Woo Flashcards

1
Q

What do osteocytes do? How are they connected to each other?

A

Osteocytes maintain the structure of the mineralised matrix and control short term release and deposition of Ca2+.
They are connected by gap junctions.

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2
Q

5 embryological derivatives of neural crest?

A

Adrenal medulla, Schwann cells, pia mater, aorticopulmonary septum, bronchial arches, skull bases, melanocytes

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3
Q

5 embryological derivatives of mesoderm?

A

Muscles, Connective tissue, cartilage, spleen, kidneys, adrenal cortex

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4
Q

Patient with severe HTN, headaches and an adrenal mass. What is it? What is it derived from? Pre-treatment? With family history?

A

Typical pheochromocytoma
Derived from chromaffin cells on adrenal medulla
Phenoxybenzamine
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2

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5
Q

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2 associated mutations?

A

RET proto-oncogene germ-line mutations:
Pheochromocytomas
Medullary thyroid cancer (malignant C cells)
Parathyroid hyperplasia (2A)/Mucosal neuromas (2B)

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6
Q

What is IL-4 responsible for?

A

B cell growth and isotype switching

Stimulates secretion of IgE and predisposes to type I sensitivity.

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7
Q

What produces IL-1? What is the function of IL-1?

A

Produced by macrophages

It activates naive TH0 lymphocytes and promotes their differentiation into TH1 and TH2

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8
Q

What is the function of IL-2?

A

Stimulates development of CD4+ T helper cells, CD8+ cytotoxic cells and B cells
Reduces tumour burden due to enhanced activity of NK cells

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9
Q

What produces IL-3? What is the function of IL-3?

A

Produced by T-helper cells

Stimulates growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells

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10
Q

What does activated Calcineurin do?

A

Activated Calcineurin dephosphorylates nuclear factor of activated T cells allowing NFAT to enter the nucleus, bind IL-2 stimulating growth and differentiation of T cells.

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11
Q

What drugs inhibit calcineurin activation?

A

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus

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12
Q

What is neurofibromin? Chromosome? How does it protect against cancer?

A

Neurofibromin is a TSG protein encoded by NF-1 gene on chromosome 17.
Neurofibromin is a key suppressor of Ras.

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13
Q

What are gram-positive rods with tumbling motility at room temperature on CSF microscopy?

A

Listeria monocytogenes - multiplies in cold temperatures
Often occurs in immune-compromised adults
Bacteria can access the bloodstream via contaminated foods such as unpasteurised milk, undercooked meats, unwashed raw vegetables.

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14
Q

6-month-old - Delayed developmental milestones and hypotonia
2 years old - Involuntary movements and demonstrates a tendency to aggressively bite his own lip and fingers
What is the condition? Pathophysiology?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is an X-linked recessive disorder.
Deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase that leads to increased degradation of guanine and hypoxanthine thus increasing phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate amidotransferase enzyme.

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15
Q

Thiazide diuretics - mechanism of action?

side effects?

A

Inhibit NaCl transporter in the distal tubule leading to increased excretion of Na + H2O.
Increases distal tubular Ca2+ reabsorption, causing hypercalcemia and hypocalciuria.

Acute kidney injury, hyperuricemia and acute gout, elevated glucose and cholesterol levels

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16
Q

Klinefelter syndrome? Major features?

A

Meiotic nondisjunction - 47,XXY

Major features:
Primary testicular failure - small, firm testes and infertility
Testosterone deficiency - eunuchoid body habitus
Tall stature, gynecomastia
Minimal facial and body hair
(Potential mild intellectual disability)

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17
Q

A child comes in with orbital hypertelorism, submucous cleft palate and bifid uvula. Additionally found to have right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis with a ventricular septal defect and overriding aorta.
What is the condition?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

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18
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome -
chromosome?
pathophysiology?
Signs?

A

Chromosome 22q11.2 microdeletion
Defective neural crest migration into 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches (thymus and parathyroid)

Hypocalcemia/HypoPTH
T cell deficiency (lack of thymus)
Abnormalities of heart great vessels and faces

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19
Q

The most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell children?

A

Salmonella then staph aureus and E.coli

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20
Q

L.M.W. Heparin - mechanism of action?

A

Bind to antithrombin III causing a conformational change inhibiting factor Xa and promoting anticoagulation

(enoxaparin)

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21
Q

Polyuria that resolves with the administration of desmopressin

A

Secondary to deficient vasopressin secretion (central diabetes insipidus)
The rise in urea reabsorption enhances the medullary osmotic gradient allowing the production of maximally produced urine.

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22
Q

How long after a vasectomy do patients have viable sperm?

A

Distal vas for 3 months and/or at least 20 ejaculations following
Sexual intercourse can be resumed within a week

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23
Q

Loop diuretics - mechanism of action?

Electrolyte abnormalities?

A

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl

Decreased potassium, alkalosis, decreased calcium

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24
Q

Thiazide diuretics - mechanism of action?

Electrolyte abnormalities?

A

Inhibits Na-Cl

Decreased sodium, decreased potassium, increased calcium

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25
Q

Sodium channel blockers (mineralocorticoids) - mechanism of action?
Electrolyte abnormalities?

A

Inhibits ENac

Increased potassium, acidosis

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26
Q

Beck’s Triad

A

Jugular venous distension
Hypotension
Diminished heart sounds

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27
Q

Causes of cardiac tamponade

A

Malignancy/radiation therapy
Infection (e.g. viral, TB, HIV)
Drugs - hydralazine, isoniazid
Connective tissue disease (SLE, RA)

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28
Q

Diagnosis of Pulsus paradoxus

A

ECG - low voltage QRS complexes

CXR - Enlarged water bottle shaped heart, clear lungs

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29
Q

Right sided hemianopia with macular sparing - cause?

Why is the macula spared?

A

Occlusion of posterior cerebral artery likely due to embolic event (A.Fib)
The macula is spared because collateral blood is supplied by MCA to the occipital pole.

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30
Q

A man has been singing loudly and playing the piano “nonstop” all day and night for a month. He claims that he is related to the President and hears voices saying he will be a famous entertainer. He tends to make inappropriate sexual advances and has a history of 9 psychiatric hospitalisations.
He heard voices commenting on his appearance and believes that secret cameras are monitoring him.

What is his condition? and other differentials?

A

Schizoaffective disorder
>2 weeks of delusions or hallucinations in the absence of prominent mood symptoms

Ddx: Major depressive disorder with psychotic features
Schizophrenia - >6 months requires functional decline

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31
Q

DSM V criteria for Schizoaffective disorder

A

Major depressive or manic episode
Lifetime hx of delusions or hallucinations for > 2 weeks in absence of episode
Mood episodes
Not due to substances

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32
Q

Clinical features of paranoid personality disorder

A

Believes they are being exploited and deceived
Interprets benign comments and events as threats
Bears grudges
Questions loyalty of their partner

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33
Q

What is a wide, fixed splitting of the second heart sound (S2)?

A

ASD and without surgical repair there will be irreversible changes in the pulmonary vessels

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34
Q

Hyperkeratotic, hyperpigmented plaques with classic “velvety” texture - condition? cause?

A

Acanthesis nigricans

Commonly due to insulin resistance

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35
Q

Toxin in certain mushrooms and mechanism of action?

A

Muscarine
Acts as a muscarinic agonist resulting in increase in parasympathetic nervous system activity
(Peripheral vasodilation, SM relaxation)

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36
Q

Patient came in with headache, fever and lethargy. An LP showed low glucose and increased protein. There was a transparent capsule on India Ink with a culture grown on Sabouraud. What is the condition? What is the treatment?

A

Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis
(Cryptococcal antigen indicated in CSF)
Initial treatment - Amphotericin B and flucytosine
Long term treatment - Fluconazole

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37
Q

3 day old has poor feeding, emesis and lethargy over 24 hours. He has been breastfeeding exclusively. Laparotomy shows fibrous bands seen extending from the cecum and right colon to retroperitoneal causing extrinsic compression of the duodenum.

A

Volvulus - midgut rotation around the superior mesenteric artery

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38
Q

Name 3 mitochondrial syndromes

A

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy –> bilateral vision loss
Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (maternal inheritance)
Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes

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39
Q

Treatment for anemia of CKD

A

Erythropoiesis stimulating agents
Associated with increased risk for thromboembolic events (e.g. vascular graft thrombosis, stroke) due to increased blood viscosity. May also develop HTN.

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40
Q

Hemophilia A, an X-linked recessive disorder

Due to a deficiency in coagulation factor VIII

A

Patient comes in with easy bruising and excessive bleeding

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41
Q

14 month old boy comes to clinic with failure to thrive and developmental delay.
At 12 months he could barely lift his head and can’t sit unsupported. He has still not started forming words.
Urine specimens contains large amounts orotic acid crystals.
Condition? Treatment?

A

Hereditary orotic aciduria occurs due to a defect in uridine 5’ monophosphate synthase.
Supplementation with Uridine would be beneficial.

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42
Q

DSM V criteria for narcolepsy

Associated features of narcolepsy

A

Recurrent lapses into sleep or naps (>=3 times/week for 3 months)
Also >=1 of the following:
Cataplexy - brief loss of muscle tone precipitated by strong emotion
Low CSF levels of hypocretin-1
Shortened REM sleep latency

Associated features:
Hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations
Sleep paralysis

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43
Q

11 month old boy brought in with irregular jerking movements. For the last 2 weeks, he looked pale and tired and he has been more fussy and less playful. Physical examination reveals spontaneous bursts of nonrhythmic conjugate eye movements in various directions. He also has myoclonus in his trunk and limbs and palpated a non tender immobile abdominal mass. No hepatosplenomegaly. CBC reveals anemia and urine positive for elevated catecholamine breakdown products.

Condition? Pathogenesis? Diagnostic findings?

A

Neuroblastoma

Pathogenesis -
Neural crest origin
Adrenal medulla

(Median age <2, periorbital ecchymoses, spinal cord compression from epidural invasion “dumbbell tumour”, opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome)

Diagnostic:
Elevated catecholamine metabolites
Small, round blue cells
N-myc gene amplification

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44
Q

Well-demarcated, hyper pigmented scaly rash on the hands, forearms and upper chest.
Condition?
Pathophysiology?
Clinical features?

A

Pellagra
Niacin deficiency due to lack of precursor vitamin for synthesis of NAD+ coenzyme.

Characterised by Dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia

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45
Q

Young boy comes in with paroxysmal breathlessness and wheezing unrelated to ingestion of aspirin, pulmonary infection, inhalation of irritants, stress and/or exercise.

Condition? Sputum findings?

A

Extrinsic allergic asthma

Classic sputum findings:
Eosinophils (recruited by IL5 secreted by Th2 helper)
Charcot-Leyden crystals

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46
Q

Pathogenesis of Wilson’s disease?

A

Autosomal recessive mutation of ATPTB causing hepatic copper accumulation and leak from damaged hepatocytes causing deposits in tissues.

Can cause cystic degeneration of putamen

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47
Q

Diagnosis of Wilson’s disease?

A

Decreased ceruloplasmin and increased urinary copper excretion
Kayser-Fleischer rings
Increased copper content on liver biopsy
Atrophy basal ganglia

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48
Q

Treatment of Wilson’s disease?

A

Chelators (D-penicillamine, trientine)

Zinc (interferes with copper absorption)

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49
Q

Silicosis findings and histology? increased risk? pathogenesis?

A

Calcification of the rim of hilar nodes (eggshell calcification)
Birefringent silica particles surrounded by fibrous tissues
Increased risk of TB
Impairs the macrophage effector arm of cell-mediated immunity

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50
Q

Medications that induce gynecomastia?

A

Estrogens - Direct stimulation of ductal epithelial hyperplasia
Antiandrogens (flutamide, bicolutamide) - Competitive inhibition of testosterone inhibitor
5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride) - decreased conversion of testosterone to DHT
Spironolactone
Ketoconazole
Cimetidine
Bicalutamide
Androgen-anabolic steroids

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51
Q

Mechanism of ether?

A

Ether can inactivate “enveloped” viruses

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52
Q

What is alkaptonuria? What causes it? Effect in adult life? Examination findings? Effect on urine?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder caused by deficiency of homogentistic acid into maleylacetoacetate (tyrosine metabolism)

Severe arthritis in adult life
Blue-black deposits in sclerae and ear cartilage

Turns black

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53
Q

What is flecainide? Mechanism? Where is it used?

A

Class IC anti-arrhythmic
Bind to fast Na+ channels (phase 0), prolonging QRS duration
Typically used to treat SVTs such as those caused by AF

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54
Q

Non lactose-fermenting, oxidase negative, motile gram-negative organism with capsule. Condition?

A

Salmonella

Vi antigen that protects it from opsonization and phagocytosis

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55
Q

Antibiotics effective against pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Piperacillin, ceftazidime, cefepime, gentamicin, ciprofloxacin, aztreonam, imipenem

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56
Q

28-year old woman gravida 3 para 3, severe left lower quadrant pain and vaginal bleeding. She has been permanently sterilised. Pregnancy test was positive and USS shows mass in the left adnexa adjacent to the ovary. Condition?
Uterine cutterage findings?

A

Ectopic pregnancy - fertilised ovum implants outside the uterus. (common side is ampulla of fallopian tube)

Dilated coiled endometrial glands and vascularised edematous stroma

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57
Q

60-year old woman gravida 3 para 3, severe left lower quadrant pain and vaginal bleeding. Condition?
Uterine cutterage findings?

A

Endometrial adenocarcinoma

Atypical endometrial cells, disorganised glands and multiple mitoses

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58
Q

Name 3 segmented viruses that can undergo reassortment

A

Rotavirus
Influenza A
Orthomyxovirus

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59
Q

What is negative predictive value? How do you calculate it?

A

The probability that a patient truly doesn’t have a disease when the patient receives a negative test result.
Number of true negatives/total number of negative tests

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60
Q

How to calculate absolute risk reductions?

A

ARR = Event rate (control) - Event rate (treatment)

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61
Q

What does bicuspid valve increase the risk of in the future?

A

Aortic stenosis in his 50s

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62
Q

Cause of epidural haemorrhage? Presentation? CT scan?

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery
Lucid interval followed by LOC
Biconvex hematoma

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63
Q

Cause of subdural hematoma? Presentation? CT scan?

A

Rupture of cortical bridging veins (Result of acceleration-deceleration injury)
Gradually worsening headache and slow decline in mental function
Crescent-shaped mass

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64
Q
22 year woman due to a 5-day history of nausea, constipation, and severe, poorly localised abdominal pain. She also has anxiety, difficulty concentrating, poor sleep quality and tingling of the limbs. She has also been restricting her diet to lose weight. 
Condition?
Expression? 
Pathogenesis? 
Treatment?
A

Acute intermittent prophyria
Autosomal dominant
Prophobilinogen deaminase deficiency

Treatment:
Infusion with heme, which down regulates hepatic aminolevulinate

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65
Q

5 common CGD infection organisms?

A
Catalase positive bacteria and fungi:
Staphyloccocus aureus
Pseudomonas cepacia*
Serratia marcescens
Nocardia
Aspergillus
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66
Q
7 year old boy has recurrent granulomatous skin infections and a prior episode of Aspergillus pneumonia. He has come to get a liver abscess drained. 
Condition? 
Pathogenesis? 
Diagnosis?
Susceptible infections?
A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Inactivating mutation affecting NADPH oxidase leads to impaired respiratory burst inhibits phagocytic intracellular killing

Measurement of neutrophil superoxide production:
DHR flow cytometry
Nitroblue tetrazolium testing - neutrophils DON’T turn blue

Catalase-positive

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67
Q

In atrial fibrillation, what is the most likely source of a thrombus in a thromboembolic event?

A

Left atrial appendage

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68
Q

22-year old student currently on bupropion says she still feels really down at times and has a very poor appetite (a pattern that preceded the medication).
Bupropion - mechanism of action? Contraindications?
What is the risk of increasing her bupropion dose?

A

Inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine.

Contraindicated in seizure disorders or patients with (or who have had) bulimia or anorexia nervosa

Seizures

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69
Q

26 year old woman came in due to acute onset diplopia. Significant hx for episodes of blurry vision in her right eye (deficits in colour vision and pain was worse with eye movement). Neurological exam revealed a mild right optic disk atrophy and a relative afferent of the left eye with right lateral gaze. Normal convergence in both eyes.

Condition? Indications? Mechanism causing diplopia?
Lhermitte sign?
Uhthoff phenomenon?

A

Multiple Sclerosis - autoimmune response directed at oligodendrocytes

Her diplopia and internuclear ophthalmoplegia along with her prior episodes of optic neuritis indicate her MS.
HLA-DRB1
ReduceHLd saltatory conduction

Electrical sensation in limbs or back

Symptom worsening with increasing temperature

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70
Q

72 year old woman with difficulty hearing. Her medical problems include HTN, heart failure and CKD. Examination shows moderate bilateral sensorineural hearing loss.
What medications may have contributed to this patients hearing impairment? Mechanism of the drug? Side effects?

A

Furosemide
Inhibit the Na/K/2Cl symporters in the ascending loop of Henle
Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia and hypocalcaemia

This is a risk in loop diuretics at higher doses in patients or patients with pre-existing chronic renal disease.

(Usually reversible)

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71
Q

Digoxin toxicity

A

Used in heart failure patients due to systolic dysfunction - slows ventricular rate during AF priimarily by increasing parasympathetic tone

Cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia, nausea, vomiting, confusing

Renally cleared

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72
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide - when is it used? side effects?

A

Used for treating HTN

Hypokalaemia, hyponatremia, hypomagnesemia and hypercalcemia

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73
Q

Ramipril - Mechanism of action? When is it used? Side effects?

A

ACE inhibitor that is used in HTN and beneficial in heart failure
Side effects include cough, hyperkalemia (less frequently - angioedema and anaphylactoid reactions)

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74
Q

Carvedilol - What is it? Side effects?

A

B blocker with alpha blocking activity.

Side effects include bradycardia, hypoglycaemia and fatigue.

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75
Q

Blood gas for chronic obstructive bronchitis

A

Long standing retention of CO2 - renal compensation and an increase in serum HCO3
ph - acidotic
CO2 - high
HCO3 - high

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76
Q

Blood gas for DKA

A

Decrease in HCO3 to neutralise
ph - acidotic
CO2 - low (hyperventilation/Kussmaul breathing)
HCO3 - low

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77
Q

Blood gas for diuretic overuse

A

Loss of hydrogen leads to alkalosis
ph - alkalosis
CO2 - high
HCO3 - high

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78
Q

Blood gas for heroin overdose

A

Hypoventilation leads to increase CO2
decrease ph
normal to mildly high HCO3

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79
Q

Blood gas for panic attack

A

Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis
ph - alkalosis
CO2 - low
HCO3 - slightly low

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80
Q

Diagnosis of Major depressive disorder

A
>=5 of the following lasting >=2 weeks:
Depressed mood
Loss of interest or pleasure
Change in appetite or weight
Insomnia or hypersomnia
Psychomotor retardation or agitation
Low energy 
Poor concentration or indecisiveness
Thoughts of worthlessness
Recurrent thoughts of death or suicide

No hx of mania or hypomania
Not due to substances

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81
Q

Latissimus dorsi -
Innervations?
Primary functions?

A

Thoracodorsal nerves

Extension, adduction and internal rotation of humerus

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82
Q

Deltoid -
Innervation?
Primary functions?

A

Axillary nerve

Abduction of the arm (it can be injured during sudden or forceful loading of the arms)

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83
Q

Infraspinatus -
Innervation?
Primary function?

A

Suprascapular nerve

External rotation of the arm

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84
Q

Trapezius -
Innervation?
Primary function?

A

Accessory nerve

Elevate, rotate and stabilise the scapula (injured in whiplash)

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85
Q

Triceps -
Innervation?
Primary function?

A

Radial nerve

Extension of the elbow

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86
Q

Thiazolidinediones -
mechanism of action?
effect?

A

Activate peroxisome-proliferator activated receptor-y (alters transcription of genes)
Decreased insulin resistance

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87
Q

What is responsible for the green color of pus and sputum in bacterial infections?

