Workshop 5: Administration - Post-grant Practice Flashcards

**Topic: Administration: Personal Representatives** - Administration: PR duties - Administration: PR powers - Administration: PR liability & protection **Topic: Administration: Post-grant Steps** - Administration: Collecting assets & payment of debts - Administration: Income tax and capital gains tax - Administration: Distribution & Estate Accounts

1
Q

What is the general procedure for PRs and asset collection of: balance of bank accounts after obtaining ‘grant of representation’?

A

Most banks and building societies require withdrawal forms to be completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the general procedure after PRs collect personal possessions after obtaining ‘grant of representation’?

A

They should be stored and safeguarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who usually arranges the sale or transfer of investments when assets are collected in?

A

A financial advisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is the deceased’s land assets that are registered at the land registry collected following the PR’s obtaining grant of representation?

A

It is transferred into the name of the PRs, if its not directly transferred to a beneficiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where should money that is being collected as an asset be paid into?

A
  • A PR’s bank account (opened specifically to hold estate money and prevent mixing with personal funds)
  • A law firm client account
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does it mean for a PR being obligated to pay debts and funeral expenses with ‘due diligence’?

A

Should normally be paid before the end of the ‘executor’s year’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the ‘executor’s year’?

A

A year given to the executor to deal with the deceased’s estate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens in the event a PR fails to pay debts?

A

They become liable to the creditor and beneficiaries for consequent loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can a PR obtain protection against personal liability to unknown creditors in the payment of debts?

A

By complying with the s.27 TA 1925 notice procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can a PR’s liability be limited to beneficiaries but not relieved of liability to creditors in the event of failure to pay debts?

A

An express clause in the will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Will the deceased’s assets be absolved from being made available for payment of deceased’s debts and libailities if there is a clause in the will contraty to this?

A

No - such a clause in a will will be made void according to s.32 Administration of Estates Act 1925

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is an estate classed as ‘solvent’?

A

When the assets are sufficient to pay all

  • Funeral expenses
  • Testamentary and administration expenses
  • Debts and liabilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is an estate classed as ‘insolvent’?

A

When the assets are insufficient in paying all

  • Funeral expenses
  • Testamentary and administration expenses
  • Debts and liabilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Does whether the legacies can be paid in full or not contribute to an estates ‘solvency’ status?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What order must debts be paid in when the deceased’s estate is ‘insolvent’?

What is the name of the Act that governs this?

A

In statutory order in the Administration of Insolvent Estates of Deceased Persons Order 1986

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is known as a ‘secured debt’?

Give an example

A

A debt that has been charged on part of the deceased property during their lifetime

E.g., a mortgage on the deceased’s house

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which order are assets used to pa unsecured debts?

Is there an exception?

A

The order is taken in the statutory order (Sch 1 Part II AEA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some examples of unsecured debts?

A

Credit card debt/utility bills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two responsibilities a PR has regarding a deceased’s ‘income tax’ (IT) and ‘capital gains tax’ (CGT)?

A
  1. Finalise the deceased’s IT and CGT position for the tax year of death
  2. Pay IT and CGT that becomes due during the administration period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does finalising the deceased’s IT and CGT position for the tax year of death look like?

And why

A

Finalising whether the deceased owes outstanding tax to HMRC or whether the estate will be due a refund

Because the deceased is likely to have died part way through a tax year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does paying IT and CGT that becomes due during the administration period look like?

A

Paying IT on any income received during the administration period

and paying CGT on taxable gains made following a disposal of estate assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where are the deceased’s tax liabilities payable from and to?

A

The estate assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What period should PRs record information and notify HMRC of regarding the submission of a tax return on behalf of deceased?

A

From 6th April to the date of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the PR need to do when working out the deceased’s income tax liability?

A

Access the dceased’s financial records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How will a PR working in the best interests of the deceased work out the deceased’s income tax liability?

A

Utilise the deceased’s tax-free allowances and pay tax at the rates applicable to the deceased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What two things the PR ned to account for when working out the deceased’s income tax liability?

A
  1. Untaxed income due and paid before death
  2. Some income paid after death which relates to period before death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are some examples of ‘Some income paid after death which relates to period before death’ when a PR is working out the tax liability of the deceased?

A

E.g.,

  • Rent due on properties the deceased let, but hadn’t paid
  • Final dividends declared before death but not paid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Whose is bank interest paid before death taxed as?

A

The deceased’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Whose is bank interest paid after death taxed as?

A

The PR’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How will the PR work out whether the deceased had any outstanding CGT liability on the date the deceased died?

