Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

emergency medicine > wounds > Flashcards

wounds Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Royal College: Emergency Medicine flashcards
1
Q

What are the 3 overlapping phases of normal wound healing

A
  • inflammation
  • proliferation
  • maturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the inflammatory phase of wound healing lasts how long

A

0-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the inflammatory phase of wound healing has what 2 parts

A
  • vascular stage
    • hemostasis: stop bleeding
  • cellular stage
    • migration of WBC first 48-72 hrs
    • macrophages enter at 72 hrs: phagocytic and stimulate collagen production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 3 parts of the intermediate phase of wound healing

A
  • epithelialization
  • angiogenesis
  • fribrobalst migration and proliferation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is epithelialization and when does it occur

A
  • re-establish barrier
  • incisional wounds re-epitheliazed in 24-48 hours
  • pt can shower after this itme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the 4 components of late phase of wound healing

A
  • matrix deposition
  • collagen synthesis
  • collagen fibers thicken
  • wound contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what type of collagen is the most common in wound healing

A

type I collagen (80-90% of collagen found in normal skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when does collagen synthesis begin? When does it start to decline?

A
  • begins 3-5 days following injury
  • rapid rate up to 4-5 weeks, then rate declines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does wound strength depend on

A
  • strength of wound parallels rapid rise in collagen for approx 4 weeks
  • at 6 weeks, scar has reached 80% of eventual strength
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

remodeling increases strength of wound for how long

A

up to 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what temperature reduces tensile strength of wound healing

A

cold reduces tensile strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is primary intention wound healing

A
  • closed by approximation of wound margins
  • closure methods: sutures, staples, adhesion
  • heal fastest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is wound healing by secondary intention

A
  • applies to a full thickness wound or contaminated or infected wounds
  • wound left open
  • allowed to close by contraction and epithelialization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is tertiary intention of wound healing (delayed primary closure)

A
  • wound left open for days (3-5) then closed primarily
    • granulation tissue is abundant
    • highly resistant to infection
  • associated with obvious infection or contamination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

puncture wounds usually healed by what intention

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

lacerations are usually closed within how many hours

A

within 6-8 hours

17
Q

differentiate between monofilament and braided sutures

A
  • monofilament: less reactive
  • braided: more strength
18
Q

what is the benefit of interrupted sutures

A
  • slower to place but will allow selective removal in case of infection
19
Q

when are continuous sutures used? What is the down side to them?

A
  • used for clean wounds
  • fast to sew, easy to remove
  • wound integrity is compromised if secondarily infected
20
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of staples

A
  • advantage: fast, individual stapes can be removed in event of infection
  • disadvantage: “railroad track pattern”
21
Q

clean surgical wounds should have wound dressings left in place for what period of time? why?

A
  • 48 hours to allow for epithelialization
    • removed earlier if saturated or suspicion of infection
22
Q

What type of wounds are left open

A
  • bite wounds
  • > 8 hrs since injury
    • face is exception
  • necrotic tissue or foreign material
  • high velocity injuries
  • inflammed or infected wounds
  • crush or ischemic tissue
  • high level steroid use
23
Q

What type of bite wounds are considered infected wounds

A
  • human bites
  • cat bites
24
Q

avoid using epinephrine to control bleeding in what areas

A
  • ears, fingers, toes, nose, penis
25
Q

what is the biggest source of wound infections

A
  • the patient!
26
Q

why must you wash hands with soap and water in hospital setting

A
  • aclohol hand gels are not effective against clostridium difficile spores
27
Q

differentiate between hypertrophic scars and keloid scars

A
  • hypertrophic scars: rise above skin level but stay within confines of original wound
    • ​often regress over time
  • keloid scars: rise above skin level and extend beyond the border of original wound
    • rarely regress spontaneously
  • ​tx both: intralesional corticosteroid injections
28
Q

what are the common sites of pressure ulcers

A
  • heel
  • sacrum
  • ischial tuberosity
    • bony prominences
29
Q

what is a decubiti

A
  • pressure ulcer
  • pressure sore secondary to excessive pressure over a bony prominence
30
Q

what is a lipoma

A
  • common, benign tumor consisting of fat
    • slow growing
    • may or may not be painful
31
Q

what is a sebaceous cyst

A
  • blockage of duct of a sebaceous gland
  • may exist for a long period without becoming infected
32
Q

tx of infected and non-infected sebaceous cyst

A
  • infected: incision and drainage
  • non-infected: excision of entire capsule
33
Q

abscess typically begin as what

A

local superficial cellulitis

  • loculation of these infections leads to abscess formation
34
Q

abscesses are typically drained with what size blade

A

11 blade

35
Q

What is pilonidal disease

A
  • acute or chronic recurring abscess or chronic draining sinus
    • over the sacrococcygeal or perianal region
    • could be the result of inspissated hair
36
Q

what is necrotizing fasciitis

A
  • rapidly spreading infection, usually polymicrobial
  • travels subcutaneous or fascial planes
37
Q

what is fourneir’s gangrene

A
  • necrotizing fasciitis of male genitalia and perineum
38
Q

risk factors for fourneir’s gangrene

A
  • urethral strictures
  • perirectal abscess
  • poor perineal hygiene
  • DM, CA, immunocompromised

emergency medicine (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions