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ACSM Test > Workbook 1 > Flashcards

Workbook 1 Flashcards

1
Q

An individual bout of exercise; the bodies immediate response to an exercise bout

A

acute exercise

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2
Q

What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system?

A

ensure adequate blood flow throughout circulation to meet the metabolic demands of the tissues

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3
Q

which nervous system controls HR ?

A

sympathetic

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4
Q

two formulas for determining HR max? Which is most accurate?

A
  1. 220 - age

2. 208 x ( .7 x age in years ) * more accurate

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5
Q

Steady state HR

A
  • 2-3 minutes to reach at constant intensity

- the demands of the active tissues can be adequately met by the cardiovascular system

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6
Q

systolic blood pressure _____ during acute exercise. What about diastolic?

A

increases

- diastolic does not change significantly during exercise (may slightly decrease)

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7
Q

Receptors are responsible for what?

What are the 3 receptors?

A
  • modifying blood pressure
    1. baroreceptors
    2. chemoreceptors
    3. mechanoreceptors
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8
Q

What do each of the 3 receptors do?

A
  1. Baro: excited by stretch of vessel, alert brain
  2. Mechano: golgi tendon, stretch receptors
  3. Chemo: monitor O2 levels; chem. of blood
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9
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

Volume of blood pumped out of LEFT ventricle per contraction

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10
Q

SV = ___ - ____ ?

A

EDV - ESV (ml)

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11
Q

what is the major determinate of cardiorespiratory endurance capacity (VO2max) ?

A

stroke volume

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12
Q

4 factors that determine stroke volume

A
  1. volume of venous blood returned to heart [preload]
  2. ventricular dispensability
  3. ventricular contractility
  4. aortic or pulmonary artery pressure [afterload]
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13
Q

Stroke volume increases proportional to ___ ____

A

work rate (plateaus ~40-60% of VO2max)

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14
Q

End diastolic volume (EDV) is..

A

amount of blood before contraction

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15
Q

End systolic volume (ESV) is..

A

amount of blood left after contraction

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16
Q

epinephrine increase _____ force

A

contraction

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17
Q

why is stroke volume influenced by body position?

A

venous return to the heart; horizontal position has higher stroke volume because of gravity

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18
Q

stroke volume increases with acute exercise for what 3 reasons

A
  1. frank-starling mechanism
  2. sympathetic stimulation
  3. decreased peripheral resistance due to increased vasodilation to active muscles
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19
Q

what is the frank-starling mechanism?

A
  1. Increased volume of blood enters the ventricle (EDV)
  2. Ventricle stretches and
  3. Contracts with more force
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20
Q

what is cardiac output?

A

total volume of blood pumped by the LEFT ventricle per minute

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21
Q

Q (cardiac output) = __ x __

A

HR x SV (L/min)

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22
Q

Average resting Q ?

A

5L/min

total blood volume of typical adult is ~5L

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23
Q

Q increases with exercise intensity up to….

A

~ 20-40 L/min

8x more than resting value

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24
Q

3 functions of blood flow that are important for exercise

A
  1. transport oxygen
  2. temperature regulation
  3. acid-base balance
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25
Q

redistribution of blood flow is caused by the ______ response

A

sympathetic

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26
Q

3 parts of blood flow redistribution

A
  1. Blood flow into exercise muscles increases from 15-20% Q to 70-85 %Q
  2. Blood flow into the skin increases 5x resting values
  3. Blood flow to digestive system decreases from ~25% Q to 5% Q
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27
Q

_______ transport oxygen

A

hemoglobin

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28
Q

blood acidity ____ during exercise

A

increase [bicarbonate -baking soda- buffers acidity]

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29
Q

single best measurement of cardiorespiratory endurance and aerobic fitness?

A

VO2max

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30
Q

what is VO2 max?

A

rate of O2 and CO2 exchanged in the lungs;

rate of use & release by the body tissues

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31
Q

During submax exercise at a constant power output, VO2max increases from its resting value to a steady state value within …

A

2-3 minutes

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32
Q

During submit exercise increases in metabolism and VO2 are proportional with increases in…

A

work rate [exercise intensity]

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33
Q

During max exercise, VO2 max represents the max capacity for _____ _____ by the body during max exertion

A

oxygen consumption

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34
Q

VO2 max is expressed relative to what ? what are the units?