A

The PR will need to consider the disposals made by the deceased before they died

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Do CGT liability related to assets that the deceased no longer owned on the date that they died?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What examples of income is taxed as ‘estate income’ in the hands of the PR?

A

When the interest receives interests from e.g.,
- Banks
- Dividends (from shares) and
- Rent (from let properties)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When may PRs be liable to pay IT if the estate generates income in their hands?

A

If income arises between the date of death
and the date the assets are distributed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Are PRs entitled to claim an IT personal allowance when working out a deceased’s tax liability?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the rate that PRs pay IT at when paying IT on the deceased’s estate after the their death?

A

Basic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who is taxed if income is generated after they have been distributed to the beneficiaries?

A

Taxed as the beneficiary’s income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the name of the form that the PRs give to beneficiaries when the estate income is distributed?

A

Form R185

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does an R185 form record?

A

The IT paid by PRs in respect of the income a beneficiary receives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What two things can beneficiaries used the R185 form to do?

A
  1. Claim a tax refund for beneficiaries who don’t pay IT
  2. Top up payment to HMRC using R185 to complete their own tax return
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When must PRs report IT to HMRC regarding the deceased’s estate?

A

When the total income of any kind received in more than £500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When must PRs pay IT on the deceased’s estate?

A

When the total income exceeds £500 tax free amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the IT free amount on the deceased’s estate per tax year of administration?

A

£500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How much of the deceased’s estate is IT payable on if it exceeds the tax free amount?

A

IT is payable on the whole amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What tax liability applies where the estate income is distributed to beneficiaries within the £500 tax free limit?

A

No tax liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Is the taxable income for the beneficiary recorded in the R185 when the total income does not exceed the £500 tax free limit?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When may Prs be liable to CGT during the administration of a deceased’s estate?

A

If they make a disposal/sale of estate assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What will there be if assets have increased in value since the date of death when sold/disposed of by PR?

A

A gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What will there be if assets have fallen in value since the date of death when sold/disposed of by PR?

A

A loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a PR’s CGT liability if the amount of the gain is greater than the tax-free allowance?

A

They will pay CGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Similarly to IT, PRs cannot claim the same tax-free allowance that individuals can claim

A

False

PRs can claim the same tax-free allowance on CGT as an individual would, which is contrary to IT

With IT, a PR cannot claim tax-free allowance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How can losses made in since the date of deceased’s death be useful in the context of CGT?

A

They can be off-set against other gains made during the administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which gains are chargeable?

Post-death gains or gains made by the deceased during their lifetime and owned at the date of death?

A

Post-death gains only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Are assets that increase in value from the date they acquired the asset and the date of death taxed with CGT?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which point are CGT calculated of the deceased’s assets?

A

From the date of death (value of the estate assets are ‘re’set’ for CGT purposes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What asset is exempt from CGT and to what extent?

A

Chattels

If the disposal is made for a consideration of £6000 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the two options a PR can engage in in the administration of non-cash assets?

A
  1. Sell the asset to raise cash for distrubution to beneficiary/creditor
  2. Transfer asset to beneficiaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What power is required for a PR to sell an asset in the administration of non-cash assets?

A

Power of sale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What power is required for a PR to transfe an asset in the administration of non-cash assets?

A

Power of appropriation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is meant by ‘the power of appropriation’?

A

The PR can transfer assets in satisfaction of a beneficiary’s entitlement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Who decided whether the PR sells or transfers items in the administration of the deceased’s estate subject to specific obligation?

A

The PR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Why does no chargeable gain occur when the PR makes a transfer to a benficiary?

A

Because it is not a disposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What value does the beneficiary acquire the asset in the following scenario, why and what gain is made:

PR acquires asset at probate value of £80k

Asset value is £100k at date of transfer

PR transfers asset to beneficiary

A

They acquire it at £80k because there is no chargeable agin (not a disposal, but is a transfer)

The gain made is £60k due to this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What things should a PR consider when deciding whether they should ‘sell’ or ‘transfer’ non-cash assets in the deceased’s estate?

A
  • If the beneficiary has used their tax-free allowance (may be better for a transfer and beneficiary to sell assets if they haven’t used their tax free allowance)
  • Same for PRs^ (for CGT purposes)
  • Whether the sale of an asset will generate a loss; does the estate or the beneficiary have against against which the loss can be set off against
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is meant by ‘interim distributions’?

A

When early payments are made to a beneficiary who is to benefit from the residuary estate, and then they received balancing payment at the end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What do PRs have duty to do once they have collected assets and paid debts, funeral, testamentary and administration expenses?

