Q

What are the indications for ECT?

A

Euphoric (Mania)
Catatonia
Tearful (Life-threatening depression)

435
Q

Name one absolute contraindication to ECT.

A

Raised intracranial pressure

436
Q

What are the main side-effects of ECT?

A

Retrograde Amnesia
Cardiac Arrhythmias
Headache/Nausea

437
Q

How does CBT work?

A

Identifying and challenging the thought processes that lead to emotions and behaviours allows them to be better coped with.

438
Q

What is Beck’s negative cognitive triad?

A

Negative self-view
Negative future view
Negative world view
CBT based on this model

439
Q

What is Psychodynamic Psychotherapy?

A

Therapy focusing on the psychological roots of conflicts in order to develop a deep-seated change in personality and emotional development.

440
Q

What are the DSM-V diagnostic criteria for Delirium?

A

Acute fluctuant cognitive impairment with direct evidence that the disturbance is a direct consequence of another medical condition

441
Q

Which medication used in Alzheimer’s is associated with delirium?

A

Memantine

442
Q

How is delirium diagnosed?

A

Confusion Assessment Method
Has to have:
Acute, fluctuating inattention

with one of:

Disorganised thinking
altered level of consciousness

443
Q

How is delirium managed?

A

Treat the cause
Avoid anticholinergics
PO antipsychotics in dementia with infection

444
Q

When is IM lorazepam indicated?

A

When in need of rapid tranquilisation and oral medications aren’t an option

445
Q

What is the first line management of agitated patients?

A

De-escalation

446
Q

How would you manage a neuroleptic naive, agitated patient who failed to respond to verbal de-escalation and IM lorazepam?

A

Onlanzapine 1h post-lorazepam dose

447
Q

What are the core features of Depression?

A

Low Mood
Anhedonia
Anergia

448
Q

What is atypical depression?

A

Subtype characterised by somatic symptoms, such as weight gain and hypersomnia

449
Q

How is Depression severity scored?

A

Mild = 5 symptoms, mild functional impairment

Moderate = Mild to severe functional impairment

Severe = Most symptoms, severe functional impairment +- Psychotic features

450
Q

How is depression managed in children?

A

CBT, family therapy/IPT, lifestyle advice, watchful waiting with regular follow up

Fluoxetine if all measures fail

451
Q

How often should you review a suicidal patient?

A

Every week

452
Q

When should you trial an SNRI in depression management?

A

When trials of two separate SSRIs have been ineffective

453
Q

Which SSRI is only likely to be used in major depressive episodes?

A

Paroxetine

454
Q

What is the risk in using paroxetine in pregnancy?

A

1st Trimester: Congenital Heart Defects

3rd Trimester: Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension

455
Q

Which medication is used to treat rapid cyclic Bipolar Affective Disorder?

A

Sodium Valproate

456
Q

What is the next step of mania management if lithium is ineffective alone?

A

Add Valproate

457
Q

What is the next step in management if lithium is poorly tolerated?

A

Replace with Olanzapine/Valproate

458
Q

What are Schneider’s First Rank Symptoms?

A

Delusions
Passivity
Thought Disorders
Auditory Disorders

459
Q

Which symptoms are included in ‘thought disorders’?

A

Insertion
Withdrawal
Broadcasting

460
Q

Which symptoms are included in ‘auditory disorders’?

A

Echo
3rd Person Voice
Running Commentary

461
Q

What is residual schizophrenia?

A

When a person with schizophrenia exhibiting both positive and negative symptoms progresses to exclusively displaying negative symptoms

462
Q

What is the monozygotic twin concordance of schizophrenia?

A

50%

463
Q

What is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?

A

+ve symptoms = increased DA in mesolimbic tract

-ve symtpoms = decreased DA in mesocortical tract

464
Q

What is simple schizophrenia?

A

Negative symptoms only

465
Q

What is Hebephrenic Schizophrenia?

A

Disorganised mood and speech

466
Q

What is Zuclopenthixol Decanoate?

A

Used as once-monthly IM depot in non-compliant psychotic patients

467
Q

How should you monitor patients on anti-psychotics?

A

Weight and Waist every week for 6 weeks, then at 12 weeks with HR/BP, then annually with HR/BP

468
Q

What is the DSM V criteria for diagnosis of a Schizoaffective Disorder?

A

2 episodes of psychosis, with one lasting >2 weeks without mood disorder symptoms, and one with obvious overlap between psychotic features and features of affective disorders

469
Q

How would you manage a person with Bipolar type Schizoaffective Disorder?