A

body weight

units: ml/kg/min

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35
Q

When does VO2max decline?

A

after age 25-30 by 1% per year

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36
Q

______ volume increases with increasing intensity of exercise

A

tidal

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37
Q

at _______ workloads, ventilation rate plateaus once steady state is achieved

A

constant

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38
Q

At _______ workloads, ventilation rate increases proportionally to work load until athlete reaches ventilatory threshold

A

increasing

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39
Q

what is tidal volume?

A

amount of air going in and out during regular breathing

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40
Q

what is ventilatory threshold?

A

when ventilation rate rises exponentially with increasing exercise workload/intensity because the body shifts from aerobic to anaerobic state

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41
Q

there is a spike in ______ rate at anaerobic state

A

respiration

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42
Q

Resting heart rate decreases ~1 bpm with each week of training. Why ?

A
  1. Increased parasympathetic (vagal) tone
    [[parasympathetic tone holds resting heart rate down to about 70-80 bpm; calming effect]]
  2. Increased stroke volume [amount of blood ejected by left ventricle]
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43
Q

What is submaximal HR ?

A

decreased HR for a given absolute exercise intensity (any intensity below max)

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44
Q

does max HR change as the body adapts to endurance training?

A

No - it is based on age and cannot change

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45
Q

How long do adaptations to aerobic exercise take normally

A

4-6 weeks

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46
Q

what is heart rate recovery?

A

time it takes the heart to return to its resting state after exercise

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47
Q

what increases the rate of recovery in HR ?

A

training

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48
Q

Recovery HR is a(n) _______ measurement of cardio fitness

A

indirect

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49
Q

HR recovery is prolonged by certain environments including:

A

heat, altitude

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50
Q

blood flow to active muscles is increased by an increase in what 4 things?

A
  1. capillarization and recruitment (body creates more to adapt)
  2. effective redistribution
  3. blood and plasma volume
  4. RBC volume and hemoglobin
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51
Q

blood viscosity decreases due to what ? What is the result?

A

increase in plasma volume (more water); improves blood flow and O2 delivery

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52
Q

Systolic BP reduces at ____ as well as during _____ exercise, but increases with _____ exercises as the heart is now stronger and able to generate greater pressure

A

rest; submaximal; maximal

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53
Q

BP decreases due to a decrease in ____ _____

A

blood viscosity

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54
Q

Chronic adaptations to aerobic exercise and the effects on oxygen transport

A
  1. increased EPO produced
  2. EPO stimulates RBC production
  3. RBC’s increase O2 transport
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55
Q

EPO is released by …

A

the kidneys HOLLA

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56
Q

what is the #1 factor affecting VO2?

A

Genetics

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57
Q

what is ventilation?

A

movement of air between the environment and the lungs via inhalation and exhalation

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58
Q

chronic adaptations to aerobic exercise result in what changes for ventilation?

A
  • little change at rest
  • Increase pulmonary ventilation during max exercise
  • strengthens primary and accessory respiratory muscles
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59
Q

an increase in pulmonary ventilation during max exercise is a result of what 2 things

A
  1. increased tidal volume

2. increase respiratory rate

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60
Q

what is the valsalva maneuver ?

A

breathing technique where air is trapped in the lungs against a closed glottis, increasing abdominal pressure

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61
Q

what does the valsalva maneuver result in ?

A
  1. decreased venous return
  2. Increased pressure in chest cavity
  3. Dizziness and fainting
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62
Q

are blood pressure responses greater during the concentric phase or eccentric phase?

A

concentric (shortening of muscle)

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63
Q

what is orthostatic hypotension?

A

aka postural hypotension

- decrease in blood pressure when standing up

64
Q

nutrients from foods are the substrates for metabolism and are provided/stored as:

A

carbohydrates, fats, proteins

65
Q

the energy we derive from food is stored in the cells in the form of what

A

ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

66
Q

immediate source of energy for most body function including muscle contraction:

A

ATP

67
Q

ATP is generated through 3 energy systems. What are they?