A

A duty to distrubute the remaining estate assets to beneficiaries in accordance with their legal entitlement under the will and/or intestacy rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Who bears the costs of the transfer of the asset, unless the will specifically provides otherwise?

A

The beneficiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Does the beneficiary inherit the inherited item free of IHT?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the method of transfer of chattels?

A

Delivery to the beneficiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the method of transfer of £ legacies?

A

Cheque or bank transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the method of transfer of shares?

A

Stock transfer form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the method of transfer of land?

A

Assent for a legal estate in land (land registry form AS1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How much time may the PR want to delay the distributions of the estate from the issue of grant when considering the possibility of having claims made against the estate?

Why this much time?

A

10 months

6 months deadline for a claim to be issues against the estate + 4 months to serve notice of this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When should PRs not make distributions after being notified of claims by unknown beneficiaries and creditors?

A

Two months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which order are legacies paid in, unless the will states otherwise?

A
  1. Specific
  2. General
  3. Residuary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What happens if the estate funds do not permit for all legacies to be paid in full?

A

They abate [reduce] in the reverse order in which they are paid in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where are general legacies paid from in the absence of a direction as tot he order in which assets should be used to pay legacies?

A

General legacies are paid from residue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does the PR’s ‘power of appropriation’ not allow the PR to do?

A

Appropriate an asset where its value at the date of appropriation exceeds the entitlement of the benficiary concerned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What must be done in the event that the value of an asset at the date of appropriation is less than the beneficiary’s entitlement?

A

The PR will need to make a further balancing transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Who should sign/approve of the estate accounts?

A

By all PRs and residuary beneficiaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What does the signing off/approval of estate accounts signify?

A

That they agree with how the estate has been administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the usual effect of the signing off/approval of the estate account upon the PRs?

A

Releases them from further liability to account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does the date of the accounts being signed off usually signify or often considered as?

A

The ‘end’ of the administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the three main sections that are usually in the estate accounts?

A
  1. Capital Account
  2. Income Account
  3. Distribution Account
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Why does it not matter which order unsecured debts are met for a creditor for solvent estates?

A

Because they will be paid anyways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Why does the choice of assets used to pay the unsecured debts matter for beneficiaries?

A

Because if the beneficiary’s ‘part’ of the estate is used for unsecured debts, the beneficiary will receive less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the statutory order of assets used to repay unsecured debts, starting from which assets will be used first and exhausted in full?

A
  1. Property that is not disposed of by a will (i.e., property passing by full/partial intestacy)
  2. Residue
  3. Property the will sets aside
  4. £ in the pecuniary legacy fund
  5. Property specifically given e.g., chattels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How do the clauses in a will differ when contrary intention is used to overide the statutory order of from unsecured debts to secured debts?

A

Unsecured
- General direction given for the residue to bear burden of debts

Secured
- Specific intention for beneficiary of secured debt to receive item free of debt must be shown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the ‘doctrine of marshalling’?

A

Doctrine beneficiaries whose assets have been ‘wrongly taken’ as a result of PRs taking their assets ‘out of order’ to pay creditors can use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Will creditors be under an obligation to return the money paid to them if the doctrine of marshalling arose?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Who does the beneficiary claim against when using to doctrine of ‘marshalling’?

A

The assets inherited by another beneficiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What would the IHT consequences be for the donor if a beneficiary chooses to give away their inheritance?

A
  • The original beneficiary would be making a PET
  • PET would be chargeable if the transferor died within 7 years of the gift
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What would the CGT consequences be for the donor if a beneficiary chooses to give away their inheritance?

A
  • Gift on non-cash asset would be a CGT disposal by original beneficiary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What would the CGT consequence be in the instance of an increase of asset value of a beneficiary’s inheritance should they wish to give it away?

A

Any increase since the date of the deceased’s death would be subject to CGT if gain is greater than beneficiary’s tax-free allowance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What five things can be done to mitigate IHT and CGT consequences after the original estate distribution, where a beneficiary wishes to give their inheritance away?

A
  1. Variation
  2. Disclaimer
  3. Precatory trust
  4. Court oder under Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975
  5. Capital distributions from some will trusts within 2 years of death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is a ‘variation’?

A

A direction from an original beneficiary, to the deceased’s PRs, to transfer property that the beneficiary is entitled to (under will terms and/or intestacy rules) to someone else instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What extent of an inheritance can a variation be made?

A

To part or whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Who can determine who received the original beneficiary’s [varied] inheritance?

A

The original beneficiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

When is a variation possible?