A

Fluoxetine (for depressive symptoms) + Olanzapine (for manic/psychotic symptoms)

470
Q

Which psychiatric symptoms may be steroid-induced?

A

Psychosis

Depression

471
Q

What is Delusional Disorder?

A

Persistent (>3 months) delusions without hallucinations

472
Q

Which type of therapy, alongside CBT, is particularly useful in Delusional Disorder?

A

Psychoeducation

473
Q

Which questionnaire is used to assess anxiety?

A

GAD-7
5=mild
10=moderate
15=severe

474
Q

Which medication should you never give to people with anxiety?

A

Benzos

475
Q

What are the stages of medical anxiety management?

A

1) SSRI
2) Different SSRI
3) Venlafaxine
4) Pregabalin
5) Quetiapine

476
Q

What is the second line management for Panic Disorder?

A

12 weeks change to TCA

477
Q

Which scale is used to assess OCD?

A

Yale-Brown Score

478
Q

How long must symptoms last for a reaction to be considered an ‘Acute Stress Disorder’?

A

3d - 1m

479
Q

How is adjustment disorder different to depression?

A

Adjustment disorder has no biological signs of depression (insomnia, loss of appetite etc)

480
Q

What are the core symptoms of PTSD?

A

Re-experiencing the event
Avoidance of triggers
Hyperarousal

481
Q

How are rating scales used in assessment of alcohol dependency?

A

1st Line = AUDIT

If >20

2nd Line = SADQ

482
Q

When should someone with alcohol withdrawal be managed as an inpatient?

A

High risk of developing seizures, Wernicke’s or Delirium Tremens

483
Q

Which medication is used to treat delirium tremens?

A

Lorazepam

484
Q

When do opiate withdrawal effects start, peak, and end?

A

6h after injection
36-48h
5-7d

485
Q

What are Cluster A personality disorders?

A

Weird

Paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal

486
Q

What are Cluster B personality disorders?

A

Wild

Dissocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissistic

487
Q

What are Cluster C personality disorders?

A

Worried
Anankastic
Anxious-Avoidant
Dependent

488
Q

What is splitting?

A

Viewing something as all good or all bad

489
Q

What is identification?

A

Dealing with emotions by modelling behaviour on someone else.

490
Q

When should patients with eating disorders be considered high-risk and warrant immediate admission?

A
<70% expected BMI
Losing 1kg a week
Septic
HR <40bpm
Long QT
Suicide Risk
491
Q

Which tests are raised in eating disorders?

A
Cortisol
Cholesterol
Carotene 
GH
Salivary Glands
LFTs
492
Q

What is the DSM-V diagnostic criteria for Anorexia Nervosa?

A

Calorie Restriction
Deliberate Weight Loss
Distorted Body Image

493
Q

How does first line management of eating disorders differ between children and adults?

A
Children = Family Therapy
Adults = CBT-ED
494
Q

What is Dissociative Fugue?

A

Loss of memory in response to trauma resulting in travelling beyond normal range

495
Q

How long must symptoms persist for MUS to be considered Somatisation Disorder?

A

2 years

496
Q

How is Alzheimer’s managed?

A
1 = Anticholinesterases (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine)
2 = NMDA partial receptor agonist (Memantine)
497
Q

What are the levels of learning disability defined by IQ?

A
Mild = 50-70
Moderate = 35-50
Severe = 20-35
Profound = <20
498
Q

In which syndrome do children exhibit a characteristic ‘high pitched, cat like cry’?

A

Cri du chat Syndrome

5q deletion

499
Q

When must barrier contraception be used for 7 days if a patient is using the patch?

A

If they go without a patch on for over 48 hours

500
Q

Which disorder presents with slow, twisting movements of the limbs with dystonia due to damage to the basal ganglia and substantia nigra?

A

Dyskinetic Cerebral Palsy

501
Q

How would you manage umbilical cord prolapse?

A

Elevate the presenting part, then ask the mother to go on all fours

502
Q

Which cardiac abnormalities are associated with Turner’s Syndrome?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

Bicuspid Aortic Valve (Ejection Systolic Murmur)

503
Q

How would you manage a diabetic pregnant woman at high risk of premature labour?

A

Admit for steroids, and monitor BMs with a sliding scale

504
Q

When can a child squat to pick up a ball?

A

18 months

505
Q

When can a child pull to standing?

A

8-10 months

506
Q

Which form of contraception can be used alongside cyclical combined HRT?

