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Chapter 14 > Workbook (Chapter 12) > Flashcards

Workbook (Chapter 12) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the average weight of the adult human liver?

A

3-4 pounds (1.5 kg) or 1/36 of total body weight

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2
Q

Which abdominal quadrant contains the gallbladder?

A

Right upper quadrant (RUQ)

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3
Q

What is the name of the soft tissue structure that separates the right from the left lobe of the liver?

A

Falciform ligament

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4
Q

Which lobe of the liver is larger, the right or the left?

A

Right

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5
Q

List the other two lobes of the liver (in addition to right and left lobes):

A

Quadrate

Caudate

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6
Q

The liver performs more than 100 functions.

A

True

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7
Q

The average healthy adult liver produces 1 gallon, or 3000 to 4000 mL, of bile per day.

A

False

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8
Q

List the three primary functions of the gallbladder:

A

Store bile
Concentrate Bile
Contracts to release bile into duodenum

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9
Q

Concentrated levels of cholesterol in bile may lead to gallstones.

A

True

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10
Q

What is a common site for impaction, or lodging, of gallstones?

A

Duodenal papilla

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11
Q

In about 40% of individuals, the end of the common bile duct and the end of the pancreatic duct are totally separated into two ducts rather than combining into one single passageway into the duodenum.

A

True

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12
Q

An older term for the main pancreatic duct is the duct of Vater.

A

False (duct of wirsung)

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13
Q

The gallbladder is located more ______ (posteriorly or anteriorly) within the abdomen.

A

Anteriorly

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14
Q

Match the following structures to their primary location within the abdomen.

  1. Liver
  2. Gallbladder on asthenic patient
  3. Gallbladder on hypersthenic patient
  4. Gallbladder on hyposthenic patient
A
  1. to right of midsagittal place
  2. Near midsagittal plane
  3. To right of midsaittal plane
  4. To right of midsagittal plane
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15
Q

Cholecystocholangiography is a radiographic examination of

A

Study of both the gallbladder and the biliary ducts.

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16
Q

Which imaging modality produces cholescintigraphy?

A

Nuclear Medicine

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17
Q

Acute cholecystitis may produce a thickened gallbladder wall.

A

True

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18
Q

Cholelithiasis

A

Condition of having gallstones

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19
Q

Cholecystitis

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder

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20
Q

Biliary stenosis

A

Narrowing of the biliary ducts

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21
Q

Cholecystectomy

A

Surgical removal of the gallbladder

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22
Q

Neoplasm

A

Benign or malignant tumors

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23
Q

Choledocholithiasis

A

Enlargement or narrowing of the biliary ducts because of the presenceof stones

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24
Q

List the seven major components of the alimentary canal:

A 
Mouth
Pharnyx
Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Anus
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25
Q

List the four accessory organs of digestion:

A

Salivary glands
pancreas
Liver
Gallbladder

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26
Q

What are the primary functions of the digestive system?

A

Intake and digestion of food
Absorption of digested food particles
Elimination of solid food particles

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27
Q

What two terms refer to a radiographic examination of the pharnyx and esophagus?

A

Esophragram

Barium swallow

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28
Q

Which term describes the radiographic study of the distal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum?

A 
Upper gastrointestinal (UGI) series
Upper GI
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29
Q

Which three pairs of salivary glands are accessory organs of digestion associated with the mouth?

A

Parotid
Sublingual
Submandibular

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30
Q

The act of swallowing is called

A

Deglutition

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31
Q

List the three divisions of the pharynx:

A

Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx

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32
Q

What structures create the two indentations seen along the lateral border of the esophagus?

A

Aortic arch

Left primary bronchus

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33
Q

List the three structures that pass through the diaphragm.

A

Esophagus
Inferior vena cava
Aorta

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34
Q

What part of the upper GI tract is a common site for ulcer disease?