A

After an inheritance has been accepted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How is the variation treated for both IHT and CGT purposes when the original beneficiary distributes their inheritance to a new beneficiary?

A

The gift is ‘read back’ to the date of the deceased’s death; IHT and CGT due on the deceased’s death estate is recalculated as if the deceased left the property to the new beneficiary

100
Q

What are the four conditions under s.142 (1) IHTA that must be satisfied to achieve the IHT ‘writing-back effect’?

A
  • Made by original beneficiary in writing
  • Made within two years following the deceased’s death
  • Contains express statement by beneficiary confirming s.142 should apply
  • Not to be made for consideration in money or money’s worth
101
Q

What are the four conditions under s.62 TCGA that must be satisfied to achieve the IHT ‘writing-back effect’?

A
  • Made by original beneficiary in writing
  • Made within two years following the deceased’s death
  • Contains express statement by beneficiary confirming s.62 should apply
  • Not to be made for consideration in money or money’s worth
102
Q

Can a beneficiary vary their entitlement to the estate essays without approval from the PR’s of the deceased’s estate?

A

Yes - only if variation does not result in additional IHT being due on the deceased’s estate

103
Q

What should the PR do in the event the original beneficiary’s variation of their entitlement results in additional IHT being due?

A
  • Sign the variation
  • Provide HMRC with a copy of the written variation and pay the amount due
104
Q

What is the only circumstance that a PR can refuse the original beneficiary’s variation?

A

When the assets held by them are insufficient to discharge the additional tax payable

105
Q

What may happen to the IHT payable if the variation causes an increase or decrease in an exempt beneficiary’s inheritance?

A

May result in an increase or decrease in IHT payable

106
Q

Why may there be an increase or decrease in IHT payable if variation causes an increase or decrease in an exempt beneficiary’s inheritance, e.g., a spouse?

A

Because the asset being ‘varied’ will be passing to a non-exempt beneficiary

107
Q

What can be made use of during variation to circumvent change in estate IHT, if available?

A

NRB or RNRB

108
Q

How do you calculate the ‘gain’ accumulated from an asset?

A

Disposal value - acquisition value

109
Q

How do you calculate the ‘amount charged to CGT’?

A

Gain - tax free allowance (TFA)

110
Q

What are the CGT consequences of variation?

A

CGT liability can arise if the gain is more than beneficiary’s TFA

111
Q

What can an original beneficiary do if they wish to give away their inheritance whilst seeking to avoid CGT charge?

A

s.62 TAxation of Chargeable Gains Act 1992 (TCGA)

This permits a writing-back effect similar to IHT version

112
Q

Who is liable to pay CGT upon disposal of assets following variation if they later dispose of it?

A

New beneficiary

113
Q

What gifts are exempt from CGT?

A

Cash gifts

Only non-cash assets are subject to subject of variation

114
Q

Does the formal variation process need to happen if no writing-back is required for either IHT or CGT?

A

No

The beneficiary can simply make gift to new intended beneficiary

115
Q

What value will a new beneficiary, under variation, receive varied assets in the original beneficiary elects to use s.62 TCGA?

A

Value of asset at date of death

116
Q

What value will a new beneficiary, under variation, receive varied assets in the original beneficiary doesn’t elects to use s.62 TCGA?

A

Value of assets at current market value - potentially CGT liability if there is a gain

117
Q

When does the original beneficiary not need to elect to use s.62 TCGA?

A

If the gain is within their TFA

118
Q

What two categories of people are unable to make a variation without the consent of the court under the Variation of Trusts Act 1958?

A
  • Minor
  • Lacks mental capacity
119
Q

How many times can each asset be varied?

120
Q

What two types of property cannot be varied?

A
  1. Property which the deceased was a life tenant of immediately before death
  2. If deceased made gift with reservation of benefit; deceased wasn’t legal owner of assets and don’t form part of distribution estate
121
Q

What is a ‘disclaimer’?

A

Beneficiary’s refusal to accept property under a will terms/intestacy

122
Q

When must a beneficiary disclaim property under a will terms/intestacy?

A

Before acceptance

123
Q

What extent of a gift can a beneficiary disclaim?

A

They can only disclaim whole of it

124
Q

How do we know that the original beneficiary cannot control who receives the assets that they disclaim?

A

Disclaimed inheritances pass as if the gift to the original beneficiary had failed

Therefore the ultimate destination is determined by will terms/intestacy rules

125
Q

Who is taxed when a disclaimed transfer occurs?

A

The deceased’s estate

As if it was the deceased made the transfer to the new beneficiary

126
Q

Is the original beneficiary treated as though they made the transfer to the new beneficiary when disclaiming their inheritance?