A

Progestogen Implant

507
Q

Why can’t the injectable contraceptive be used in woman over 50?

A

Reduces bone mineral density

508
Q

In which foetal position might women experience an earlier urge to push?

A

OP

509
Q

How might fibroids be temporarily reduced in size prior to surgical removal?

A

GnRH Agonists (Leuprolide)

510
Q

What are the criteria for immediate referral to hospital in a case of suspected bronchiolitis?

A
Signs of respiratory distress
RR over 70
Sats <92%
Central Cyanosis
Apnoea
511
Q

What might maternal anti-epileptic use cause?

A

Neural Tube Defects

Cleft Palate

512
Q

For how long should HRT be offered to women with premature ovarian failure?

A

Until 51yo

513
Q

What should a COCP user do if 2 pills are missed in week 3?

A

Finish pack, omit pill-free interval

514
Q

Can you breastfeed with anti-epileptics?

A

Yes

515
Q

What is in the 6 in 1 vaccine?

A
Diptheria
Tetanus
Pertussis
Polio
Haemophilus Influenzae B
Hepatitis B
516
Q

Which vaccines are given at birth?

A

BCG if RFs

517
Q

Which vaccines are given at 2 months?

A

6in1
Oral Rotavirus
Men B

518
Q

Which vaccines are given at 3 months?

A

6in1
Oral Rotavirus
PCV

519
Q

Which vaccines are given at 4 months?

A

6in1

Men B

520
Q

Which vaccines are given at 12-13 months?

A

Hib/Men C
MMR
PCV
Men B

521
Q

Which vaccines are given yearly between 2-8 years?

A

Flu

522
Q

Which vaccines are given at 3-4 years?

A

Pre-school booster (Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertussis, Polio)

MMR

523
Q

Which vaccines are given at 12-13 years?

A

HPV

524
Q

Which vaccines are given between 13-18 years?

A

3-in-1 Teenage booster (Tetanus, Diptheria, Polio)

Men ACWY

525
Q

How is eczema managed?

A

Emollients -> Add Steroid -> Bandages and Ciclosporin

526
Q

When would expectant management of miscarriage not be appropriate?

A

Risk of haemorrhage (late)
Previous traumatic event
Risks of adverse effects should haemorrhage occur
Evidence of infection

527
Q

In which congenital syndrome might you see supravalvular aortic stenosis?

A

William’s Syndrome

528
Q

In which syndrome might you see a small chin, posterior displacement of the tongue and cleft palate?

A

Pierre-Robin Syndrome

529
Q

What are the most common complications of measles?

A

*Otitis Media
Pneumonia
Encephalitis

530
Q

Name a rare, but serious, complication of measles that occurs years after infection.

A

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (5-10 years later)

531
Q

What are the features of an atypical UTI?

A

Poor urine flow
No recovery in 48 hours
Abdominal Mass
Seriously ill

532
Q

At what age would a child start to say ‘mama’ and ‘dada’?

A

9-10 months

533
Q

Which medication is used to prevent delirium tremens in hepatic failure?

A

Lorazepam

534
Q

Which cardiac abnormality most commonly occurs in patients with Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

535
Q

How is APGAR scored?

A

2 = >100HR, Strong cry, Pink, Active Movement, Coughs

1 = <100HR, Weak cry, peripheral cyanosis, limb flexion, grimace

0 = No pulse, No resp effort, cyanotic, flaccid, no reflex irritability

536
Q

Which medication might be used to treat spasticity in Cerebral Palsy?

A

Baclofen (Muscle relaxant)

537
Q

What term describes a white, shiny mass projecting from the wall of a dermoid cyst to the centre?

A

Rokitansky Protuberance

538
Q

Which treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum comes with a risk of extrapyramidal side effects?

A

Metoclopramide, hence use should be restricted to less than 5 days

539
Q

At what age can children talk in short sentences of 3-5 words?

A

2.5-3y

540
Q

At what age do children have a vocabulary of 2-6 words?

A

12-18 months

541
Q

At what age do children respond to their own name?

A

9-12m

542
Q

What is the first line management option for Impetigo?

A

Topical Hydrogen Peroxide, exclude from school until all lesions are crusted and healed

543
Q

Which drug is used to treat PTSD if CBT and EMDR are ineffective?

A

Venlafaxine

544
Q

When is Ulipristal contraindicated?

A

Patients on asthma controlled by steroids.

545
Q

For how long is barrier contraception needed if switching from the IUD to COCP in the first 5 days of the cycle?