A
  1. ATP-PCr system
  2. Glycolytic system
  3. Oxidative system
68
Q

Explain the ATP-PCr system

A
  • cells store small amounts of ATP and phosphocreatine (PCr) which is broken down to regenerate ATP
  • release of ATP from PCr is done by enzyme creatine kinase
  • anaerobic process (no oxygen required)
  • ATP-PCr supply muscle energy needs for 3-15 sec during sprint
69
Q

Explain the Glycolytic system

A

10 to 12 enzymatic reactions break down glycogen into lactic acid, producing ATP
- anaerobic process

70
Q

ATP-PCr and the glycolytic system combined provide the energy for

A

2 minutes of all-out activity

71
Q

In anaerobic systems:
1 mole of glycogen produces ___ moles ATP.
1 mole of glucose produces ___ moles ATP.

A
  • 3 moles

- 2 moles

72
Q

Describe the oxidative system

A
  • uses oxygen to generate ATP (aerobic)
  • production occurs in mitochondria
  • Produces more ATP than anaerobic systems
  • Slow to turn on (2-3 min.)
  • primary method of energy production in endurance events
  • Includes Krebs cycle and ETC
73
Q

In aerobic system:

1 molecule glycogen can generate _____ molecules of ATP

A

37-39 molecules

Krebs and ETC combined

74
Q

what system provides ATP for an 800 m sprint?

A

glycolytic (2 min exercise)

75
Q

what is the RER ?

A
  • respiratory exchange ratio

- ratio between CO2 released (VCO2) and oxygen consumed (VO2)

76
Q

What is the equation for determining RER?

A

RER = VCO2 / VO2

77
Q

What does the RER reveal?

A

what primary substrate our body is using for energy production

78
Q

RER at rest = ____
RER oxidation of fat = _____
RER oxidation of carbohydrate = ______

A
  1. 80 (70% fat, 30% carb usage)
  2. 70
  3. 0
79
Q

energy expenditure is expressed in what 3 ways

A
  1. METs (metabolic equivalent)
  2. VO2
  3. Kilocalories
80
Q

amount of energy expended during 1 minute of seated rest

A

1 MET

81
Q

1 MET = VO2 of ____ ml O2/kg/min

A

3.5

82
Q

1 MET = ____ kcal/min for a 70 kg individual

A

1.2

83
Q

skeletal muscles are _____, controlled by the _____ nervous system

A

voluntary

somatic

84
Q

the sarcomere of a muscle contains the ______ elements between each pair of _____

A

contractile; z-disks

85
Q

ends of these muscles pull toward each other in the Y direction

A

longitudinal/parallel muscles

biceps femoris, brachii, sartorius

86
Q

these types of muscles pull in the x and y directions

A 
pennate muscles
(rectus femoris, deltoid)
87
Q

the greater the angle of pennation, the _____ force produced by the muscle

A

less

88
Q

in pennate muscles there are more ______ so angle of pennation may not make a difference in force production

A

fibers/area

89
Q

Slow twitch (TYPE 1) muscle fibers

A
  • efficient at using oxygen to generate ATP for continuous, extended muscle contractions over a long time
  • fire slower than fast twitch and can go for a long time before they fatigue
  • great for marathons and cycling for hours
90
Q

Fast Twitch (TYPE 2) muscle fibers

A
  • Use anaerobic metabolism to create fuel
  • Better at generating short bursts of strength/speed
  • Fatigue more quickly
  • Produce the same amount of force but get their name because they fire more rapidly
  • Asset to a sprinter [quickly generate a lot of force]
91
Q

3 types of type 2 fast twitch fibers

A

type IIa - fast oxidative/glycolytic (FOG)
type IIx - fast glycolytic (FG) (lifting)*
type Iic - limited information/unknown

92
Q

percentage of each of the 3 types of fast twitch fibers depends on what ?

A

muscles, individuals, training

93
Q

proportion of type I and type II fibers in a persons arm and leg muscles are usually similar

A

true

94
Q

type 1 vs. type 2a

A

type 1: long runs

type 2a: shorter runs

95
Q

what is the SAID principle?

A

Specific
Adaptations to
Imposed
Demands

96
Q

Early gains in strength appear to be influenced by _____ factors

A

neural

97
Q

Long term gains are largely the result of _______

A

hypertrophy

98
Q

what is hypertrophy?