127
Q

Do the provisions of s.142 IHTA and s.62 TCGA apply in the same way as variations for disclaimers?

Including the condition for the ‘writing back’ effect?

127
Q

Which of the two are more limiting in their nature?

Variations or disclaimers?

A

Disclaimers

128
Q

When does a precatory trust arise?

A

When a gift is made to a beneficiary by a will with a testator’s wish expressed as to how the beneficiary should pass on assets to others

129
Q

Why are precatory trusts beneficiary for testators with regards to gifts of chattels?

A

They allow flexibility given the testator may change their mind later on without amending their will

130
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

The subject matter of the gift of a precatory trust does not need to be certain

A

False

It must be certain

131
Q

How are gifts made by the original beneficiary of a precatory trust within 2 years of the testator’s death treated for IHT purposes?

A

As gifts made by the testator’s will and not the original beneficiary

132
Q

What are the IHT effects of assets being distributed under a precatory will within 2 years of the testator’s death?

A

IHT may be payable

133
Q

Is a written election required for precatory trusts for the ‘writing back effect’ like variations and disclaimers?

A

No - it happens automatically

134
Q

How are distributions of assets of a precatory trust treated for CGT purposes?

A

As a disposal by the original beneficiary

135
Q

Why is CGT usually not an issue for precatory trusts?

A

There is likely to only be a short time between testator’s death and beneficiary’s distribution

Meaning there is unlikely to be a significant increase in value of chattels

136
Q

What is the role of the PR?

A

To administer the estate of the deceased

137
Q

What is the statutory duty of a PR?

A

To
- Collect deceased’s assets
- Ensure deceased’s debts are paid
- Ensure outstanding tax liabilities are met
- Distribute assets to beneficiaries (under will or intestacy

138
Q

Can a PR be a beneficiary of the estate?

A

Yes, but not always

139
Q

What is the nature of the role of a PR?

What does this mean in terms of how their role must be carried out?

A

It is fiduciary in nature

They must perform their role with duty of care

140
Q

What is a PR appointed by will referred to?

A

Executor/executrix

141
Q

Where does the executor’s authority to act come from?

142
Q

What does the grant of representation confirm?

A

The executor’s authority

143
Q

Where does an administrator’s authority to act come from?

144
Q

Who will require proof of a grant when a PR needs to transfer legal title of land to their name?

A

Land Registry

145
Q

Who does the legal title of a deceased’s estate lie with?

A

The PR, by virtue of their appointment

146
Q

When does the role of the PR end?

A

When the estate administration is complete

147
Q

Who takes over when the estate administration is complete if there are any trusts in the deceased’s will?

A

The trustee

The trust fund should be transferred to the trustee

148
Q

Who should record the data that the assets are transferred from the PRs to the trustees following the completing of the administration of the estate (not trust assets and funds), even if the executors and the trustees are the same people?

149
Q

Which circumstances may the PR also be a trustee of all or some of the estate property?

A
  • The will expressly appoints executors to act as trustees
  • There is an intestacy; PRs hold estate generally ‘on trust with a power to sell’
  • A statutory trust arises under an intestacy; PRs will be trustees of that trust on behalf of minor beneficiary
150
Q

How can a solicitor become involved in the administration of an estate?

A
  • Solicitor has been instructed by PRs for advice on administration
  • Solicitor has been appointed as executor of deceased’s will
  • Solicitor instructed to act on behalf of party to a contentious probate matter
151
Q

Who is the firm’s client if the firm is instructed by PR?

PR or the beneficiaries?

A

PR

Solicitor must act on the PRs instructions

152
Q

Who bears the funding of the legal fees of the firm in the administration of an estate?

A

Using the estate assets rather than PR’s personal funds - it is an administration expense

153
Q

Who does an executor solicitor charge for their services?

A

The estate

154
Q

Who does the executor solicitor owe a duty to in the administration of an estate as an executor?

A

Estate creditors and beneficiaries

155
Q

Who is classed as a ‘professional PR’?

A

A solicitor acting as an executor appointed by will

156
Q

What kind of contentious probate work may a solicitor be faced with when involved int he administration of a deceased’s estate?

A
  • Terms or validity of will if its challenged
  • Disappointed beneficiary making a claim under Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975
157
Q

Who is liable for loss caused by a breach of duty?

A

PR is personally liable

158
Q

How do PRs inform HMRC about the assets and liabilities of an estate (s.216 IHTA)?