A

Not needed

546
Q

Which medication is used to treat Acne and Hirsutism due to PCOS?

A

Co-cyprindiol

547
Q

When can a child safely be managed at home after a febrile convulsion?

A
Over 18m
Clear, non-serious diagnosis
<5min
Complete recovery within an hour
Not on Abx
548
Q

Why does Kallman’s cause delayed puberty?

A

Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

549
Q

Which antibiotic is used prophylactically for hysterectomies?

A

Co-amoxiclav intraoperatively

550
Q

How should delivery be managed in pregnant women who present with Herpes during pregnancy?

A

From 36 weeks, oral aciclovir until delivery

551
Q

Which hormone is high in PCOS?

A

LH

552
Q

How are prolapses staged?

A
POPQ
1= 1cm above hymen
2= 1cm above/below hymen
3=Uterus protrudes outside vagina
4=Complete eversion
553
Q

What rate of dilatation would be expected in the first stage of labour in a primigravida?

A

0.5-1cm an hour

554
Q

Where would a complete hydatidiform mole typically metastasise to?

A

Lungs

555
Q

What would you do if a woman was found to have a bishop’s score of less than 6 when attending for induction of labour?

A

Vaginal PGE2

556
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage in CVS?

A
  1. 7% within 14 days

1. 3% within 30 days

557
Q

What is the rate of miscarriage in Amniocentesis?

A

0.6%

558
Q

How is PID managed?

A

IM ceftriaxone stat

Metronidazole/Doxycycline 14 days

559
Q

What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome?

A

UQP, Peri-Hepatitis due to Chlamydia PID

560
Q

When do symptoms have to present to be considered Adjustment Disorder?

A

Symptoms must have presented within 3 months of the change, and must have lasted less than 6 months

561
Q

What is the most common cause of DIC in pregnancy?

A

Placental Abruption

562
Q

How is epilepsy diagnosed?

A

2 or more unexplained seizures over 24 hours apart. EEG used for classification purposes, not diagnosis.

563
Q

When should B-HCG levels return to normal after GTD evacuation?

A

6 months

564
Q

Which chemo is choriocarcinoma sensitive to?

A

Methotrexate-based

565
Q

How should a child with an atypical (non-e coli, non-responsive to treatment in 72h) UTI be investigated?

A

Urgent USS

Routine DMSA & MCUG

566
Q

When might interpersonal therapy be more use than CBT?

A

Depression related to loss of a loved one

567
Q

What is the most common site of referred ovarian pain?

A

Periumbilical region (T10)

568
Q

How many words should children be able to use at 2 years old?

A

50

569
Q

What is Eisenmenger Syndrome?

A

Long standing LtR shunt due to congenital heart defect causes pulmonary hypertension, and reversal into a cyanotic RtL shunt.

570
Q

What is vulvodynia?

A

Pain in the vulvovaginal region lasting for >3m with no identifiable cause

571
Q

How should dysmenorrhoea be managed in a patient with asthma?

A

Paracetamol -> hormonal contraceptive

572
Q

How are moderate to severe PMS’ managed?

A

COCP

SSRI

573
Q

What is neurosis?

A

An inappropriate emotional or behavioural response to a perceived stressor

574
Q

What is Ectopia Vesicae (Bladder exstrophy)?

A

Herniation of the bladder through an anterior abdominal wall defect. Surgically managed

575
Q

How is DDH managed before the child starts walking?

A

Brace -> Pavlek Harness

Hip reduction/osteotomy if diagnosed when walking

576
Q

What is Gaucher’s Disease?

A

Lipid storage disorder presenting with hepatosplenomegaly

577
Q

What should be given to women with anti-phospholipid syndrome and history of miscarriage during their next pregnancy?

A

Low dose aspirin and LMWH from positive pregnancy test to delivery

578
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

Foreskin becomes stuck behind the glans, can strangulate the glans.

579
Q

How are Wilm’s Tumours treated?

A

Radical nephrectomy and Chemo. Radio if more advanced. 90% Survival

580
Q

What is the first line investigation for Hirchsprung’s?

A

Barium Enema (shows funneling)

581
Q

Which CCD has an ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge and fixed wide splitting of S2?

A

ASD

582
Q

Which CCD has a loud pansystolic murmur at the left lower sternal edge?

A

VSD

583
Q

How does Noonan’s present?

A

Webbed Neck
Trident Hairline
Pectus Excavatum
Pulmonary Stenosis

584
Q

How does Patau’s present?