A

Neutrophil myeloperoxidase

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88
Q
Etanercept - 
Type of drug?
When is it used?
Mechanism?
Effect?
A

Tumour necrosis factor-alpha inhibitor
Added to methotrexate to treat moderate to severe RA
Fusion protein linking a soluble TNF-alpha receptor to the FC component of IgG1
Reduces the biological activity of TNF-alpha

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89
Q

Rituximab -
Type of drug?
Mechanism?
Used for?

A

Chimeric monoclonal antibody
Targets CD20 on the surface of B cells
Used to treat CD20+ non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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90
Q

Infliximab -
Type of drug?
Used for?

A

Chimeric monoclonal antibody targeted against TNF-a

Treatment of a number of an autoimmune diseases (RA and Crohn’s)

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91
Q

Certolizumab -
Type of drug?
Used for?

A

Pegylated humanised monoclonal antibody that targets TNF-a
It lacks Fc region
Used to treat autoimmune diseases

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92
Q

Imatinib -
Type of drug?
Used for?

A

Mesylate
Used to treat specific cancers such as Philadelphia chromosome-positive chronic myelogenous leukemia and kit-positive gastrointestinal stromal tumours

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93
Q

Malabsorption by coeliac disease - Vit D deficiency

Levels of serum calcium, serum phosphrus and serum PTH

A

Calcium - low
Phosphorus - low
PTH - high

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94
Q

Primary hyperPTH levels of:

serum calcium, serum phosphorus and serum PTH

A

Calcium - high
Phosphorus - low
PTH - high

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95
Q

HypoPTH levels of:

serum calcium, serum phosphorus and serum PTH

A

Calcium - low
Phosphorus - high
PTH - low

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96
Q

CKD levels of:

serum calcium, serum phosphorus and serum PTH

A

Calcium - low/normal
Phosphorus - high
PTH - high

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97
Q
Clostridium difficile colitis:
Risk factors
Pathogenesis
Clinical presentation
Diagnosis
Treatment
A

Recent abx, hospitalisation, PPI

Disruption of intestinal flora -> C diff overgrowth
Exotoxin cause mucosal inflammation/injury
Cytotoxin B induces the actin depolymerization leading to mucosal cell death, necrosis and pseudomembrane formation

Watery diarrhea, fulminant colitis/toxic megacolon

Stool PCR

Oral metronidazole or vancomycin

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98
Q

Candida -
Morphology?
Clinical syndromes?

A

Pseudohyphae with blastoconidia

Wide range of infections

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99
Q

Blastomyces -
Morphology?
Clinical syndrome?

A

Yeast with distinctive broad-based budding

Inhaled, can disseminate to skin and bone

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100
Q

Coccidioides -
Morphology?
Clinical syndrome?

A

Spherules with endospores

Transient pulmonary syndrome can process to meninges and bone (southwestern US - central california, arizona, new mexico and western texas))

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101
Q

Cryptococcus -
Morphology?
Mucicarmine stain?
Clinical syndrome?

A

Capsule (India ink stain)

Appears red

Meningitis among immunocompromised patients (advanced AIDS)

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102
Q

Histoplasma -
Morphology?
Clinical syndrome?

A

Small oval yeast with macrophages

Subclinical and can become invasive in immunocompromised patients (Mississippi and Ohio river valley)
Soil contaminated by bird or bat droppings

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103
Q

Facial pain, headache and black necrotic nasal eschae in DKA patient.
Condition?
Histology?
Treatment? Side effect?

A

Mucormycosis

Broad ribbon-like nonseptate hyphae with right-angle branching

Amphotericin B - binds ergosterol to form holes leading to cell death
Renal toxicity - check serum potassium and magnesium

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104
Q

Where is the most highly oxygenated blood in the fetus?

A

Umbilical vein that empties directly into the inferior vena cava via ductus venosus

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105
Q

ACE inhibitors -
Mechanism?
Used for?
Side effects?

A

Prevents the conversion of Ang I to Ang II.

Used for HTN, heart failure and renal failure

Hyperkalemia and cough

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106
Q
Metoprolol -
Type of drug?
Mechanism?
Used for?
Side effects?
A

Beta-blocker

Act upon the beta-1 receptors of juxtagolmerular cells to reduce renin secretion

Acute myocardial infarction

Bradycardia and erectile dysfunction

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107
Q

28 year old man with 2 month hx of dull low back pain and morning stiffness. No trauma and patient now must lie on his side to sleep. Physical exam shows limited anterior flexion of the spine. X-rays show narrowing of the sacroiliac joints.

Condition?
Epidemiology?
X-ray examination?
Test results?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis
Chronic inflammatory disorder of the sacroiliac joints and axial skeleton. Destruction of articular cartilage with resulting stiffness and fusion of axial joints.
Limited chest expansion and spinal mobility

Young and middle-aged men

X-rays show erosions, sclerosis, narrowing and fusion of the joint spaces. (bamboo spine)

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108
Q

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies?

Risk factors?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis
Reactive arthritis
Psoriatic arthritis
Arthritis associated with IBD

Higher incidence of the human leukocyte antigen B27

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109
Q

Formula for volume of distribution

A

Vd (L) = amount of drug given (mg)/ plasma conc of drug

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110
Q

Obstructive lung disease:
FEV1
FEV1/FVC
FVC

A

Decreased
Decreased
Normal to decreased

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111
Q

Restrictive lung disease (including obesity):
FEV1
FEV1/FVC
FVC

A

Decreased
Normal to increased
Decreased

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112
Q

Greek immigrant infant develops transfusion-dependent hemolytic anemia by the age of 6 months. His erythrocytes contains insoluble aggregates of hemoglobin subunits.
Condition?
Why was he normal in utero?

A

Patients with homozygotic B-thalassemia are asymptomatic at birth.

HbF contains y-globin instead B-globin. Switching to HbA production and the cessation of y-globin synthesis.

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113
Q
Several residents of a long-term care facility develop febrile illness. Symptoms include fever, nonproductive cough, myalgia, rigors, dyspnea and diarrhoea. Organisms are visualised easily on silver stain. 
Condition?
What is the source of the outbreak?
Lab findings?
Diagnosis?
A

Legionella pneumonia

Recent travel
Water supply in hospital/nursing home stay

Hyponatremia (due to the diarrhea)
Sputum gram stain (many neutrophils but few or no organisms)

Culture of organism on BCYE
Legionella urine antigen test

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114
Q

What chromosomal change are cri-du-chat syndrome (5p), DiGeorge syndrome (22q11) and Prader-Willi syndrome (15q) associated with?

A

Chromosomal deletions

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115
Q

What chromosomal change occurs to cause conditions such as Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome?

A

Imprinting

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116
Q

What chromosomal change occurs to cause disorders such as Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy and fragile X syndrome?

A

Trinucleotide repeat expansions

Anticipation

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117
Q

What can cause Wernicke encephalopathy is administered to thiamine-deficient patients?

A

Glucose (due to increased thiamine demand)

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118
Q

What enzymes in the citric acid cycle require thiamine as a cofactor?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

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119
Q

Within the first week of primary TB infection what infectious process occurs?

A

Intracellular bacterial proliferation

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120
Q

What is a facultative intracellular acid-fast bacillus that is transmitted via aerosolized droplet nuclei?

A

Mycobacterium TB

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121
Q

After a few weeks of primary TB infection what infectious process occurs?

A

CD4 lymphocytes are stimulated to release interferon-gamma which activated macrophages and leads to control on infection

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122
Q
13 month old boy brought in due to cough and increased work of breathing. He is tachypneic and has perioral cyanosis. CXR shows bilateral interstitial opacities. Previos medical hx shows recurrent hx of otitis media, pneumonia and thrush along with chronic diarrhoea and failure to thrive.
Condition?
Etiology?
Inheritance?
Second most common cause?
Treatment?
A

Severe combined immunodeficiency

Cytokine receptor defects
Gene defect leading to failure of T cell development
B cell dysfunction due to absent T cells
MHC class II deficiency

X-linked recessive
Autosomal recessive

*Adenosine deaminase deficiency (Treat - bone marrow transplantation but retroviral gene therapy is promising)

Sterile isolation
Stem cell treatment

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123
Q

What does western blotting identify?

A

Proteins

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124
Q

What does northern blotting identify?

A

Specific RNA sequences

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125
Q

What does southern blotting identify?

A

DNA sequences in unknown samples

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126
Q

What does southwestern blotting analyse?

A

DNA-binding proteins (bind specific olignucleotide probes)

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127
Q

15 year old boy being evaluated for poor exercise endurance. Tried weightlifting but his arms feel like jelly after a few repetitions. He also experiences severe muscle cramping and urine discolouration after intense straining. His tolerance is greatly improved if he drinks an oral glucose solution before hand.
Condition?
Which enzyme is deficient?

A
McArdle disease (glycogen storage disease type V)
Deficiency in myophosphorylase (isoenzyme of glycogen phosphorylase in muscle tissue)
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128
Q

What forms the blood brain barrier?

A

Tight junctions between nonfenestrated capillary endothelial cells.

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129
Q

What causes spinal muscular atrophy? Effect on infants?

A

Mutations in the SMN1 gene resulting in impaired assembly of snRNPs in lower motor neurons.
Infants often have flaccid paralysis due to degeneration of anterior horn cells in spinal cord.

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130
Q

Insulin-like growth factor-1 -
Where is it produced?
Function?

A

Produced in the liver in response to growth hormone

Functions as a mitogen and as an inhibitor of apoptosis

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131
Q

Somatostatin -
Where is produced?
Function?

A

Produced in the stomach, small bowel and pancreas

Inhibits the production and release of other GI hormones ie insulin.

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132
Q

Secretin -
Where is produced?
Function?

A

Produced in the duodenum in response to luminal acidity.
Stimulates the release of bicarb-rich secretions from the pancreas, gallbladder and duodenum. (also increases activity of CCK)

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133
Q

Cholecystokinin -
Where is produced?
Function?

A

Produced in the duodenum in response to fatty or protein rich meal.
Inhibits further gastric emptying, stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion and stimulation of bile production and gall bladder contraction

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134
Q

Glucagon like peptide 1 -

Where and why is produced?

A

Produced by the gut mucosa that stimulates insulin secretion in response to sugar containing meals

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135
Q

Where does majority of water reabsorption occur in the nephron?