A

By completing a form IHT 400

159
Q

What type of estates are form IHT 400 completed for?

A

Excepted estates

160
Q

When must a PR inform HMRC about assets and liabilities of estate and ensure IHT is paid?

A

Before the grant of representation is obtained

161
Q

How does a PR comply with their s.25 Administration of Estate Act 1925 duty to ‘collect in [real and personal estate]’?

A

They must
- Identify and locate deceased assets (including sums owed to deceased)
- Identify deceased’s liabilities and creditors
^ (would’ve been done as a part of form IHT 400)

  • Obtain control, possession or legal ownership of assets
162
Q

How does a PR comply with their s.25 Administration of Estate Act 1925 duty to ‘administer estate’?

A

Administering the estate in full looks like:

  • Keeping assets secure
  • Paying deceased’s debts and liabilities (in accordance with statutory order)
  • Meeting administration expenses
  • Paying legacies
  • Distributing residue to legally entitled
163
Q

How does a PR comply with their s.25 Administration of Estate Act 1925 duty to ‘providing an inventory and account of estate assets’?

A
  • Keeping a list of assets and values (inventory)
  • Record steps taken in the administration (account)
164
Q

What information comprises the ‘Estate Accounts’?

A
  • List of inventory
  • Record of steps taken in the administration or the ‘account’
165
Q

What can be done if PR refuse to produce Estate Accounts?

A

Ac application to court can be made for an order to produce these accounts

166
Q

Who usually has interest in seeing the Estate Accounts?

Who else may?

A

Beneficiaries

Creditor with a claim against the estate may want to also see to find out further information

167
Q

What is the general time frame whereby a PR should complete the administration of the deceased’s succession estate?

A

Within 12 months of the date of death

Also known as the executor’s year

168
Q

What must happen if the administration takes longer than the ‘executor’s year’ recommendation?

A

They will be required to justify any delay

169
Q

Is it mandatory for a PR to continue administration if additional assets are discovered following the completion of administration?

A

Yes - their appointment is for life

170
Q

Is it mandatory for a PR to continue administration if creditors or beneficiaries are discovered following the completion of administration, who may not have been known at the time?

A

Yes - their appointment is for life

171
Q

Which two sources do PR powers come from?

A
  1. Statute
  2. Will/codicil
172
Q

What is the same statutory duty that applies to PRs that already applies to trustees when exercised powers to which this duty applies?

A

Duty of care

173
Q

What must/must not a PR do relating to their role in the aspect of having a fiduciary duty?

A

PRs must not

  • Place themselves in a position of conflict
  • Profit from their position
174
Q

What is an example of a PR not placing themselves in a position of conflict?

A

Not purchasing an asset from the estate, even if it’s for fair value

175
Q

Does a PR receiving payment for services constitute a breach of the ‘no profit’ rule?

Are there any conditions?

A

No - if the PR acts in a professional capacity OR

Payments are authorised under the will

176
Q

Deceased died intestate

What power(s) apply: statutory and/or by will/codicil?

A

Statutory only

177
Q

Deceased left a will

What power(s) apply: statutory and/or by will/codicil?

A

Will powers

Statutory powers apply to the extent they don’t conflict with express will provisions i.e., statutory powers apply in default of any alternative contained in the will

178
Q

Is it compulsory for a will to contain express administrative provisions dealing with PR powers?

A

Not compulsory but it can

179
Q

Can a will contain express clauses conferring additional powers going beyond statutory provisions?

180
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

A will can exclude or modify statutory powers

181
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Express provisions in a will do not take priority over statutory powers

A

False

They do take priority over statutory powers

182
Q

What statutory powers does statute confer unto PRs?

A
  • Sell, charge or lease
  • Appropriate
  • Insure
  • Invest
  • Charge for PR services
  • Delegate powers
  • Appoint trustees
183
Q

Why may a PR need to exercise their power to sell, charge or lease estate assets?

A

Sell estate assets to:

  • Repay deceased’s debts
  • Meet inheritance tax liability
184
Q

Why may a PR have the power to appropriate an estate asset?

A

To ensure a beneficiary’s entitlement is satisfied

185
Q

Can a PR appropriate an asset if its value exceeds the beneficiary’s entitlement?

186
Q

What must a PR do when appropriating an asset that is less than the beneficiary’s entitlement?

A

Appropriate the asset

Make a balancing cash transfer

187
Q

What is the PR’s duty to appropriate limited by?

A
  • Specific beneficiary mustn’t be prejudiced
  • Consent of recipient beneficiary is required
  • Value of asset must be considered at date of transfer/appropriation instead of date of death
188
Q

What date should the value of an asset that a PR seeks to appropriate be considered at?