A

duodenal bulb or cap

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35
Q

What term describes the junction between the duodenum and jejunum?
(This is a significant reference point in small bowel studies.)

A

Duodenojejunal flexure (suspensory muscle of the duodenum or ligament of Treitz)

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36
Q

The C-loop of the duodenum and pancreas are _________ (intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal) structures.

A

Retroperitoneal ( or “behind peritoneum”)

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37
Q

The body of the stomach curves inferiorly and posteriorly from the fundus.

A

False

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38
Q

The three main subdivisions of the stomach are:

A

Fundus
Body
Pylorus

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39
Q

Another term for mucosal folds of the stomach is

A

Rugae

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40
Q

Name the two anatomic structures implicated in the phrase “romance of the abdomen”

A

Head of pancreas

C-loop of duodenum

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41
Q

Mechanical digestion includes movements of the entire gastroinestinal tract.

A

True

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42
Q

Peristaltic activity is not found in which of the following structures?

A

Pharynx

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43
Q

Stomach contents are churned into a semifluid mass called

A

Chyme

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44
Q

A churning or mixing activity present in the small bowel is called

A

Rhythmic segmentation

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45
Q

List the three classes of substances that are ingested and must be chemically digested.

A

Carbohydrates
Proteins
Lipids (fats)

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46
Q

Biologic catalysts that speed up the process of digestion are called

A

Enzymes

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47
Q

List the end products of digestion for the following classes of food:

A

Carbohydrates: Simple sugars
Lipids: fatty acids and glycerol
Proteins: amino acids

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48
Q

What is the name of the liquid substance that aids in digestion and is manufactured in the liver and stored in the gallbladder?

A

Bile

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49
Q

How does bile assist in emulsification in fat?

A

Large fat droplets are broken down to small fat droplets, which have greater surface area ( to volume) and give enzymes greater access for the breakdown of lipids

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50
Q

Absorption of nutrients primarily takes place in the __________, although some substances are absorbed through the lining of the ______________.

A

Small intestine

Stomach

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51
Q

Of the three primary food substances (carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins), the digestion of which begins in the mouth?

A

Carbohydrates

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52
Q

Any residues of digestion or unabsorbed digestive products are eliminated from the ________ as a component of feces.

A

Large intestine

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53
Q

Peristalsis is an example of which type of digestion?

A

Mechanical

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54
Q

Which term describes food once it is mixed with gastric secretions in the stomach?

A

Chyme

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55
Q

A high and transverse stomach would be found in a _____________ patient.

A

Hypersthenic

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56
Q

A J-shaped stomach that is more vertical and lower in the abdomen with the duodenal bulb at the level of L3-L4 would be found in a _____________ patient.

A

Hyposthenic/Asthenic

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57
Q

On the average, how much will abdominal organs drop in the erect position?

A

1 to 2 inches

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58
Q

Name the two abdominal organs most dramatically affected, in relation to location, by body habitus:

A

Stomach

Gallbladder

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59
Q

Would the fundus of the stomach be more superior or more inferior when one takes in a deep breath and why?

A

Inferior because of its proximity to the diaphragm

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60
Q

Anatomic Sites

  1. Oral cavity
  2. Pharynx
  3. Esophagus
  4. Stomach
  5. Small intestine
A
  1. Mastication and Deglutition
  2. Deglutition
  3. Deglutition and Peristalsis
  4. Peristalsis and Mixing
  5. Peristalsis and Rhythmic segmentation
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61
Q

With the use of digital fluoroscopy, the number of postfluoroscopy radiographs ordered has greatly diminished.

A

True

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62
Q

Another term for a negative contrast medium is

A

Radiolucent contrast medium

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63
Q

What substance is most commonly ingested to produce carbon dioxide gas as a negative contrast medium for gastrointestinal studies?

A

Calcium or magnesium citrate

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64
Q

What is the most common form of positive contrast medium used for studies of the gastrointestinal system?