A

Microcephaly
Cleft Palate
Polydactyly
VSD

585
Q

How does Turner’s present in a neonate?

A

Lymphoedema of hands/feet

586
Q

Which cardiac abnormality is a complication in Fragile X?

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse

587
Q

How does congenital syphylis present?

A

Rhinitis
Saddle-nose
Deafness
Heaptosplenomegaly

588
Q

How do Prader-Willi and Angelman’s differ?

A
PW = Loss of paternal
Angelman's = Loss of maternal
589
Q

What is the most common cause of Down’s Syndrome?

A

Meiotic non-dysjunction

590
Q

How might you investigate tense fontanelle in a neonate?

A

Cranial USS

591
Q

What are the complications of cigarette smoking in pregnancy?

A

IUGR
Miscarriage
Stillbirth

592
Q

How is Talipes Equinovarus managed?

A

Ponsetti Method (Plaster Casting and Bracing)

593
Q

What is the difference between a posterior and an anterior tongue tie?

A

Frenulum is visible in anterior tongue ties

594
Q

BV vs Trichomonas?

A
BV = Fishy, grey-white discharge
T = Yellow-green discharge, strawberry cervix
595
Q

What is the likely cause of haemorrhage in a neonate whose mother received no perinatal care?

A

Vitamin K Deficiency

596
Q

How long can you observe before starting Syntocinon in a non-bleeding patient who hasn’t delivered the placenta?

A

An hour (Start breastfeeding during this period)

597
Q

What is the first line treatment for Primary amenorrhoea secondary to a prolactinoma?

A

Dopamine Receptor Agonist (Bromocriptine/Cabergoline)

598
Q

How would you distinguish Parvovirus and Roseola Infantum?

A

Rash starts on the trunk in roseola, on the face in parvovirus

599
Q

What is the best treatment of social phobias

A

CBT

600
Q

What is foetal hydantoin syndrome?

A

Symptoms caused by maternal phenytoin/carbamazepine use. Causes IUGR, Microcephaly, Cleft Lip, Hypoplastic fingernails

601
Q

What is the likely diagnosis if a child presents with systemic illness and an unhealed burn?

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

602
Q

Which patients should be screened for thyroid disorders in pregnancy?

A

Current/Past thyroid disease
Thyroid disease in a first degree relative
Autoimmune Conditions
Diabetes

603
Q

When is barrier contraception not required after inserting an IUS?

A

Day 1-5 of the menstrual cycle

604
Q

What are the main complications of tubal ligation sterilisation?

A

Ectopics

Wanting reversal in the future

605
Q

Which HPV strains cause genital warts?

A

6/11

606
Q

When does the uterus reach the umbilicus?

A

20 weeks

607
Q

How many cysts must be present to meet the ‘cyst’ criteria for PCOS?

A

at least 12 in one, ranging from 2-9mm

608
Q

Is mefenamic acid used in fibroids?

A

no

609
Q

When should refer cases of Otitis Media with effusion to ENT?

A

Down’s

Cleft Palate

610
Q

What is used first line for anaesthesia in mild to moderate pain in children?

A

Oral/Intranasal Midazolam

611
Q

Which antibiotic is used in Mycoplasma Pneumonia in children?

A

Erythromycin

612
Q

What are the categories of c section?

A
1 = life threatening, within 30m
2 = maternal/foetal compromise but not life threatening within 75m
3= delay in labour induction 
4 = elective
613
Q

Which fractures are associated with child abuse?

A

Humeral
Radial
Femoral

614
Q

What are the forms of spastic CP?

A

Unilateral
Bilateral
Diplegia (legs)

615
Q

Which form of Cerebral Palsy occurs due to basal ganglia damage and presents as chorea, dystonia and athetosis?

A

Dyskinetic

616
Q

Which bacteria most commonly causes late onset neonatal sepsis?

A

Coagulase negative strep

617
Q

What is Purpura fulminans?

A

Haemorrhagic skin necrosis from DIC

618
Q

How would you assess a toddler’s hearing 6m-3y?

A

Visual Reinforcement Audiometry

619
Q

What is Positional Talipes?

A

Foot remains in foetal position due to intrauterine compression

Foot can be fully dorsiflexed

620
Q

How is CP function classified?

A

Gross Motor Function Classification System

621
Q

Where are the lesions in spastic CP?

A

UMN

Pyramidal/Corticospinal Tracts

622
Q

How is NEC managed?