A

net increase in muscle protein synthesis (increase in size of fiber)

99
Q

strength gains are facilitated by…

A

post-exercise nutrition (protein)

100
Q

testosterone plays a role in promoting _____ ______

A

muscle growth

101
Q

acute muscle soreness

A

occurs immediately after exercise
accumulation of end products in muscles (edema)
disappears minutes/hours after exercise

102
Q

DOMS [delayed onset muscle soreness]

A

soreness felt 12-48 hrs after exercise

primarily from eccentric muscle activity (downhill running, eccentric weight training) but can be caused from concentric

103
Q

6 causes of muscle fatigue

A
  1. energy depletion (3 systems, diet)
  2. Accumulation of H+ which decreases pH
  3. Failure of muscle fiber contractile mechanism
  4. Muscle fiber type
  5. Alterations in nervous system
  6. Fitness level
104
Q

explain the accumulation of hydrogen and decrease of pH

A

cell produce H+ which increases acidity (below 6.4 pH. muscles shut down to shut down mitochondria because of increased acidity)

105
Q

intrinsic properties of cardiac muscle

A
  • contain intercalated disks (assist in rapid transport of action potentials)
  • heart conduction system: SA Node -> AV node -> AV bundle (bundle of his) -> Purkinje fibers
  • the SA node is the bodies natural pacemaker
106
Q

extrinsic properties of cardiac muscle

A
  • chronotropic effect [autonomic nervous system]

- inotropic effect [strength of contraction; influence of frank-starling mechanism]

107
Q

organic component of bone:

A

35% collagen, slightly flexible

108
Q

inorganic component of bone:

A

65% calcium phosphate, hard

109
Q

2 types of bone tissue

A
  1. compact [cortical] 80% of body’s bone; hard, dense

2. Spongy [cancellous] 20% of the body’s bone [end of bone]

110
Q

Explain longitudinal growth of bone

A
  • takes place at epiphyseal plates (epiphysis at end of bone)
  • plates produce new cells on disphyseal side of bone ages 18-25
111
Q

explain circumferential growth of bone

A

internal layers of periosteum lay down concentric layers of bone [cells: osteon]

112
Q

what is bone resorption?

A

occurs around medullary cavity; osteoclasts resorb bone osteoblasts make new bone
*density decreases with age because decrease in osteoblasts and increase in osteoclasts

113
Q

what is wolf’s law ?

A

a bone grows or remodels in response to forces or demands placed upon it

114
Q

Basic internal mechanics suggest that the body is like a lever-polly-fulcrum system. How so ?

A

Bones: levers
Muscle: pulley
joint: fulcrum
*1st, 2nd, 3rd class lever arrangement

115
Q

First class levers in the body

A
  • E __ F __ L (see-saw)
  • best for balance
  • triceps, occipito-atlanto joint (head balance on spine)
116
Q

Second class levers in the body

A
  • F ____ L ____ E
  • best for power
  • foot during plantarflexion
117
Q

Third class levers in the body

A
  • F ___ E ___ L
  • best for ROM
  • most joints in the body
118
Q

force = ?

A

mass x acceleration

119
Q

Newtons 3 laws

A
  1. Law of inertia: movement will not change without opposition (no force, no movement)
  2. Law of acceleration
  3. Law of action-reaction: any force creates an equal and opposite counter force; GRF (ground reaction force)
120
Q

explain newtons 2nd law of motion:

A

Law of acceleration

  1. force is positively related to acceleration and mass
  2. acceleration is proportional to force and inversely proportional to mass
  3. acceleration is the rate of change of velocity
    * faster velocity = more force
121
Q

forces affecting movement when walking, jogging, and sprinting

A

walking: 1.5x body weight
jogging: 2x body weight
sprinting: 2.5x body weight

122
Q

explain GRF

A

ground reaction force

- Force exerted by the ground on a body in contact with it. (equal and opposite counter force)

123
Q

friction is proportional to what?

A

the force pushing two surfaces together

124
Q

what mostly affects friction force?

A

type of surface of the object (rough vs smooth)

125
Q

what is greater, static or dynamic friction?