A

Barium sulfate

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65
Q

Is a mixture of barium sulfate a suspension or a solution?

A

Suspension (colloidal)

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66
Q

Barium sulfate never dissolves in water.

A

True

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67
Q

Certain salts of barium are poisonous to humans, so barium contrast studies require a pure sulfate salt of barium for human consumption during GI studies.

A

True

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68
Q

What is the ratio of water to barium for a thin mixture of barium sulfate?

A

One part water to one part barium sulfate (1:1) ratio

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69
Q

What is the chemical symbol for barium sulfate?

A

Ba So4

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70
Q

When is the use of barium sulfate contraindicated?

A

When the mixture may escape into the peritoneal cavity.

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71
Q

What patient condition prevents the use of a water soluble contrast medium for an upper GI?

A

Sensitivity to iodine

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72
Q

What is the major advantage for using a double-contrast medium technique for esophragrams and upper GIs?

A

Better coating and visibility of the mucosa. polyps, diverticula, and ulcers, are better demonstrated.

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73
Q

The speed with which barium sulfate passes through the GI tract is called gastric

A

motility

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74
Q

What is the purpose of the gas with a double-contrast media technique?

A

It forces the barium sulfate against the mucosa for better coating

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75
Q

Which of the following devices on a digital fluoroscopy system converts the analog into a digital signal?

A

CCD

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76
Q

What device (found beneath the radiographic table when correctly positioned) greatly reduces exposure to the technologist from the fluoroscopic x-ray tube?

A

Bucky slot shield

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77
Q

How is the bucky activated or placed in its correct position for fluoroscopy?

A

By moving the bucky tray all the way to the end of the table

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78
Q

What is the minimum level of protective apron worn during fluoroscopy?

A

0.5 mm Pb/Eq apron

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79
Q

What is the major benefit of using a compression paddle during an upper GI study?

A

Reduces exposure to arms and hands or radiologist

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80
Q

During an upper GI fluroscopy procedure, if the technologist stands directly beside the radiologist next to the patient’s head and shoulders, how much radiation would the technologist receive to the lead apron at waist level during each fluoroscopic exam if the radiologist averaged 5 minutes of fluoroscopy exposure per patient?

A

7-3. 3x5=8.5-16.5 mrad

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81
Q

List the three cardinal principles of radiation protection:

A

Time, Distance, Shielding

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82
Q

Which one of the three cardinal principles is most effective in reducing exposure to the technologist during a fluroscopic procedure?

A

Distance

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83
Q

List the four advantages or unique features and capabilities of digital fluoroscopy over conventional fluoroscopic recording systems:

A

Optimal postfluoroscopy overhead images
multiple frames formatting and multiple original images
cine loop capability
image enhancement and manipulation

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84
Q

What capability on most digital fluooscopy systems demonstrates dynamic flow of contrast media through the GI tract?