A

Proximal tubule

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136
Q

5-year old boy being evaluated for cyanosis with minimal exertion. He has episodes where he turns blue that began in infancy and have gotten progressively worse. The boy squats during these episodes and says it makes him feel better. Family recently immigrated to the US. Examination reveals prominent ventricular impulse and harsh systolic murmur.
Condition?
Characterised by?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

1) Ventricular septal defect
2) Overriding aorta over the right and left ventricles
3) Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
4) Right ventricular hypertrophy

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137
Q

Number needed to treat definition

A

NNT=1/absolute risk increase

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138
Q

35 year old man comes into the office due to problems with irritability, anxiety and low self-esteem. He was recently fired due to poor work performance at his data entry job. His girlfriend has threatened to break up with him because he is always late and very forgetful. His problems are longstanding and date back to childhood issues in school. He frequently feels overwhelmed due to being disorganised. He procrastinates, is easily bored at work and jumps to another project before completing the one he is working on. He drinks 3-4 beers a week and smokes week twice a month. MSE reveals he he is talkative but appears tense, restless and easily distractible.
Condition?
Treatment?
Key transmitters?

A

Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder

Stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamines)
Behavioural therapy

Increased availability of norepinephrine and dopamine

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139
Q

Narcolepsy -
Definition?
DSM 5 criteria?

A

Recurrent lapses into sleep or napping multiple times within the same day, occurring at 3 times weekly for 3 months

At least 1:
Cataplexy - conscious, brief episodes of sudden bilateral muscle tone loss precipitated by emotions such as laughter or joking

Hypocretin-1 deficiency by CSF analysis

Rapid eye movement sleep latency < 15 minutes

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140
Q

Familial chylomicronemia syndrome Type I -
Protein defect?
Elevated lipoproteins?
Manifestations?

A

Lipoprotein lipase + ApoC-II

Chylomicrons

Acute pancreatitis
Lipemia retinalis
Eruptive skin xanthomas
Hepatosplenomegaly

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141
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia Type IIA -
Protein defect?
Elevated lipoproteins?
Manifestations?

A

LDL receptor + ApoB-100

LDL

Premature coronary artery disease
Corneal arcus
Tendon xanthomas
Xanthelasmas

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142
Q

Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia Type III -
Protein defect?
Elevated lipoproteins?
Manifestations?

A

ApoE

Chylomicrons and VLDL remnants

Premature coronary artery disease & peripheral vascular disease
Tuboeruptive and palmar xanthomas

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143
Q

Familial hypertriglyceridemia Type IV -
Protein defect?
Elevated lipoproteins?
Manifestations?

A

ApoA-V

VLDL

Increased pancreatitis risk

Associated with obesity & insulin resistance

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144
Q

Trauma/sustained pressure to the neck of the fibula -
What nerve will be injured?
Effect?

A

Common peroneal nerve

Weakness on foot dorsiflexion and eversion and impaired sensation over the lateral shin and dorsal foot and between first and second toes

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145
Q

Anterior compartment syndrome -
What nerve will be injured?
Effect?

A

Deep branch of the peroneal nerve

Impaired foot dorsiflexion and sensory loss between the first and second toes

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146
Q

Lateral compartment syndrome -
What nerve would be injured?
Effect?

A

Superficial branch of the peroneal nerve

Impaired foot eversion and sensory loss over the lateral shin and dorsum of the foot

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147
Q

Popliteal fossa injury -
Nerve damage?
Effect?

A

Tibial nerve

Weakness on foot plantarflexion
Foot inversion
Toe flexion

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148
Q

Causes of acquired QT prolongation

A

Electrolyte imbalances:
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesemia

Medications:
Class IA and III antiarrhythmics (quinidine, sotalol)
Antibiotics (macrolides, fluoroquinolones)
Methadone
Antipsychotics (haloperidol)

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149
Q

Sotalol -
What is it?
What is it used for?

A

Class III antiarrhythmic agent (K+ channel blocking)

Treat AF

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150
Q

20 year old man comes into the office for evaluation of a hand injury. He said a dog bit him. He recently started operating a dog fighting club and claims he is richer than a doctor. He has been fire repeatedly most recently due to getting into arguments and being consistently. He said that it was their fault and he could care less. During middle school, he spent time in juvie for tampering with a teachers brakes after failing a class.

Condition?
Differentials?

A

Antisocial personality disorder

Borderline personality disorder - exploitative behaviours related to abandonment fears
Conduct disorder - pattern of violating societal norms and rights of others (has to be under 18)
Narcissistic personality disorder - no pattern of violence or criminal activity

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151
Q

23 year old female immigrant from Cambodia with exertional dyspnea. Occasional dry cough, no chest pain, palpations or syncope. She had bilateral knee swelling as a child. On examination, a blowing, holosystolic murmur is heard over the cardiac apex.
Condition?
Type of murmur?

A

Rheumatic heart disease

Mitral regurgitation

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152
Q

Treatment of malaria?

A

Atovaquone and proguanil

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153
Q

Apart from brachial plexus, what other nerve is anaesthetised in inter scalene nerve block?

A

Phrenic nerve

Transient ipsolateral diaphragmatic paralysis

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154
Q

What is biggest risk factor to trigger spontaneous gas gangrene?

A

Colonic malignancy - creates portal of entry for bacteria

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155
Q

Spore-forming, exotoxin producing, gram positive organism.

A

Clostridium septicum

Most common cause for spontaneous gas gangrene

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156
Q
43 year old with advanced HIV is hospitalised with recent-onset headaches and personality changes. CT shows solitary mass within the temporal lobe. Biopsy reveals uniform cells Epstein-Barr virus genome.
Condition?
Epidemiology?
B cell markers?
Prognosis?
A

Primary CNS lymphoma
Most frequent CNS tumor in immunosuppressed patients

CD20 and CD79a

Poor prognosis

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157
Q

48 year old woman says her legs are like sticks while her belly is getting bigger. She is increasingly fatigued and has been living a residential care home facility for the last 12 months. She was diagnosed with HIV 2 years ago.
What drug is responsible for her body changes?

A

HAART medication

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158
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) -
Effect
Side effects

A

Lower LDL cholesterol

Myalgias and an increase in hepatic transaminase levels

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159
Q

Thiazide diuretics (chlorthalidone, hydrochlorothiazide) side effects

A

Hyperglycemia

Hypertriglyceridemia

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160
Q

45 year old man comes in for fatigue. Works in construction.
He has been unable to climb past the second floor of the building his company is renovating. He also is unable to do minor activities such as lifting his toolbox out of his car. He has been constipated and has decreased constipation. Physical examination shows an overweight male with conjunctival pallor and blue gums.

Condition?
Risk factors?
Lab findings?
Complications?

A

Lead poisoning

Occupational exposure (lead paint, batteries, ammunition, construction)

Anemia
Elevated venous lead level
Elevated serum zinc protoporphyrin
Basophilic stippling on peripheral smear

Encephalopathy 
Abdo pain
Decreased Vit D metabolism 
Interstitial nephritis
Anemia - due to inhibition of ferrochelatase and O-aminolevulinic acid dehydratase
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161
Q
Puffer fish - 
Toxin?
Effect on action potential?
Symptoms?
Treatment?
A

Tetrodotoxin

Binds to voltage-gated sodium channels preventing sodium influx and depolarisation

Dizziness, weakness, loss of reflexes, paresthiasias of the face, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea

Intestinal decontamination with gut lavage and charcoal

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162
Q

9 month old girl is at ED after a 2 minute generalised seizure. She has had a fever for the past 12 hours and has been very fussy. She takes no medications and has no allergies. Her temperature is 39.4
Examination shows no abnormalities and she is discharged
3 days later she is afebrile but develops a maculopapular rash on her trunk.
Condition?
Infectious cause?
Treatment?

A

Roseola infantum
HHV-6
(Under age 2)
Supportive care (the infection is self limiting)

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163
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant overdose clinical features:
CNS
CVS
Anticholinergic

A

Mental state changes (drowsiness, delirium, coma)
Seizures, respiratory depression

Sinus tachycardia, hypotension
Prolonged PR/QRS/QT intervals
Arrhythmias (VT and fibrillation)

Dry mouth, blurred vision, dilated pupils
Urinary retention, flushing, hyperthermia

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164
Q

Sodium bicarbonate -
What is it used to treat?
What does it do?

A

Cardiac toxicity

Increases serum pH and extracellular sodium

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165
Q

Formula for PPV

A

PPV = TP/(TP+FP)

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166
Q

Formula for NPV

A

NPV = TN/(TN+FN)

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167
Q

How do you reverse methotrexate toxicity in non cancerous cells?

What drug has the same intracelluar target as methotrexate?

A

Folinic acid (leucovorin)

trimethoprim

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168
Q
Hemochromatosis -
What is it?
Mutation?
How does iron accumulate?
Signs and symptoms?
Why do women present later?
A

Body absorbs excess iron
HFE protein

Detect falsely low levels that causes:
Enterocytes respond by increasing expression of divalent metal transporter 1, increasing iron absorption from the intestinal lumen.
Hepatocytes decrease hepcidin synthesis increasing ferroportin expression on the basolateral surface of enterocytes

Skin pigmentation, hepatomegaly, impaired glucose homeostasis, cardiac dysfunction, atypical arthritis, hypogonadism

Women present later due to premenopausal bleeding and pregnancy (they have protective effects)

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169
Q

Thickened bronchial walls, lymphocytic infiltration, mucous gland enlargement and patchy squamous metaplasia.
Leading cause?

A

Chronic bronchitis

Tobacco smoking leading cause of chronic bronchitis

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170
Q

4 day old girl has become too sleepy to feed and vomits. 2 normal siblings and a brother who does in infancy due to low blood sugar. P on AVPU. Urine testing reveals high levels of methylmalonic acid.

Condition?
Inheritance?
Why?
Lab testing?