A

The date of transfer/appropriation and NOT the date of death

189
Q

What does the PR’s power to insure mean?

A

PRs have the power tot ake out insurance to insure estate assets comprehensively

190
Q

Where are PRs authorised to pay insurance premiums from?

A

Estate income or capital

191
Q

What is a PR’s duty (and the name of the corresponding power they must exercise) where assets are retained for a period of time?

A

Duty to preserve the estate

Power to invest

192
Q

Who can claim for reasonable remuneration for their services provided (i.e., time spent carrying out administration)?

A

Professional PRs

e.g., solicitors

193
Q

What are the conditions attached to professional PRs claiming reasonable remuneration for their services provided?

A

They can claim provided

  • They are not acting alone
  • co-PRs give their written consent
194
Q

What conditions must be satisfied for a lay PR or a professional PR acting alone for them to be able to charge for their services?

A

Express power must be given for their services

195
Q

What may all PRs, whether acting in or out of a professional capacity, reimburse themselves for?

A

Expenses properly incurred when acting on behalf of an estate

e.g., travel costs incurred in course of estate administration

196
Q

What is the name of a PR’s power given by statute to employ agents and delegate their powers?

A

Power to delegate

197
Q

What areas must a PR not employ an agent and delegate powers for?

A
  • How and whether assets should be distributed
  • Whether fees or costs are payable from income or capital
  • Appointment of trustees/nominees/custodians
198
Q

What type of person must not be appointed as a PRs agent?

A

A beneficiary

199
Q

Can a PR appointment one of the PRs, if they are sufficiently qualified?

200
Q

What must a PR do following their exercise of the power to delegate?

A
  • Delegate in writing to the agent
  • Provide them with a written policy statement, which the agent must agree to comply with
201
Q

What is a common circumstance where a PR may delegate investment powers?

A

Law firms who they refer financial advisers for work

202
Q

What happens if a legacy is given aboslutley to a minor?

A

The legacy must be held on trust for the minor, using their statutory powers to maintain and advance the legacy where appropriate

203
Q

What power can a PR exercise if a legacy is given absolutley to a minor if they do not wish to retain it for whatever reason?

A

They can exercise their power to appoint trustees for gifts to minors

204
Q

How should a testator’s wish as to whether receipt of gift is accepted from parent or not written in the will?

A

Should be written expressly

205
Q

How old must a minor beneficiary whom an express clause within a will permits a PR to accept receipt from be to be effective?

A

16 or older

206
Q

What does the common law power to run a business allow a PR to do if a testator ran a business as a sole trader?

A

Sell the business as a going concern within a year of death

207
Q

When can PRs access sole trader business assets?

A

At the date of death (not other estate funds, until grant of representation given)

208
Q

Who is liable to business creditors when administering an estate of a sole trader business person?

A

The PR is personally liable

But they can indemnify themselves from estate for liabilities incurred

209
Q

How are joint PRs required to make decisions?

A

Together

Their discretionary powers should be exercised unanimously, unless the will states otherwise and joint PRs are joint executors

210
Q

When might a jointly appointed PR usually have the authority to act alone?

A

When exercising power to sell or transfer estate asset during administration

211
Q

When does a PR’s power to pay a legacy to a beneficiary aged 16 or older exist?

A

When it has been expressly conferred by the will

212
Q

What is a ‘devastavit’?

A

A claim of action against a PR for breach of their PR duties

213
Q

When may a devastavit be brought against a PR?

A

Where a loss has been suffered by the estate as a result of a PR’s wrongoing

214
Q

What does the court order that a claimants seeking a devastavit for do?

A

Orders that the PR makes good the loss using their personal assets

215
Q

What bases can a claim against a PR be made on?

A
  • Maladministration
  • Misuse of assets
  • Negligence
  • Breach of fiduciary duty
216
Q

What could misuse of assets include?

A

Making personal use of estate assets

217
Q

What could breach of fiduciary duty include?

A
  • Breach of no conflict rule
  • Self-dealing
  • Breach of no profit rule
218
Q

What could negligence include?

A
  • Unreasonable delay in carrying out administration
  • Failing to invest
  • Making poor investment decisions in breach of duty of care
219
Q

What could maladministration include>

A
  • Incorrectly administering estate by making distributions to wrong beneficiaries
  • Using residuary estate to meet liabilities which should have been paid from other parts of the estate
  • Paying legacies before debts without retaining sufficient funds for creditors
220
Q

What are the two ways a PR can be removed from their role for failing to carry out their duties properly?