A

Cine loop capability

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85
Q

Difficulty in swallowing

A

Dysphagia

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86
Q

Replacement of normal squamous eithelium with columnar epithelium

A

Barrett’s esophagus

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87
Q

May lead to esophagitis

A

GERD

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88
Q

May be secondary to cirrhosis of the liver

A

Esophageal varices

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89
Q

Large outpouching of the esophagus

A

Zenker’s diverticulum

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90
Q

Also called cardiospasm

A

Achalasia

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91
Q

Most common form is adenocarcinoma

A

Cardinoma of esophagus

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92
Q

Blood in vomit

A

Hematemesis

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93
Q

Inflammation of lining of stomach

A

Gastritis

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94
Q

Blind outpouching of the mucousal wall

A

Diverticula

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95
Q

Undigested material trapped in stomach

A

Bezoar

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96
Q

Synonymous with gastric or duodenal ulcer

A

Peptic ulcer

97
Q

Portion of stomach protruding through the diaphragmatic opening

A

Hiatal hernia

98
Q

Only 5% of ulcers lead to this condition

A

Perforating ulcer

99
Q

Double contrast upper GI is recommended for this type of tumor

A

Gastric carcinoma

100
Q

Its presence indicates a possible sliding hiatal hernia

A

Schatzki ring

101
Q

Speckled appearance of gastric mucus

A

Gastritis

102
Q

“Wormlike” appearance of esophagus

A

Esophageal varices

103
Q

Stricture of esophagusiatal hernia

A

Acalasia

104
Q

Gastric bubble above diaphragm

A

Hiatal hernia

105
Q

Irregular filling defect within stomach

A

Gastric carcinoma

106
Q

Enlarged recess in proximal esophagus

A

Zenker’s diverticulum

107
Q

“Lucent-halo” sign during upper GI

A

Ulcers

108
Q

Which procedure is often performed to detect early signs of GERD?

A

endoscopy

109
Q

Which specific structure of the gastrointestinal system is affected by HPS?

A

Antral muscle at the orifice of the pylorus

110
Q

Which imaging modality is most effective in diagnosing HPS while reducing dose to the patient?

A

ultrasound (sonography)

111
Q

What does the acronym NPO stand for, and what does it mean?

A

literally stands for non per os a latin phrase that means “nothing by mouth”

112
Q

The patient must be NPO 4 to 6 hours before n esophagram

A

False

113
Q

The esophagogram usually begins with fluoroscopy with the patient in the erect position.

A

True

114
Q

What materials may be used for swallowing to aid in the diagnosis of radiolucent foreign bodies in the esophagus?

A

Barium soaked cotton balls, barium pills, or marshmallows followed by thin barium

115
Q

List the four radiographic tests that may be performed to detect signs of GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease):

A

Breathing excercises
water test
compressure (paddle) technique
toe touch maneuver

116
Q

A breathing technique in which the patient takes in a deep breath and bears down is called the

A

Valsalva maneuver

117
Q

What position is the patient usually placed in during the water test?

A

LPO (slight)

118
Q

Which region of the GI tract is better visualized when the radiologist uses a compression paddle during an esophagram?

A

Esophagogastric junction

119
Q

What type of contrast medium should be used if the patient has a history of bowel perforation?

A

Oral, water soluable, iodinated contrast media

120
Q

What is the minimum amount of time that the patient should be NPO before an upper GI?

A

8 hours

121
Q

Why should cigarette use and gum chewing be restricted before an upper GI?

A

Both activities tend to increase gastric secretion

122
Q

Why should the technologist review the patient’s chart before the beginning of an upper GI?

A

To identify any known allergies
To ensure that the proper study has been ordered
To look for pertinent clinical history

123
Q

In which hand does the patient usually hold the barium cup during the start of an upper GI?

A

left hand

124
Q 
List the suggested dosages of barium sulfate during an upper GI for each of the following pediatric age groups:
Newborn to 1 year:
1 to 3 years:
3 to 10 years:
More than 10 years:
A

Newborn to 1 year: 2-4 ounces
1 to 3 years: 4-6 ounces
3 to 10 years: 6-12 ounces
More than 10 years: 12-16 ounces

125
Q

What type of fluoroscopy generator is recommended for pediatric procedures?

A

Pulsed grid controlled fluoroscopy ( to reduce does for all patients, but especially children)

126
Q

Which one of the following modalities is an alternative to an esophagram in detecting esophageal varices?

A

Endoscopy

127
Q

Gastric emptying studies are performed using:

A

Radionuclides

128
Q

Why is the RAO preferred over the LAO for an esophogram?

A

Places the esophagus between the vertebral column and heart.

129
Q

How much rotation of the body should be used for the RAO projection of the esophagus?

A

35 to 40 degrees

130
Q

Which optional position should be performed to demonstrate the upper esophagus located between the shoulders?

