wound dressings Flashcards

1
Q

what are ideal treatment/dressing characteristics?

A
moist wound environment
thermal insulation
easy removal
removes drainage and debris
maintains a environment free of particulates and toxic products
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2
Q

What is the TIME principle

A

Tissue non viable or deficient
Infection/inflammation
Moisture Imbalance
Epidermal margin

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3
Q

Regarding the TIME principle, if the tissue is non viable or deficient then it needs ______ which ______

A

debridement

restores wound base and ECM proteins

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4
Q

Regarding the TIME principle, if the has an infection/inflammation, it needs ______ which ______

A

antimicrobials

lowers bacterial counts and controlled inflammation

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5
Q

Regarding the TIME principle, if the wound has moisture imbalance, it needs ______ which ______

A

dressings compression

restores cell migration, maceration is avoided

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6
Q

Regarding the TIME principle, if the wound has impairment of epidermal margin then it needs ______ which ______

A

biological agents/cell therapy

stimulate keratinocyte migration

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7
Q

What are the two categories of wound dressings?

A

Primary: come into contact with the wound
Secondary: placed over primary for increased protection, cushioning, absorption, or occlusion

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8
Q

What are some dressing considerations?

A
anatomical site
drainage amount
bacterial load
periwound integrity
depth
edema
caregiver ability
aggressive vs conservative care
cost and reimbursement
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9
Q

True or false

wet-to-dry gauze is considered debridement?

A

true

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10
Q

What are advantages to gauzes?

A
various shape and sizes
can be used for packing
impregnated
non-adherent
can be used as primary or secondary
nonselective debridement
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11
Q

what are disadvantages of gauzes?

A
painful removal
harm healthy tissue
can desiccate wound bed
little absorption capacity
no barrier to bacteria
not cost-effective due to frequent changes require money and nursing time
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12
Q

Contact layers provide ____?
Can they be reused?
Are they absorptive?

A

wound bed with protection with fluid flow-through

yes

usually non-absorptive

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13
Q

Contact layers require ______ and are sometimes _______.

A

secondary dressings

impregnated

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14
Q

Examples of contact layers include:

A

N- terface
Mepitel
Profore Contact
Tegapore

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15
Q

Polyurethane film over op-site and tegaderm are examples of?

A

transparent films

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16
Q

Advantages of transparent films include?

A
WATERPROOF
wound is visible
promotes autolytic debridement
semi-occlusive
protection for friction or shear
can be used as primary or secondary
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17
Q

what are disadvantages to transparent films?

A

Minimal absorptive capacity
can cause maceration
can promote skin irritation
can be traumatic on removal

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18
Q

Transparent films SHOULD NOT be used on _____?

A

infected wounds

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19
Q

Hydrocolloid otherwise known as ________ is ______ that interacts with wound fluid.

A

duoderm

thick fluid

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20
Q

Advantages of Hydrocolloid are:

A
occlusive dressing
promote autolytic debridement
min to mod absb cacpacity
can be used under compression
can stay in place 5-7 days
can be used as a primary or secondary dressing
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21
Q

Disadvantages to hydrocolloid are:

A
cause wound odor
risk of hyper hypergranulation
can macerate periwound
can cause skin irritation
can melt down or edges roll
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22
Q

What type of wounds should hydrocolloid dressings NOT be used on?

A

infected wounds

wounds with undermining or tunneling

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23
Q

What are advantages of Hyrdogel?

A
promote moist wound environment
soothes and assists with pain management
can assist with autolytic debridement
used only as primary dressing
used for viable and nonviable tissue
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24
Q

Disadvantages to hydrogel include:

A

varies in viscosity
can cause maceration
Usually requires a secondary dressing

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25
Q

Hydrogel should not be used on _______?

A

heavily draining wounds

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26
Q

Alginates and Hydrofibers are use to ______?

A

keep drainage from getting to periwound

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27
Q

examples of alginates and hydrofibers include?

A

seaweed derived dressing-Kalttostat
curasorb
aquacel
sorbsan

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28
Q

Advantages or Alginates and Hydrofibers include?

A
mod to heavy drainage
viable or nonviable tissue
can reduce frequency of dressing changes
can assist with debridement
can be used with compression
can be used with infected wounds
may have hemostatic properties
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29
Q

What are disadvantages of Alginates?

A

Can desiccate wound

cause alginate scab

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30
Q

Advantages of Foams are:

A
mod to heavy drainage
semi-occlusive
adhesive and nonadhesive
longer wear time
wick away moisture
can be used with compression
protects wound
insulator
may retard hyper hypergranulation tissue
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31
Q

Disadvantages of foams include:

A

maceration
may desiccate wound bed
may require secondary dressings
expensive

32
Q

Collagen can contain ____ material so best to ask pt if they have allergies.

A

bovine

33
Q

advantages to collagen include:

A

mod to heavy drainage
multiple forms
reduce MMPs

34
Q

True or False

Collagen directly increases healing?

A

False,

Reduction of MMPs may attracts components for healing

35
Q

Composites are ? Examples?

A
Two in one dressings 
telfa island
foam with adhesive
tielle
combiderm
36
Q

Advantages of composites include?

A

multiple features or function in one dressing
easy to use
various forms and sizes

37
Q

Combination advantages?