A

static friction (force which sets object in motion, dynamic keeps it going)

126
Q

this occurs when greater forces are generated at slower velocities

A

contraction velocity (force-velocity relationship)

127
Q

Which contractions produce greater forces, eccentric or concentric ?

A

eccentric (lengthening)

128
Q

the muscle tendon produces the most force at what angle of insertion into the bone?

A

90 degrees

129
Q

there is an inverse relationship between force and velocity. what does this mean?

A

increase in force results in decrease in velocity

130
Q

the ability to control one’s equilibrium

A

balance

131
Q

resistance to movement

A

stability

132
Q

6 ways to improve stability (resistance to movement)

A
  1. increase body mass
  2. increase friction
  3. increase size of support base
  4. COG near edge of support base toward oncoming force
  5. COG in middle of support base if not force
  6. COG low as possible
133
Q

COM vs COG ?

A

COM = base of support; body’s mass is equally distributed
COG = balance point; where force of gravity acts on body
**often treated as same point

134
Q

Components of the stance phase

A

60% of gait cycle

  1. Initial contact
  2. Mid-stance
  3. Late-stance (active propulsion)
  4. Pre-swing (passive propulsion)
135
Q

Components of the swing phase

A

40% of gait cycle

  1. Initial swing
  2. Mid-swing
  3. Terminal swing
136
Q

What is the ACSM guideline for setting proper seat height for the cycle tests?

A

Adjust seat height so subjects knee is flexed 5 degrees with foot in downward position

137
Q

What are the 4 professionally guided pre-activity screenings

A
  1. PAR-Q (participant activity readiness questionnaire)
  2. health history questionnaire
  3. Medical history
  4. Informed consent
138
Q

What are the 8 positive risk factors?

A
  1. Age
  2. Family history
  3. Cigarette Smoking
  4. Sedentary lifestyle
  5. Obesity
  6. Hypertension
  7. Dyslipidemia
  8. Prediabetes
139
Q

What is the positive risk factor?

A

high HDL cholesterol

140
Q

progressive loss of elasticity of the arteries that occurs throughout the lifespan

A

arteriosclerosis

141
Q

form of arteriosclerosis characterized by the accumulation of plaque and lesions on/within intimate of arterial wall

A

atherosclerosis

142
Q

explain the atherosclerotic process

A
  1. Endothelium is injured and growth factors are released
  2. Monocytes attach to endothelium
  3. Migrate to intima
  4. Take up cholesterol and form fatty streaks
  5. Platelets adhere to endothelium and growth factors are released
  6. Fibromuscular plaque is formed that narrows lumen
143
Q

What is myocardial ischemia?

A

myocardial oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply because there is insufficient blood flow to the myocardium

144
Q

what is the outcome of significant coronary atherosclerosis

A

angina pectoris

145
Q

what is angina pectoris?

A

discomfort in cheeks, jaw, neck, shoulder, upper back, chest

146
Q

what type of angina pectoris results from coronary vasospasm?

A

vasospastic/prinzmetal’s

147
Q

irreversible necrosis of the myocardium resulting from prolonged ischemia

A

acute myocardial infarction

148
Q

lifestyle factors associated with diabetes mellitus

A

diet, exercise (sedentary), obesity

149
Q

type 1 va type 2 diabetes

A

type 1: insulting dependent, body isn’t making it

type 2: adult onset, insulin resistant

150
Q

what is metabolic syndrome?

A

a condition where several cardiovascular disease risk factors are clustered together

151
Q

“alveoli enlarge with no elastic properties” this describes what pulmonary disease?

A

emphysema

152
Q

“narrow airways” describes what pulmonary disease?

A

asthma

153
Q

explain the steps of risk stratification?

A
  1. are they low moderate or high risk?
  2. do they need a medical exam prior to exercise?
  3. do they need diagnostic exercise testing prior to exam? (moderate vs. vigorous)
  4. does a physician need to be present? (max vs. sub max)
154
Q

risk factors: age

A

Men >45

Women >55

155
Q

risk factors: cigarette smoking

A

current, quit within 6 mo., environmental exposure

156
Q

risk factors: family history

A

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ACSM Test (2 decks)

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