A

Optional swimmers lateral

131
Q

The three most common routine projections for an esophagram are:

A

RAO
Left Lateral
AP

132
Q

Which aspect of the GI tract is best demonstrated with an RAO position during an upper GI?

A

Pylorus of stomach and c-loop

133
Q

How much rotation of the body is required for the RAO position during an upper GI on a sthenic patient?

A

40 to 70 degrees

134
Q

What is the average kV range for an esophagram and upper GI when using barium sulfate (single contrast study)?

A

100 to 125 kV

135
Q

Which aspect of the upper GI tract will be filled with barium in the PA projection (prone position)?

A

Body and pylorus of stomach and C-Loop

136
Q

What is the purpose of the PA axial projection for the hypersthenic patient during an upper GI?

A

To prevent superimposition of the pylorus over the duodenal bulb and better visualize the lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach.

137
Q

What CR angle is required for the PA axial projection for a hypersthenic patient during an upper GI?

A

35 to 45 degree cephalad

138
Q

Which projection taken during an upper GI will best demonstrate the retrogastric space?

A

Lateral

139
Q

What is the recommended kV range for a double contrast upper GI projection?

A

90 to 100 kV range

140
Q

The upper GI series usually begins with the tale and patient in the ______________position.

A

Upright (erect)

141
Q

The five most common routine projections for an upper GI series are (not counting a possible AP scout projection).

A

RAO, right lateral, AP, PA, LPO

142
Q

The major parts of the stomach on an average patient are usually confined to which abdominal quadrant?

A

Left upper quadrient

143
Q

Most of the duodenum is usually found to the _________(right or left) of the midline on a sthenic patient.

A

Right

144
Q

True or False: Respiration should be suspended during inspiration for upper GI radiographic projections.

A

False (expiration)

145
Q

A radiograph of an RAO projection taken during an esophagogram demonstrates incomplete filling of the esophagus with barium. What can the technologist do to ensure better filling of the esophagus during the repeat exposure?

A

When using thin barium, have the patient drink continuously during the exposure with thick barium, have the patient hold two or three spoonfuls in the mouth and make the exposure immediately after swallowing.

146
Q

A series of radiographs taken during an upper GI reveals that the stomach mucosa is not well visualized. The following factors were using during this positioning routine: high speed screens, Bucky, 40 inch SID, 80 kV, 30 mAs, and 300 mL of barium sulfate ingested during the procedure. Which exposure factor should be changed to produce a more diagnostic study?

A

When using barium sulfate as a contrast medium, 100 to 125 kV should be used to ensure proper penetration of the contrast filled stomach and visualize the mucosa 90-100 kV would be adequate for a double contrast study.

147
Q

A radiograph taken during an upper GI (double contrast) study reveals that the anatomic side marker is missing. The technologist is unsure whether it is a recumbent AP or PA projection. The fundus of the stomach is filled with barium. Which position does the radiograph represent?

A

AP because the fondus is more posterior than the body or pylorus, it will fill with barium when the patient is in a supine AP position.

148
Q

A radiograph of an RAO projection taken during an upper GI reveals that the duodenal bulb is not well demonstrated and not profiled. The RAO was a 45 degree oblique performed on a hypersthenic type of patient. What positioning modification needs to be made to produce a better image of the duodenal bulb?

A

With a hypersthenic patient, more rotation up t 70 degrees may be required to better profile the duodenal bulb (note the radiologist under fluoroscopic guidance will frequently move the patient as needed for the overhead oblique to best profile the duodenal region. Observe the degree of rotation of the body required to profile the stomach during fluoroscopy.

149
Q

A radiograph of an upper GI was taken, but the student technologist is unsure of the position. The radiograph demonstrates that the fundus is filled with barium, but the duodenal bulb is air filled and seen in profile. Which position does this radiograph represent?

A

The LPO position (recumbent) produces an image in which the fundus and body are filled with barium but the duodenal bulb is air filled.