A
  • Court order under 2.50 Administration of Justice Act 1950, appointing a replacement PR
  • Administration action; court takes over administration itself
221
Q

When are PRs subject to trust duties?

A

When they also act in a trustee capacity

222
Q

What liability do PRs, who are also trsutees, come under as a result of a breach of a trust?

A

They are personally liable

223
Q

What ways can a PR obtain protection from personal liability where applicable?

A
  • Seeking court directions
  • Benjamin Order
  • Presumption of Death Act
  • Insurance
  • Payments into court
  • Indemnity from beneficiary
  • s.61 Trustee Act 1925
  • s.27 Trustee Act 1925 notice
  • s.48 AJA 1985 application
224
Q

When may a PR seek a court direction?

A

When they foresee difficulties in the administration of an estate which may mean they’d become personally liable

e.g., if the construction of the will is ambiguous

225
Q

What could a court direction/administration proceedings look like?

A
  • Administration action application; estate administered by the court
  • Specific relief; an application for guidance on a particular matter
226
Q

What is an alternative option to applying for a court direction when there is question/concern of the will terms?

A

PRs may apply to distribute in accordance with a written legal opinion under s.48 Administration of Justice Act 1985

227
Q

How can PRs, who are also trustees, prevent liability to unidentified beneficiaries and creditors?

A

Public a notice of their intention to distribute to kown beneficiaries two months after the date of the advertisement

228
Q

Where must the notice under s.27 Trustee Act 1925 be placed in to be effective?

A
  • London Gazette
  • Newspaper circulating in area which any land held on trust is situated
  • Any other newspaper which is appropriate (e.g., if deceased owned a business, relevant trade paper may be appropriate
229
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

PRs, who are also trustees, are personally liable to unpaid beneficiaries and creditors, even if PRs were unaware of their claim at the time of the administration

230
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

s.27 Truster Act 1925 protects PRs if they distribute assets ignoring the claim of a known but missing beneficiary or creditor

A

False

This provisions only protects against claims by unknown beneficiaries and creditors

231
Q

What two groups of people does s.27 Trustee Act 1925 not protect?

A
  • If PRs distribute assets ignoring the claim of a known but missing beneficiary or creditor
  • Other beneficiaries who receive more than their entitlement
232
Q

Can s.27 Trustee Act 1925 protect PRs in their capacity as a beneficiary, if they also are a beneficiary under a will/intestacy?

A

No - only in their capacity as a PR

233
Q

What other liability protection mehtod can a PR rely on if there is a known but missing beneficiary?

A

A Benjamin Order

234
Q

What presumptions is a PR allowed to make under a ‘Benjamin Order’ when distributing assets, absolving personal liability?

A
  • That the missing beneficiaries have died
  • That the missing beneficiary had no children
235
Q

Can a disappointed beneficiary still make a claim against other beneficiaries that their property has been distributed amongst under s.27 Trustee Act and the Benjamin Order?

236
Q

What must the PR do before having a Benjamin Order awarded to them?

A

Make full enquires [attempt] to establish true position

They must be able to demonstrate that there is no reasonable prospect of knowing the true position without disproportionate expense

237
Q

What application can be made by a PR as a method of liability absolvement under the Presumption of Death Act 2013?

A

For a court order declaring that a person thought to have died, or not known to have been alive, for seven years or more has died

238
Q

Which is quicker and easier to use for a PR seeking to absolve personal liability in the administration of the deceased’s estate, subject to the satisfaction of criteria?

Presumption of Death Act 2023 court order or Benjamin Order

A

Presumption of Death Act 2023 court order

239
Q

What could an insurance cover if a PR purchased one?

A

Cover the risks that the beneficiary or creditor returns after administration is complete and makes claim against PR for the share they should have received

240
Q

What are the cons of a PR obtaining insurance to absolve themselves from personal liability of administering an estate?

A
  • If risk is too high, might not be possible to obtain insurance
  • Insurance premiums can be expensive
241
Q

When might a PR’s application for an order exonerating them, wholly or partly from personal liability for breach, be approved?

A

If the court considers that the PR

  • Acted honestly and reasonably
  • Out to be fairly excused for
    a) the breach of trust and
    b) omitting to obtain directions of the court in the matter
242
Q

Can a testator exclude or restrict liability of a PR’s wrongdoing in their will?

243
Q

Can professional executors be claimed against with exemption clauses in a will?

A

Yes - the exemption clauses exempt lay executors, but still allows claims against professional executors

244
Q

Is it possible to exclude liability for fraud in a will?