A

Methylmalonic acidemia
Autosomal recessive

Due to complete or partial deficiency of enzyme methymalonyl-CoA mutase

Hyperammonemia, ketotic hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis

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171
Q

Yeast with thick polysaccharide capsule that causes opportunistic infections in immunosuppressed patients especially in AIDS.
Condition?
Where is found?
Where does it establish primary infection?
Stain?
Treatment?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

Bird droppings

Lungs

India ink stain

Amphotericin B and flucytosine
Fluconazole

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172
Q
43 year old woman has amenorrhea. They have been irregular for 2 years and LMP was 9 months ago. Lab results show an increase in serum prolactin level, a normal TSH level and an undetectable B-hCG conc. MRI reveals 6mm pituitary adenoma.
Condition?
Other symptoms?
In men?
Treatment?
Untreated risk?
A

Prolactinoma
Galactorrhea, estrogen deficiency (oligo/amenorrhea, decreased bone density, vaginal atrophy)

Infertility, decreased libido, impotence, gynecomastia

Dopamine agonist (cabergoline, bromocriptine)
Trans-sphenoidal

Loss of bone mass - hyperprolactinemia suppresses secretion of GnRH which leads to reduced estrogen.

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173
Q

Methemoglobinemia -

Effect on skin?

A

Dusky discolouration of the skin

Blood partial pressure of oxygen

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174
Q

Anthracyclines -
Mechanism of action?
Toxicity?

A

Binds with topoisomerase II to cleave DNA
Binds with iron to generate free radicals

Dilated cardiomyopathy

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175
Q

Bleomycin -
Mechanism of action?
Toxicity?

A

Induces free radical formation

Pulmonary fibrosis

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176
Q

Cisplatin -
Mechanism of action?
Toxicity?

A

Cross-links DNA to inhibit DNA synthesis

Nephrotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Peripheral neuropathy

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177
Q

Cyclophosphamide -
Mechanism of action?
Toxicity?

A

Cross links DNA to inhibit DNA synthesis

Hemorrhagic cystitis
Bladder cancer

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178
Q

Paclitaxel -
Mechanism of action?
Toxicity?

A

Inhibits microtubule disassembly

Neuropathy

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179
Q

Vincristine/Vinblastine -
Mechanism of action?
Toxicity?

A

Binds beta-tubulin to inhibit microtubule formation - M phase of the cell cycle

Neuropathy - finger numbness and tingling

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180
Q

A nuclear waste disposal plant suffers a containment failure and several grams of iodine-131 are released. A number of workers are believed to be exposed to dangerous levels. What should be immediately administered to help prevent tissue damage?

A

Potassium iodide

Prevent development of radiation-induced thyroid carcinoma

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181
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome -
Clinical features?
Treatment?
Hormonal abnormalities?

Fertility?

A

Androgen excess: hirsutism, acne, androgenic alopecia
Ovarian dysfunction: menstrual irregularity, PCOS
Insulin resistance: acanthosis nigricans, glucose intolerance/diabetes, metabolic syndrome
Obesity

Weight loss
Combination hormonal contraceptives
Metformin (if hyperglycemia/diabetes)

LH levels are elevated

Clomiphene - selective estrogen receptor modulator that prevents negative feedback inhibition of hypothalamus and pituitary

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182
Q

Vitamin E -
Function?
Effect of deficiency?
Clinical manifestations?

A

Protects fatty acids from oxidation

Deficiency predisposes cell membranes to oxidative injury

Neuromuscular disease - ataxia, impaired proprioception and vibratory sensation (skeletal myopathy, spinocerebellar ataxia, polyneuropathy) and hemolytic anemia
Associated with loss of proprioception and vibratory sense

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183
Q

Vitamin A deficiency -
Causes?
manifestation

A

Isufficient dietary intake, pancreatic insufficiency, cholestatic liver disease/biliary obstruction, intestinal malabsorption

Night blindness, dry eyes (xerophthalmia) and corneal softening (keratomalacia), growth retardation

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184
Q

Fetus develops severe anemia, heart failure, pleural effusions, pericardia effusions and ascites.
Organism?
Pathogenesis?

A

Parvovirus B19 - non enveloped single-stranded DNA virus

Temporarily halts EPO
Significant anemia in marrow stress (treatment is supportive)

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185
Q

5 year old girl is brought to the office by her mother because she is concerned that her daughter “sunburns too easily.” The patient’s skin becomes red and scaly with only minimal sun exposure. She first noticed the problem when her daughter was 7 months old during a trip to the beach. Her mother has avoided exposing her child to excess sunlight but is having a harder time doing that now. Physical exam shows thin and hyper pigmented skin. She also had a few nevi on her hands that have been enlarging.
Condition?
Inheritance?
Pathophysiology?

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum
A rare autosomal recessive disorder

Due to defective nucleotide excision repair of DNA damaged by UV light.
This leads to accumulation of abnormal pyrimidine nucleotides and other carcinogenic adducts.

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186
Q

Buprenorphine -

What is it?

A

Partial opioid agonist with high affinity and can prevent binding of other opioid medications.

Can precipitate withdrawal in opioid-tolerant patients

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187
Q

Losartan -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Levels of renin, ang I, ang II, aldosterone, bradykinin?

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

Competitively bind to Ang II receptors and block the effects on Ang II. This results in vascular smooth muscle relaxation and decreased aldosterone secretion.
This reduced BP. Because ACE function remains intact, the bradykinin levels are not significantly affected.

Renin - high
Ang I - high
Ang II - high
Aldosterone - low
Bradykinin - no change
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188
Q

Propranolol -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Levels of renin, ang I, ang II, aldosterone, bradykinin?

A

B1 adrenergic blockers

Inhibits release of renin from juxtaglomerular apparatus and thereby suppressing the entire renin-angiotensin cascade

Renin - low
Ang I - low
Ang II - low
Aldosterone - low 
Bradykinin - no change
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189
Q

Aliskiren -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Levels of renin, ang I, ang II, aldosterone, bradykinin?

A

Direct renin inhibitors

Reduce plasma renin activity

Renin - high
Ang I - low
Ang II - low
Aldosterone - low
Bradykinin - no change
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190
Q

Spironolactone -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Levels of renin, ang I, ang II, aldosterone, bradykinin?

A

Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist

Block aldosterone activity by binding to the mineralocorticoid receptor

Renin - high
Ang I - high
Ang II - high
Aldosterone - high
Bradykinin - high
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191
Q

22 year old woman comes to ED with dysuria, vulvar pain and itching. She has felt feverish and fatigued. She has a new sexual partner and has been using a hormonal vaginal ring to prevent pregnancy. The patient had chlamydia 3 years ago and was treated with Abx. Physical examination reveals inguinal lymphadenopathy and tender vesicular lesions covering both labia majora and the perineum.
Condition?
Etiology?
Treatment?

A

Genital herpes
HSV-2 most common

Acyclovir, famciclovir or valacyclovir

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192
Q

Low hemoglobin, low MCV -

Ddx?

A

Iron deficiency
Lead intoxication
Thalassemia
Sideroblastic anemia

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193
Q

Low hemoglobin, high MCV -

Ddx?

A

B12 deficiency

Folate deficiency

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194
Q

Low hemoglobin, normal MCV, decreased reticulocyte count?

A

Leukemia
Aplastic anemia
Anemia of chronic disease

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195
Q

Low hemoglobin, normal MCV, increased reticulocyte count?

A

Hemorrhage

Hemolysis:
Spherocytosis
G6PD deficiency
Autoimmune
Microangiopathic
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196
Q
Iron deficiency in secondary to menstrual blood loss -
Serum ferritin?
Circulating transferrin?
Total iron-binding capacity?
RBC?
A

Low
High
High
Microcytic, hypochronic RBCs

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197
Q
34 year old man comes in with heart palpitations particularly prominent at night. With moderate exertion he also experiences head-pounding and involuntary head-bobbing. He recently emigrated from southeast asia and remembered being recently diagnosed with a heart murmur but doesn't know anything else about it. He doesn't smoke drink or do drugs. He had a widened pulse pressure and and pistol-shot femoral pulses. His father has coronary artery disease and his mother has type 2 diabetes.
Condition?
Common etiologies?
Pathophysiology?
Murmur?
A

Chronic aortic regurgitation

Congenital bicuspid aortic valve
Post inflammatory (eg.rheumatic heart disease, endocarditis)
Aortic root dilation (eg.Marfan syndrome, syphilis)

Backflow from aorta into LV –> increased LV end-diastolic volume
LV initially compensates with eccentric hypertrophy causing increasing SV and CO
Eventual LV dysfunction leads to decreased SV and CO leading to heart failure

Diastolic decrescendo murmur

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198
Q

43 year old man comes in with jaundice. No fever, no abdominal pain and no travel. Has experienced increased shortness of breath with exercise over the past few months. He has no other medical conditions. He drinks 1 or 2 glasses of wine on social occasions but doesn’t drink or smoke. His father died due to liver cirrhosis due to alcohol intoxication. On physical examination expiration is prolonged and there are scattered bilateral wheezes. Lab results show total bilirubin 4.1mg/dL and ALT of 90U/L. Viral hepatitis screen is negative. CXR shows hyper lucency of lung fields and flattening of the diaphragm. Abdominal USS reveals increased liver span and echogenicity of the liver parenchyma but no masses.
Condition?
Effect on lung?

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Alpha-1 antitrypsin is a serine protease inhibitor that regulates the activity of elastase in the lung.

Leads to alveolar destruction and panacinar emphysema. Additionally, accumulation of improperly folded AAT proteins in hepatocytes can lead to liver dysfunction and cirrhosis in some patients.

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199
Q

1 month old boy comes to ED during winter with cough and difficulty breathing. He has had rhinorrhea and congestion for the past 2 days along with low grade temperature. His GP said to stay home and just provide supportive treatment. Today the infant was breathing harder and faster than usual. His temp 37.8, blood pressure 92/44 mm Hg, pulse is 144/min and RR is 68/min. Physical examination reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes scattered rales.
Condition?
Epidemiology?
Risk in children?

A

Bronchiolitis

Age <2
RSV most common cause

Apnea

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200
Q

Minimum age to diagnose ADHD

A

4-5 years

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201
Q

Sever hypoglycaemia with loss of consciousness treatment -
In non medical setting
In medical setting

A

Intramuscular Glucagon

IV dextrose

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202
Q

First pharyngeal arch derivatives?

A

Trigeminal nerve
Maxilla, zygoma, mandible, incus and malleus
(Also muscles of mastication)

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203
Q

Second pharyngeal arch derivatives?