150
Q

A patient with a clinical history of hiatal hernia comes to the radiology department. Which procedure should be performed on this patient to rule out this condition?

A

Upper GI series

151
Q

A patient with a possible lacerated duodenum enters the emergency room. The ER physician orders and upper GI to determine the extend of the injury. What type of contrast medium should be used for this examination?

A

An oral water soluble contrast media should be used for an Upper GI when ruptured viscus or bowel is suspected not barium sulfate.

152
Q

A patient with a fish bone stuck in his esophagus enters the emergency room. What modification to a standard esophagus may be needed to locate the foreign body?

A

With radiolucent foreign bodies in the esophagus, shredded cotton soaked in barium sulfate may be used to help locate it. But today most foreign body studies of the esophagus are located and removed through endoscopy.

153
Q

An upper GI is being performed on a thin, asthenic type patient. Because of room scheduling conflicts, this patient was brought into your room for the overhead follow up images following fluoroscopy. Where would you center the CR and the 30x35 cm (11x14 inch) image receptor to ensure that you included the stomach and duodenal regions?

A

Would center lower than usual, to the mid L3-L4 region or about 1 1/2 to 2 inches above the level of the iliac crest.

154
Q

A patient with a clinical history of a possible bezoar comes to the radiology department. What is a bezoar, and what radiographic study should be performed to demonstrate this condition?

A

A mass of undigested material that gets trapped in the stomach, a rare condition that can be diagnosed with an upper GI study.

155
Q

A radiograph of an RAO position taken during an esophagogram reveals that the esophagus is superimposed over the vertebral column. What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome? What must be altered to eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?

A

Under rotation of the body into the RAO position led to the esophagus being superimposed over the vertebral column. An increase in rotation of the body during the repeat exposure will separate the esophagus from the spine.

156
Q

A PA projection taken during an upper GI series performed on an infant reveals that the body and pylorus of the stomach are superimposed. What modification needs to be employed during the repeat exposure to separate these two regions?

A

Angle the CR 20-25 degrees cephalad to open up the body and pylorus of the stomach.

157
Q

A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of possible gastric diverticulum in the posterior aspect of the fundus. Which projection taken during the upper GI series best demonstrates this defect?

A

The lateral position best demonstrates a gastric diverticulum located in the posterior region of the stomach.

158
Q

A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of Barrett’s esophagus. In addition to an esophagogram, what other imaging modality is ideal in demonstrating this condition?

A

Nuclear medicine is an effective modality in detecting Barrett’s esophagus.

159
Q

A patient has a clinical history of hemochromatosis. Which imaging modality is most effective in diagnosing this condition?

A

Hemochromatosis is a condition of abnormal iron deposits in the liver parenchymus, MRI exposure will seperate the esophagus from the spine.

160
Q

The gallbladder is located in the ________margin of the liver?

A

Posterior inferior

161
Q

Which one of the following is not a recognized lobe of the liver?

caudate
quadrate
inferior
Left

A

Inferior

162
Q

In which quadrant is the liver located in the sthenic patient?

A

right upper quadrant

163
Q

What is the name of the soft tissue structure that divides the liver into left and right lobes?

A

faciform ligament

164
Q

What is the primary function of bile?

A

to break down or emulsify fat

165
Q

Which duct is formed by the union of the left and right hepatic ducts?

A

Common hepatic duct

166
Q

Which duct carries bile from the cystic duct to the duodenum?

A

Common bile duct

167
Q

What is the average capacity of the gallbladder?

A

30-40 ml

168
Q

Which process leads to concentration of bile within the gallbladder?

A

hydrolysis

169
Q

Which hormone leads to contraction of the gallbladder to release bile?