A

Bowel rest (parenteral feeding)
Broad Spectrum Abx
Laparotomy if perforation

623
Q

What is kernicterus?

A

Bilirubin encepalopathy

624
Q

Which maternal blood group most puts neonates at risk of ABO incompatibility haemolysis?

A

O

Usually Anti-A Abs

625
Q

How does persistent pulmonary hypertension present?

A

Cyanosis at birth
No signs of cardiac defects
Hx of meconium, difficult birth, sepsis

626
Q

What can cause Chronic Lung Disease of prematurity?

A

Infection, Ventilation, O2 Toxicity

627
Q

Which maternal condition commonly predisposes to respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Diabetes

628
Q

Neonate with ground-glass x ray?

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome (surfactant deficiency)

629
Q

How is meconium ileus managed?

A

Gastrograffin Enema

Surgery

630
Q

When would you add ABx to management of Meconium Aspiration?

A

Signs of infection

631
Q

What might maternal benzo use cause?

A

Cleft Lip

632
Q

What is the first line immediate management for CDH?

A

NG Tube and suction

633
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for tracheo-oesophageal fistula?

A

Gastrograffin Swallow

634
Q

How is tracheo-oesophageal fistula managed?

A

1) Replogle tube for drainage

2) Surgery few days after birth

635
Q

What sign is seen on USS of biliary atresia?

A

Triangular cord sign

636
Q

What are the gold standard and confirmation tests for Biliary Atresia?

A
GS = TIBIDA isotope scan
Confirmation = ERCP
637
Q

What is horseshoe kidney?

A

Renal Agenesis

638
Q

When are DMSA scans performed?

A

2 months after UTI

All with recurrent/atypical

639
Q

What is a medullary spongy kidney?

A

Multicystic kidney

640
Q

What does the Potter Sequence cause?

A

Bilateral Renal Agenesis

AR Polycystic Kidney Disease

641
Q

When are MCUG scans performed?

A

VUR suspected on USS

642
Q

When should congenital anal abnormalities be surgically repaired?

A

9m

643
Q

How should bilateral cryptochordism at birth be managed?

A

Referral to surgeons

644
Q

How is unilateral cryptochordism managed?

A

Review at 6-8weeks
Review at 3m
Refer at 3m

645
Q

What might a sacral dimple above the nasal cleft indicate in a constipated child?

A

Spina Bifida Occulta

646
Q

How is paediatric constipation managed?

A

Osmotic (Movicol)
Stimulant (Senna)
Maintenance with movicol

647
Q

What is used in GORD if omeprazole is ineffective?

A

Ranitidine

648
Q

Which syndrome is Pyloric Stenosis most associated with?

A

Turner’s

649
Q

What is the most common form of intussusception?

A

Ileum through to caecum through ileocaecal valve

650
Q

How is Meckel’s Diverticulum investigated?

A

Technetium Scan = greater uptake by gastric mucosa

651
Q

When is Meckel’s surgically treated?

A

Obstruction
Perforation
Bleeding

652
Q

How is GE investigated in a very young patient?

A

Stool electron microscopy (viral)

653
Q

How is paediatric IBD managed?

A

Aminosalicylates -> Steroids -> Biologics

654
Q

How is Hirchsprung’s managed?

A

Bowel irrigation -> Endorectal pull-through

655
Q

What is the most common cause of encopresis?

A

Constipation with overflow

656
Q

A child presents with eczema, cold abscesses and coarse facial features. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Hyper IgE

657
Q

What might cause telangiectasia in the eyes and cerebellar ataxia in a child?

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia

658
Q

What is Duncan Disease?

A

Failure to mount an immune response to EBV. Death from initial infection or secondary B-Cell lymphoma

659
Q

How is severity of croup assessed?

A

Westley Score

660
Q

How is sinusitis that’s lasted more than 10 days managed?

A

Corticosteroid

661
Q

How do you distinguish between pneumonia and bronchiolitis?

A

Coarse crackles = pneumonia

Fine crackles = bronchiolitis

662
Q

What is the most common childhood arrhythmia?

A

SVT

663
Q

What is the most common cause of acute renal failure in children in the uk?

A

Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

664
Q

A child has a metabolic acidosis, hyperammonaemia and a cheesy/sweaty smell. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Isovalaeric Acidaemia

665
Q

How does galactossaemia present?

A

Hepatomegaly, hypoglycaemia

666
Q

Which form of CAH shows feminisation in an xy genotype?

A

17-a-hydroxylase deficiency