A

Facial nerve
Styloid process of temporal bone, lesser horn of hyoid and stapes
(Also muscles of facial expression)

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204
Q

Genetic disorder resulting in abnormal development of the first and second pharyngeal arches? Other issues?

A

Treacher-Collins syndrome.

Issues with airway compromise and feeding.

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205
Q

Congenital long QT syndrome -
Cause?
Consequences of the disease?

A

Genetic mutations in a K+ channel protein that contributes to the outward-rectifying potassium current

Prolongation can cause palpitations, syncope, seizures or sudden cardiac death

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206
Q

A 45-year-old woman comes in with long hx of joint pain, swelling and stiffness. She recently immigrated to the US. Physical examination her PIP and MCP joints are tender and swollen bilaterally and her fingers appear deformed. Subcutaneous nodules palpated near the elbow.
Diagnosis?
Lab results?
X-ray?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

Positive rheumatoid factor and anti cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies

Soft tissue swelling, joint space narrowing, bony erosions (Also affects cervical spine involvement - subluxation, cord compression)

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207
Q

6-mercaptopurine and 6-thioguanine -
Activated by?
Inactivated by?
How do you increase 6MP concentration?

A

Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase

Xanthine oxidase and thiopurine methyltransferase in the liver

Allopurinol

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208
Q

Methotrexate -

Mechanism?

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase so it blocks the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate and disrupts the synthesis of thymidine

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209
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors -
Used for?
Mechanism?

A

Atypical depression

Inhibit the degradation of neurotransmitters NE, dopamine and 5-HT

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210
Q

What inhibits topoisomerase II?

A

Etoposide and teniposide

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211
Q
A 62-year-old man comes to ED with 3 days of a severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing and hoarseness. He has no chronic medical conditions but has not seen a physician in years. Only received recommended childhood vaccinations but none since then. He is a farmer and has not travelled recently but has been in contact with migrants. Physical examination reveals pharyngeal erythema and oedema with coalescing grey exudate. Bilateral cervical lymph nodes are enlarged and tender. A rapid strep test is negative. Swab culture grows non-spore-forming, gram-positive rods.  
Diagnosis?
Epidemiology?
Pathogenesis?
Toxin effects?
Potential systemic effects?
Treatment?
A

Diphtheria

Rare in developed countries due to vaccination (risk is not getting 10 year booster shot)

Corynebacterium dipheriae colonizes the resp tract -> secretes toxin -> Inhibits host protein synthesis

Myocarditis/heart failure

Treat with diphtheria antitoxin and antibiotics

AB exotoxin that inhibits synthesis by ADP ribosylation of EF-2 - toxin acts locally cause resp cell necrosis and formation of fibrinous exudates

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212
Q

A 67-year-old man comes in with right tibial pain that started 3 months ago and increased in intensity over time. He has had progressive hearing impairment for the last year. Physical exam reveals local tenderness and lumpy protuberance over the right tibia. Bone biopsy shows numerous multinucleated cells.
Diagnosis?
Characterised by?
Important factors of osteoclast differentiation?

A

Paget’s disease of bone

Excessive osteoclastic bone turnover followed by increased bone formation by osteoblasts leading to high turnover -> disorganised bone remodelling.
Requires macrophage colony-stimulating factor and receptor for activated nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANK-L)

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213
Q

The best test to monitor the anticoagulation effect of warfarin?

A

Prothrombin time or INR

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214
Q

The best test to monitor the anticoagulation effect of unfractioned heparin?

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

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215
Q

GLUT-4 - where is it located? Where is the GLUT4 protein stored?

A

Skeletal muscle cells and adipocytes

Stored in cytoplasmic vesicles

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216
Q

26-year-old woman dies shortly after a sudden-onset, severe headache. Recently diagnosed hypertension but no other issues. Used to be a lifetime smoker. Autopsy reveals evidence of intracranial haemorrhage. Carotids appear tortuous distally with alternating areas of fibrotic webs and aneurysmal dilation. Microscopically, the aneurysmal segments lack an internal elastic lamina. She also has renal artery stenosis.
Condition?
Diagnosis?

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia
Common in women, age <55

Angiography (CT, MRI, percutaneous)
String of beads appearance (multifocal disease)

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217
Q

The average age of menopause?

Diagnosis?

A

Around age 51
Diagnosable after 12 months of amenorrhea and an elevated serum FSH confirms.

Increased FSH levels due to resistant ovarian follicles and lack of feedback from inhibin.

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218
Q

What correlates with the potency of an inhaled anaesthetic?

A

Minimal alveolar concentration

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219
Q
Hepatitis A -
Transmission?
Incubation period?
Where is it common?
Outbreaks?
Symptoms and signs?
A

Fecal oral transmission
30 day incubation
Overcrowding and poor sanitation

Contaminated water or food with raw or steamed shellfish

Malaise, fatigue, anorexia, N&V, mold abdominal pain.
Hepatomegaly is seen.

It is self limiting

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220
Q

Ipratropium -
What is it?
Derivative of?
What does it treat? and how?

A

An anticholinergic agent
Derivative of atropine
Treats obstructive lung disease by blocking Ach at muscarinic receptors
(prevents bronchoconstriction and reduces mucus secretion from tracheobronchial glands)

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221
Q

Albuterol -
What is it?
Used for?

A

Short acting selective beta-2 agonist

First line or asthma and COPD

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222
Q

Flunisolide -
What is it?
Used for?

A

Inhaled glucocorticoids

Treatment of persistent asthma and COPD with frequent exacerbations

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223
Q

Nifedipine -
Mechanism of action?
Side effects?

A

Bronchodilation by blocking calcium influc into bronchial SMCs

Peripheral edema and dizziness/lightheadedness

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224
Q

Theophylline and aminophylline -
What is it?
Mechanism of action?
Risks of OD?

A

Methylxanthines
Bronchodilation by blocking phosphodiesterase activity thereby increasing the intracellular concentration of cyclic AMP

Seizures and tachyarrhythmias

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225
Q
49 year old man comes in with 4 months of a cough and weight loss. The patient is a farmer in Mississippi. Examination shows right lobe crackles and CXR shows pulmonary infiltrate in the right upper lobe. Bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy shows granulomatous inflammation. HIV test is negative.
Diagnosis?
What is it?
Where is it found?
Transmission?
Treatment?
A

Blastomyces dermatitidis
Dismorphic fungus

Soil, organic matter and many animals

(In immunocompetent host its pulmonary)
Transmitted by respiratory route, entering the lungs and transforming into yeast form.

Itraconazole

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226
Q

Host cell receptor -
HIV gp120
EBV gp350
Parvovirus B19

A

CD4
CD21
Erythrocyte P antigen

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227
Q

Probability that phenotypically normal parents will have a female sibling of a male affected by an X-linked recessive disease will give birth to an affected child?

A

1/8

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228
Q

The 13-year-old girl brought to the physician for her yearly. BP is 152/91 with pulse 75 and RR at 18. Physical examination shows a lack of secondary sexual characteristics and pelvic exam shows a blind vagina. Lab results show hypokalemia and low testosterone and estradiol levels. 46 XY karyotype.
Diagnosis?
Deficient enzyme?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

17a hydroxylase enzyme deficiency (Synthesis of 17-hydroxy from progesterone)

High ACTH that result from decreased cortisol production overstimulate the mineralocorticoid pathway.

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229
Q
Side effects of the pharmacotherapy for supraventricular arrhythmias:
Flecainide/propafenone (class IC)
Metoprolol (class II)
Amiodarone (class III)
Ibutilide/dofetilide/sotalol (class III)
Verapamil/diltiazem (class IV)
Adenosine
Digoxin
A

Ventricular arrhythmias

Bradycardia & advanced AV block

Bradycardia, thyroid dysfunction and hepatic toxicity (photodermatitis, blue/geay skin discoloration, pulm fibrosis)

Torsades de pointes (blocks K+ channels)

Bradycardia & advanced AV block, decreased ventricular contractility, constipation (verapamil)

Flushing & hypotension, bronchospasm, high grade AV block

Bradycardia &other arrhythmias, N&V and visual disturbances

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230
Q

What does telomerase add to chromosomes?

A

TTAGGG

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231
Q

What makes up active MS plaques?

A

Perivenular inflammatory infiltrates mades up of primarily auto reactive T lymphocytes and macrophages directed against myelin components.

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232
Q

1 year old boy is brought to clinic with repeated infections over the last 4 months. These include otitis media, pneumonia and erysipelas. The father says that his son is constantly on antibiotics and is afraid that he will end up like his uncle who passed away from pneumonia as a teenager. The boy also has persistent diarrhea and a recent stool antigen detection assay was positive for Giardia lamblia. Ig panel demonstrates low serum levels. Intradermal injection of Candida antigens resulting in a large indurated nodule within 48 hours.

Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Deficiency?
What do lymph nodes lack?

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia

This condition results from a mutation in the Bruton tyrosine kinase causing a failure of bone marrow pre-B cells to develop into mature B lymphocytes.

CD19, CD20

Germinal centres and primary lymphoid follicles no for form due to an absence of B cells. (Present after 6 months cause then no more antibodies from mom)

  • Bacterial, enterovirus and giardia**-
  • NO LIVE VACCINES (polio)-
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233
Q

Reactions where biotin (Vitamin B7) is a cofactor?
Causes of biotin deficiency?

Symptoms?

A

Pyruvate to oxaloacetate (gluconeogenesis)

Acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA (fatty acid synthesis)

Propionyl-CoA to methylmalonyl-CoA (fatty acid oxidation)

Excess ingestion of avidin, found in raw egg whites.

Mental status changes, myalgias, anorexia, macular dermatitis and lactic acidosis

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234
Q

54-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic for exertional dyspnea and easy fatigability. No chest pain, cough or wheezing. No smoking or drinking. Unstable gait when her eyes are closed and there is impaired vibratory sensation in the lower extremities. Marked pallor of the conjunctivae, nail beds and palms present.
Diagnosis?
Characteristic findings?
Lab results?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Subacute combined degeneration of the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tract.

Elevations in methylmalonic acid and levels occur due to decreased metabolism of these molecules

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235
Q

Patient eats rat poison. What is the immediate treatment? Why?