A

Cholecystokim (CCK)

170
Q

Pancreatic duct

A

Duct of wursung

171
Q

Fundus

A

Broadest portion of the gallbladder

172
Q

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

A

Enlarged chamber in distal aspect of common bile duct

173
Q

Spiral valve

A

Series of mucosal folds in cystic duct

174
Q

Hepatopancreatic Sphincter

A

Circular muscle fibers adjacent to duodenal papilla

175
Q

Duodenal papilla

A

A protrusion into the duodenum

176
Q

Cystic duct

A

Duct connected directly to gallbladder

177
Q

Neck

A

Narrowest portion of gallbladder

178
Q

Body

A

Middle Aspect of gallbladder

179
Q

Which of the following terms describes the condition of having gallstones?

A

Cholelithiasis

180
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the gastrointestinal system?

A

Production of hormones

181
Q

What is another term for esophagogram?

A

Barium swallow

182
Q

Which one of the following is not a salivary gland?

A

Vallecula

183
Q

What is the name of the condition that results from a viral infection of the parotid gland?

A

Mumps

184
Q

Which structure in the pharynx prevents aspiration of food and fluid into the larynx?

A

Epiglottis

185
Q

The esophagus extends from C5-C6:

A

T11

186
Q

Which one of the following structures does not pass through the diaphragm?

A

Trachea

187
Q

Wavelike involuntary contractions that help propel food down the esophagus are called

A

Peristalsis

188
Q

The Greek term gaster, or gastro, means

A

Stomach

189
Q

Which one of the following aspects of the stomach is defined as an indentation between the body and pylorus?

A

Angular Notch (incisura angularis)

190
Q

The numerous mucosal folds founds in the small bowel are called rugae.

A

False

191
Q

Which aspect of the stomach fills with air when the patient is prone?

A

Fundus

192
Q

The lateral margin of the stomach is called the lesser curvature?

A

False

193
Q

Which aspect of the stomach does barium gravitate to when the patient is in the supine position?

A

Fundus

194
Q

Which two structures create the “romance of the abdomen”?

A

Head of pancreas and C loop of duodenum

195
Q

Pyloric orifice

A

Opening leaving the stomach

196
Q

Cardiac notch

A

Found along superior aspect of fundus

197
Q

Fundus

A

Most posterior aspect of the stomach

198
Q

Fourth portion of duodenum

A

Ascending portion of duodenum

199
Q

Mucosal folds

A

Rugae

200
Q

Body

A

Middle aspect of stomach

201
Q

Esophgogastric junction

A

Opening between esophagus and stomach

202
Q

Angular notch

A

Indentation found along lesser curvature

203
Q

Third portion of duodenum

A

Horizontal portion of duodenum

204
Q

The act of chewing is termed:

A

Mastication

205
Q

Which term describes food once it enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric fluid?

A

Chyme

206
Q

the churning or mixing activity of chyme in the small intestine is called?

A

Rhythmic segmentation

207
Q

Which one of the following nutrients is not digested?

A

Vitamins

208
Q

A high and transverse stomach indicates a _________body type with the pyloric portion at the vertebral level of ________________.

A

Hyperstenic

T11-T12

209
Q

A _________ or ____________ type of body habitus usually has a low and vertical stomach with the pylorus portion of the stomach at the vertebral level of ________.

A

Hyposthenic or Asthenic

L3-L4

210
Q

What is the most common radiopaque contrast media used in the gastrointestinal system?

A

Barium Sulfate

211
Q

What type of radiolucent contrast medium is most commonly used for a double contrast gastrointestinal studies?

A

Carbon dioxide (calcium or magnesium citrate)

212
Q

What is the ratio of barium to water for a thick mixture of barium sulfat

A

3 to 4 parts of barium and 1 part of water

213
Q

When should a water soluble contrast medium be used during an upper GI rather than barium sulfate?

A

When there is a possibility that the contrast media may spill into the peritoneum

214
Q

Which one of the following conditions may prevent the use of water soluble contrast agents for a geriatric patient?

A

Dehydration

215
Q

Water soluble contrast agents pass through the gastointestinal tract faster than barium sulfate.