A

multiple activities in one dressing

example: collagen and alginate, silver and alginate

38
Q

Disadvantages of combination include?

A

confusing for caregiver

must clarify primary function for reimbursement

39
Q

When are silicone gel sheets used? who uses them a lot?

A

in the maturation phase

plastic surgeons

40
Q

advantages of silicone gel sheets include:

A

assists with scar management
may reduce or prevent hypertrophic and keloid scars
increases scar mobility and elasticity to reduce contractors
reduce discoloration of scars

41
Q

Bacitracin, an antibiotic ointment, is ______ and good for the ____ and _____

A

water-based

hands and face

42
Q

Bactroban, an antibiotic ointment, is effective against _____

A

MRSA

43
Q

What should one look out for when using neosporin?

A

allergies to the neomycin

44
Q

What is the primary ingredients to silvadende?

A

sulf and silver

45
Q

What should one know before taking Silvadene?

A

if allergic to sulfa

46
Q

After application of Silvadene , the wound can look _____ when read to move and can turn wound _____

A

purulent

dull or grey from the silver

47
Q

what are silver dressings effective against?

A

Pseudomonus, MRSA, staph, strep, enterococcus

48
Q

Some silver dressings require ____ for activation

A

sterile water

49
Q

True or false

silver dressings can only be used one

A

false

some can be rinsed and re-applied

50
Q

What are the ingredients to Hydrofera Blue?

A

Bacteriostatic foam containing methane blue and crystal violet

51
Q

Hydrofera blue is effective against?

A

MRSA, VRE, Stap, Seratia, E-coli, Bacillus subtilis, yersina enterocolitica

52
Q

What color does hydrofera blue turn when its ready to be replaced?

A

light or white on either side

53
Q

What does Hydrofera blue need for daily and when to be removed in dried out wounds?

A

requires rehydration

54
Q

Hydrofera blue is the only dressing that ____?

A

can be used in connection with enzymatic debriding ointment

55
Q

Cadexamer Iodine is effective against

A
psudomonus
MRSA
staph
strep
enterococcus
etc
56
Q

True or False

Cadexamer Iodine is cytotoxic due to being time-released.

A

False

antimicrobial

57
Q

Cadexamer is good for _____

draining wounds and can assist with ________.

A

mod to heavy draining wounds

debridement

58
Q

Cadexamer Iodine looks like ______ when applied and ______ when ready to remove.

A

rust colored play dough

yellow applesauce

59
Q

Cadexamer Iodine is indicated for?

A

slough, draining wounds

60
Q

What are benefits of using Honey?

A

Promotes a moist environment
high absorptive
cleanses and derides due to its high osmolarity
helps to lower the wound pH for optimal environment
nontoxic, natural, safe
antibacterial effects

61
Q

Indications for the use of honey include:

A
diabetic foot ulcer
venous leg ulcer
arterial leg ulcers
leg ulcers of mixed etiology
pressure ulcers
burns(not full thickness)
donor sites
traumatic and surgical wounds
62
Q

Growth factors utilize ___________ to stimulate the ______ phase of wound healing

A

platelet derived growth factor ( PDGF )

proliferative

63
Q

Oasis is an _______ made from ?

A

acellular xenograft made from the submucosal lining of a small intestine of porcine

64
Q

Regranex is a ? and indicated for?

A

recombinant human platelet-derived growth factor for topical application

indicated for LE diabetic neuropathic ulcers

65
Q

Oasis is an acellular xenograft containing a _______ with _____ and _____ that support tissue repair

A

collagenous, extracellular matrix

cytokines and cell adhesion molecules

66
Q

what are skin sealants?

A

provide additional protection and stickiness to skin for dressing retention

67
Q

examples of barrier ointments include ? and there function?

A

petrolatum
dimethicone
zinc oxide

protect skin from moisture and possibly friction

68
Q

what are some periwound considerations?

A
maceration
dryness
irritation
incontinence
trauma
dermatitis
skin prep
moisturizer
antibiotic ointment
moisture barriers
protective dressings
steroid ointments
69
Q

true or false

when bandaging fingers, each finger should be wrapped individually

A

true

70
Q

when bandaging a large or infected wound on the hand, ______ is required and applied with _______ focusing on _________ to allow use of extremity

A

roll gauze

figure 8 wrapping

minimizing bandage bulk

71
Q

wounds on the trunk requiring a secondary dressing may be secured with?

A

roll gauze
elastic netting vest
both

72
Q

trunk wounds covering a large wound may best be manage with?

A

a burn vest

73
Q

What are montgomery straps?

A

minimally adhesive strips with ties on one side used to create an external suture

74
Q

What are three bandages that can be used on plantar wounds?

A

thick gauze pads
sheet hydrogels
thick foams

75
Q

when to change treatment course?

A
no chnage in 2-4 weeks
wound worsening
necrosis debrided and viable tissue present
new odor or change in drainage
new erthema/ or pain
bleeding present
wound bed dry or too moist
76
Q

when to stop treatment?

A

suspicious of osteomyelitis
recurrent or unresolved erythema
persistant purulent drainage or fluctuance
necrosis with muscle, tendon, bone involvement
unexplained persistent pain
new ulcers