A

Fresh frozen plasma

Behaves similar to warfarin
Vitamin K is effective but takes days while protamine is ineffective

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236
Q

Treatment of heparin OD?

A

Protamine

Vit K and FFP are ineffective

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237
Q

Fick’s principle cardiac output formula?

A

CO = rate of O2 consumption/arteriovenous O2 content difference

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238
Q

Small for gestational age infant is born prematurely to a 38 year old woman who had inconsistent prenatal care. Small head and eyes as well as celft lip and palate and one extra finger. There is a small, round punched out lesion with an overlying thin membrane on the patient scalp. A small membranous sac with loop of bowel protrudes from the patient’s abdominal midline (omphalocele). The infant is transferred to NNU for furthur work up.
Diagnosis?
Risk factors?

A

Patau syndrome or trisomy 13 reflecting a defect in the fusion of the prechordal mesoderm.

Maternal age >=35 years age meiotic nondisjunction.

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239
Q

Where does iron absorption occur?

Effect of gastrojejunostomy and other potental malabsorption?

A

Duodenum and proximal jejunum

Bypass leads to iron deficiency anemia. Malabsorption of Vit B12, folate, fat-soluble vitamins and calcium.

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240
Q

48 year old woman comes to the office with an intermittent ear discharge over the last 2 years. She also noticed decreased hearing in the right recently. Her PMH is significant for obesity, hyperlipidemia, seasonal allergies and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. Otoscopy shows small perforation in right tympanic membrane and pearly mass behind the membrane. Conduction hearing loss is noted in the right ear.
Diagnosis?
What is it?
Cause?

A

Cholesteatomas
Collection of squamous cell debris that form the pearly mass.

They are a result of chronic negative pressure in the middle ear causing retraction pockets in the tympanic membrane that become cystic.

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241
Q
42 year old comes to ED with worsening jaw pain and stiffness. His symptoms began 2 days ago and have limited his ability to eat. Today he also develops a stiff neck. No fever, chills, headaches or focal weakness. This patient is a farmer in rural pennsylvania and sustained a wooden splinter injury to this forearm a week ago. He is not able to open his mouth. (trismus)
Diagnosis?
Establishing diagnosis?
Neurotransmitters affected?
Prevention?
A

Tetanus
Clinical diagnosis only

Prevents release of inhibitory NTs glycine and GABA.

Tetanus toxoid vaccination

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242
Q

Generalised anxiety disorder -
Clinical features?
Treatment?

A
Excessive, uncontrollable worry >= 6 months
>3 of the following symptoms:
Restlessness
Fatigue
Difficulty concentrating
Irritability
Muscle tension
Sleep disturbance

Cognitive-behavioural therapy
SSRIs or SNRIs

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243
Q

1st pharyngeal arch

A

Trigeminal nerve

Maxillary artery

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244
Q

2nd pharyngeal arch

A

Facial

Stapedial artery

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245
Q

3rd pharyngeal arch

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve
Common carotid artery
Proximal internal carotid artery

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246
Q

4th pharyngeal arch

A

Superior laryngeal branch of Vagus
True aortic arch
Subclavian arteries

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247
Q

6th pharyngeal arch

A

Recurrent laryngeal branch of vagus
Pulmonary arteries
Ductus arteriosus

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248
Q

10-year-old boy whose family recently immigrated to the US is brought to the physician with ataxia, myoclonus and visual problems. His parents said he has begun acting strangely and having difficulty with his school work seveeral months ago. After the appropriate workup, a brain biopsy is obtained and a RNA virus containing hemagglutinin is cultured from the tissue.
Diagnosis?
Main diagnosis?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

Measles

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249
Q

A 3 week old girl in NNU develops abdominal distension, vomiting and blood-streaked stools. She had reviously tolerated formula feeds and had normal stool and urine output. She was born at 27 weeks gestation to an 18 year old mother. Her pregnancy was complicated by premature rupture of membranes and preterm deelivery. Abdo XR shows thin curvilinear areas of lucency that parallel the bowel wall lumen (pneumatosis intestinalis).

Diagnosis?

A

Necrotizing enterocolititis

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250
Q
3 year old boy is brought to the physician with jaundice and pallor. He was adopted. Lab studies show anemia, reticulocytosis and increased indirect bilirubin. Peripheral blood smear shows RBCs without central pallor. Also increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration. 
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Lab findings?
Treatment?
Complications?
A

Hereditary spherocytosis

Defective binding of the red cell cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane due to mutations involving ankyrin band 3.

Increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin conc.
Spherocytes on peripheral smear
Negative Coombs
Increases osmotic fragility on acidified glycerol lysis test

Splenectomy

Pigmented gallstones
Aplastic crises from parvovirus B19 infection

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251
Q
A 36-year-old man is admitted with severe left leg pain after suffering a minor laceration to his leg 2 days earlier. The patient's left leg is swollen and firm with erythema of overlying skin. There is a small wound draining blood tinged exudate on his left calf. He went to OR and a large area of necrotic tissue is excised. Gram stain of the necrotic tissue hows Gram-positive cocci and culture of the bacteria performed on a blood agar plate grows small colonies with a wide zone of surrounding hemolysis. Coagulase and catalase are negative and pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR) test is positive.
Diagnosis?
Microbiology?
Pathogenesis?
Treatment?
A

Necrotizing fasciitis

Strep pyogenes (Group A strep)
Staph aureus
Clostridium perfringens
Polymicrobial

Bacteria spread rapidly through subcut & deep fascia undermining the skin
Involves extremities and perineal region

Surgical debridement & broad spectrum abx

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252
Q

Oxidase positive, non-lactose-fermenting, gram-negative rods.
Pathogen?
Effect?

A

A hydrophila

Gastroenteritis, wound infections and bacteremia following exposure to contaminated water

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253
Q

Large, spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive rid that is catalase negative and coagulase negative.
Pathogen?
Effect?
Blood agar?

A

C perfringens

Food poisoning, clostridial myonecrosis (gas gangrene) and bacteremia

Double zone of beta-hemolysis

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254
Q

Gram-positive coccus that grows in clusters. It is catalase positive, coagulase possitive and PYR negative. Large colonies and demonstrates beta-hemolysis.
Pathogen?

A

S aureus

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255
Q

Hematuria, Proteinuria and urine RBC casts are present in the patient with hypercellular glomeruli on light microscopy.
Most likely diagnosis?
Lab finding?
Immune complexes?

A

Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

Elevated titers of anti-step antibodies (anti-streptolysin O, anti-DNase B, anti-cationic proteinase) and low C3 concentration

IgG, IgM and C3

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256
Q

14-year-old girl comes to the ED due to rapidly progressive exertional dyspnea and generalised weakness which wre preceded by a mild febrile illness several days go. She has hx of sickle cell disease and takes a daily folic acid supplement. O/E the patient has conjunctival pallor but no icterus. A cardiax flow murmur is present. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no organomegaly. Lab studies show hematocrit 16%. Leukocyte and platelet counts are normal.
Diagnosis?
Pathogen?

A

Parvovirus B19

Non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus (infection of erythroid precursor cells in the bone marrow)

Aplastic crisis - destruction of erythroid precursor cells by this virus diminishes the number of reticulocytes available to replace the deformed and/or removed erythrocytes.

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257
Q

Enveloped double-stranded DNA virus

A

Hepadna (Hep B)
Herpes (Varicella, HSV-1, HSV-2)
Pox (smallpox)
Epstein Bar virus

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258
Q

Enveloped single-stranded positive sense RNA virus

A

Hepatitis C

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259
Q

Nonenveloped single-stranded positive sense RNA virus

A

Hepatitis E

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260
Q

Nonenveloped double-stranded DNA viruses

A

Adenoviruses, papillomaviruses and polyomaviruses (don’t normally cause hematopoietic depression or aplastic anemia)

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261
Q

Enveloped negative-sense RNA virus

A

Orthomyxoviruses (influenze), paramyxoviruses (measles and mumps) and rhabdoviruses (rabies)

Normally don’t infect erythroid progenitor cells

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262
Q
Preferred provider organization -
Monthly premiums 
Copayments &amp; deductibles
PCP referral required for specialist visits
Size of in-network provide panel
Outside provider network
A
High
Medium
No
Large
Yes
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263
Q
Health maintenance organization -
Monthly premiums 
Copayments &amp; deductibles
PCP referral required for specialist visits
Size of in-network provide panel
Outside provider network
A
Low
Low
Yes
Limited
No
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264
Q
Point-of-service plan -
Monthly premiums 
Copayments &amp; deductibles
PCP referral required for specialist visits
Size of in-network provide panel
Outside provider network
A
Medium
Variable
Yes 
Limited
Yes
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265
Q

Chronic conditions that cause clubbing:
Lung diseases
Heart diseases
Other

A

Lung: Lung cancer, TB, CF, bronchiectasis, pulm HTN, empyema, chronic lung abscesses and many other chronic lung diseases associated with hypoxia

Heart: Tetralogy of fallot, truncus arteriosus, transposition of the great arteries, total anomalous pulm venous connection, tricuspid atresia and bacterial endocarditis

Other: IBD (Crohns, UC), hyperthyroid, malabsorption

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266
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 1 -
Inheritance?
Chromosome?
Symptoms?

A

Autosomal dominant condition

Chromosome 17 - NF1 tsg (codes for neurofibromin)

Cafe-au-lait spots, multiple neurofibromas, Lisch nodules, Pseudoarthrosis

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267
Q

Risk factors for cervical cancer

A
Infection with high-risk HPV strains (16,18) -> cervical dysplasia and carcinoma
Hx of STDs
Early onset of sexual activity - before age 18
Multiple or high-risk sexual partners
Immunosuppression
oral contraceptive use
Low socioeconomic status
Tobacco use
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268
Q

Bell’s palsy symptoms

A

Paresis of facial nerve
Impaired eye closure
Eyebrow sagging
Inability to smile and frown on the affected side
Disappearance of the nasolabial fold
The mouth being drawn to the non-affected side.
Decreased tearing
Hyperacusis
Loss of taste sensation over the anterior 2/3s of the tongue

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269
Q

DSM-5 criteria for Anorexia

A

Restricted energy intake with significantly low body weight (BMI<18.5)
Intense fear of becoming fat
Distorted body image, excessive influence of weight on self-worth

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270
Q

Medical complications for Anorexia

A
Osteoporosis - fragility fractures
Amenorrhea
Lanugo or hair loss
Parotid hypertrophy (if binge/purge)
Hypotension
Hypothermia
Bradycardia
Cardiac atrophy
Arrhythmias
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271
Q

Worrying meningitis triad?