A

True

216
Q

Digital fluoroscopy does not require the use of image receptor cassettes.

A

True

217
Q

Which of the cardinal principles of radiation protection is most effective in reducing exposure to the technologists during fluoroscopy?

A

Distance

218
Q

Protective aprons of lead equivalency must be worn during fluoroscopy?

A

0.5 mm PB/Eq

219
Q

Which one of the following is the older term for GERD?

A

Esophageal reflux

220
Q

A large outpouching of the Upper esophagus is termed:

A

Zenker’s diverticulum

221
Q

A phytobezoar is:

A

Trapped vegetable fiber in the stomach

222
Q

What can be added to barium sulfate and swallowed to detect a radiolucent foreign body lodged in the esophagus?

A

Shredded cotton or Marshamallows

223
Q

What is the reason that the patient may be asked to swallow a mouthful of water drawn through a straw during the esophagus.

A

To detect signs of esophageal reflux (GERD)

224
Q

How much rotation of the body should be used for an RAO esophagogram projection?

A

35 to 40 degrees

225
Q

Why is an RAO position preferred rather than an LAO during an esophagogram?

A

Places the esophagus between the spine and the heart

226
Q

Why is the AP projection of the esophagus not a preferred projection for the esophagogram series?

A

A majority of the esophagus is superimposed over the spine and thus is not well visualized

227
Q

What criterion is used with ultrasound in determining whether a patient has HPS?

A

Antral muscle thickness exceeding 4 mm

228
Q

Other than the esophagogram, what other imaging modality is performed to diagnose Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Nuclear Medicine

229
Q

Which upper GI position best demonstrates a possible gastric diverticulum in the posterior wall of the fundus of the stomach?

A

Right lateral

230
Q

An upper GI series is performed on an asthenic patient. A radiograph of the RAO position reveals that the duodenal bulb and C loop are not in profile. The technologist rotated the patient 70 degrees. What modification of the position is required during the repeat exposure?

A

Reduce rotation of patient to 40 degrees for an asthenic patient.

231
Q

A radiograph taken during a double contrast upper GI demonstrates that the fundus is barium filled and that the body is air filled. This was either an AP or a PA radiograph, which needs to be repeated. Which specific position does this radiograph represent?

A

AP recumbent (supine) which means is revealed by the fundus being filled with barium.

232
Q

A patient with a clinical history of cirrhosis of the liver with acute GI bleeding comes to the radiology department. What may be the most likely reason that an esophagram was ordered for this patient?

A

To rule out esophageal Varices

233
Q

During an esophagram, the radiologist asks the patient to try to bear down as if having a bowel movement. What is the maneuver called, and why did the radiologist make such a request?

A

Valsava maneuver; to rule out reflux

234
Q

During an Upper GI, the radiologist reports that she sees a “lucent-halo” sign in the duodenum. What form of pathology did the radiologist observe?

A

Ulcer

235
Q

Which one of the following technical/positioning factors does not apply to a MD-Gastroview upper GI study?

A

125 kV

236
Q

A radiograph of an upper GI is not labeled correctly, and the technologist is unsure which position was performed. A double-contrast GI study was completed with all positions performed recumbent. The radiograph demonstrates barium in the fundus and air in the body and pylorus and duodenal bulb in profile. Which position was performed?

A

LPO

237
Q

Which one of the following shielding devices best reduces exposure to the lower torso of the fluoroscopist?

A

Bucky Shield

238
Q

During an esophagram, the radiologist remarks that Schatzki’s ring is present. Which condition or disease process is indicated by the presence of this radiographic sign?

A

Sliding Hiatel hernia

239
Q

A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of a possible trichobezoar. What is a trichobezoar and which radiographic procedure is best to diagnose it?

A

Mass of hair trapped in stomach; Upper GI series to diagnose

Chapter 14 (3 decks)

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