Immediate decisions?

A

High fever >38
Stiff neck
Altered LOC

Blood cultures
Empiric abx
LP

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272
Q
Unvaccinated 20-month-old girl is brought to the ED with a rash. Three days ago she had a fever along with cough, congestion, and red eyes. The rash appeared on her face yesterday and spread to her trunk, arms and legs. Temp is 39.4. She is lethargic and ill appearing. Physical examination shows conjunctival injection and a diffuse, maculopapular, erythematous rash. 
Diagnosis?
Complications?
What deficiency causes complictations?
Prevention?
A

Measles virus

Pneumonia
Secondary Bacterial infections
Neurologic - Encephalitis (within days)
Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (Within weeks)
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

Vitamin A supplementation is recomended (infections deplete vit A stores)

Live attentuated vaccine

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273
Q

A previously healthy 2-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with fever and mouth pain that began yesterday. he has consumed an adequate amount of fluids but refuses to eat due to the pain. No medical issues or medications. Physical examination reveals swollen gums and vesicular, inflamed lesions on his hard palate and lips. He has enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes.
Diagnosis?
Microbiology?

A

Primary herpes simplex virus type 1

DNA virus, double-stranded, enveloped

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274
Q

Abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension and a garlic odor on the breath.
Insecticides, pressure treated wood and contaminated water are common sources.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Long term symptoms?
Treatment?

A

Arsenic poisoning

Arsenic binds to sulfhydryl groups, impairing cellular respiration via inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase.

Hypo/hyperpigmentation, hyperkeratosis, stocking-glove neuropathy

Dimercaperol

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275
Q

Acute lead poisoning presents with constipation, anemia and irritability and confusion.
Treatment?

A

CaNa2 EDTA for lead toxicity by increasing urinary excretion.

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276
Q

Iron OD treatemnt?

A

Deferoxamine

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277
Q

Cyanide poisoning -
Symptoms?
Antidote?

A

Confusion, flushing/cherry red skin color, abdo pain and vomiting

Hydroxycobalamin (Vit B12 precursor)

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278
Q

What does methylene blue treat?

Symptoms?

A

Methemoglobinemia
(sulfa drugs or newborns)
Gray or blue colored skin, SOB and chocolate covered blood.

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279
Q

Pioglitazone -
Type of drug?
Side effect?

A

Thiazolidinediones

Weight gain and edema

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280
Q

Lithium -

Adverse effect

A

Diabetes insipidus
Hypothyroidism
Tremor
Ebstein anomaly

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281
Q

Valproate -

Adverse effect

A

Hepatotoxicity

Neural tube defects

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282
Q

Carbamazepine -
Used for?
Mechanism?
Adverse effect

A

First line for trigeminal neuralgia

Inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing by reducing the ability of sodium channels to recover from inactivation

Aplastic anemia
SIADH
Neural tube defects
Bone marrow suppression

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283
Q

Lamotrigine -

Adverse effects

A

Benign rash

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

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284
Q

46-year-old woman comes to the office with a painful rash involving her groin and legs that has been worsening over the last 2 weeks. She was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 6 months ago but has no medical problems other than occasional loose stools. Physical examination shows coalescing erythematous plaques with crusting and scaling at the borders and central areas of brownish induration. Biopsy reveals superficial necrolysis.
Diagnosis?
Lab results?
Skin finding?

A

Glucagonoma

Elevated glucagon levels

Necrolytic migratory erythema

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285
Q

11B hydroxylase vs 21 hydroxylase - difference?

A

11b - hypertension and hypokalaemia

21 - hypotension and hyperkalemia

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286
Q

Hypersensitivity Type 1 -
Humoral components
Cellular components
Examples

A

IgE

Basophils
Mast cells

Anaphylaxis
Allergies

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287
Q

Hypersensitivity Type II (cytotoxic) -
Humoral components
Cellular components
Examples

A

IgG and IgM autoantibodies
Complement activation

NK cells, Eosinophils, neutrophils, macrophages

Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
Hemolytic disease of newborn
Goodpasture syndrome

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288
Q

Hypersensitivity type III -
Humoral components
Cellular components
Examples

A

(Immune complex)
Deposition of antibody-antigen complexes and complement activation

Neutrophils

Serum sickness
PSGN
Lupus nephritis

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289
Q

Hypersensitivity type IV -
Humoral components
Cellular components
Examples

A

(Delayed)
None

T cells and macrophages

Contact dermatitis
Tuberculin skin test

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290
Q

Thorn prick -
Pathogen?
Biopsy?
Treatment?

A

Sporotrichosis caused by sporothrix schenckii

Granuloma consisting of histiocytes, multi nucleated giant cells and neutrophils, surrounded by plasma cells.

Itraconazole

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291
Q

Bats and bird droppings in Ohio and Mississippi River valley associated pathogen?
Pathophysiology?
Disease course in immunocompromised?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum (fungal infection)

Inhaled -> phagocytosed by alveolar macrophages -> escapes lysosyme destruction and spreads to hilar/mediastinal lymph nodes

Disseminated disease through liver, spleen or bone marrow.

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292
Q
42 year old woman gravida 4, para 4 comes to the clinic due to heavy and painful menstrual bleeding over the past 3 months. Her LMP was 4 weeks ago. Menarche was at age 10 and menstrual periods last 3-5 days and occur every 30 days. She is sexually active with her husband and does not have pain during intercourse. The patient had bilateral tubal ligation 3 years ago after the birth of her last child. She takes no medications and has no allergies. BMI is 24. On bimanual examination, the uterus is uniformly enlarged. Pregnancy test is negative. Biopsy shows secretory endometrium.
Diagnosis?
Tissue?
Epidemiology?
Symptoms?
A

Adenomyosis

Presence of endometrial glandular tissue within the myometrium.

Middle-aged parous females

Heavy menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea.

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293
Q
Huntington's -
Characteristics?
Age of onset?
Inheritance?
Macroscopic?
Microscopic?
Biochemical?
A

Involuntary choreiform movements, dementia, and behavioural abnormalities.

35-45 yrs old

Autosomal dominant - increased trinucleotide repeats

Atrophy of caudate nucleus
Moderate atrophy of the putamen and frontal lobes

Loss of caudate nucleus and putamen

Decrease in GABA, ACh and substance P in the striatum

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294
Q

20 year old woman is brought to ED due to intractable vomiting and abdo pain. She has a several week hx of anorexia and weight loss. The patient has well controlled primary hypothyroidism treated with levothyroxine but has not taken her meds for 2 days because of vomiting. On examination, she is mildly lethargic but oriented. Generalised hyperpigmentation is present and is most conspicuous over the face, neck and dorsal surface of hands. Bolus of normal saline is rapidly infused.

Diagnosis?
Treatment?

A

Acute adrenal insufficiency (adrenal crisis)

Hydrocortisone or dexamethasone

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295
Q
During the course of a week at an overnight summer camp, 4 children age 7-9 are sent to camp health centre. They each have fever, cough, congestion, sore threat and red eyes. Physical exam of the children show bilateral conjunctival injection and an erythematous oropharynx. Auscultation of one child reveals crackles in the left lower lung fields. All symptoms improve over 7 days with supportive care.
Diagnosis?
Pathogen?
Transmission?
Occurence?
A

Adenovirus

Double stranded DNA

Direct contact, fecal-oral, respiratory droplets

Occurs year round

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296
Q

7 year old child presents with fever, malaise and a classic “slapped cheek” rash. Diagnosis?

A

Parvovirus B19

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297
Q

Retroperitoneal abdominal organs?

A
Suprarenal glands
Aorta &amp; IVC
Duodenum
Pancreas (head and body)
Ureters &amp; bladder
Colon (ascending and descending)
Kidneys
Esophagus
Rectum (mid-distal)
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298
Q

Vitamin B1 -
What is it?
Primary function?
Deficiency?

A

Thiamine

Decarboxylation off a-keto acids (carbohydrate metabolism)

Beriberi (peripheral neuropathy, heart failure)
Wernicke-Korseakoff syndrome

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299
Q
Vitamin B2 - 
What is it?
Primary function?
Deficiency?
Precursor for?
A

Riboflavin

Mitochondrial electron carrier (FMN, FAD)

Angular cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis
Normocytic anemia

FMN and FAD. FAD functions as a component of succinate dehydrogenase.

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300
Q

Vitamin B6 -
What is it?
Primary function?
Deficiency?

A

Pyridoxine

Transamination of amino acids (amino acid synthesis)

Cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis

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301
Q

Vitamin B9 -
What is it?
Primary function?
Deficiency?

A

Folate, folic acid

Hydroxymethyl/formyl carrier (purine & thymine synthesis)

Megaloblastic anemia
Neural tube defects (foetus)

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302
Q

Vitamin B12 -
What is it?
Primary function?
Deficiency?

A

Cobalamin

Isomerase & methyltransferase cofactor (DNA & methionine synthesis)

Megaloblastic anemia
Neurologic deficits

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303
Q

Vitamin C -
What is it?
Primary function?
Deficiency?

A

Ascorbic acid

Hydroxylation of proline & lysine (collagen synthesis)

Scurvy

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304
Q
30 year old woman comes to the ED with sudden-onset abdo pain and ascites. Lab results show anemia, reticulocytosis, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Flow cytometry of the patient's peripheral blood cells using the appropriate monoclonal antibodies shows CD55 and CD59 deficiency. CT scan of the abdomen shows hepatic vein thrombosis. 
Diagnosis?
Cause of the anemia?
Classic triad?
Chronic hemolysis?
testing?
Complications?
A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Complement activation

Hemolytic anemia (iron deficiency)
Pancytopenia
Thrombosis

Iron deposition in the kidney - hemosiderosis

Introduce sucrose to the serum and you will see red cells destroyed

AML

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305
Q
65 year old man comes to the office with several months of severe fatigue that limits his ability to do daily activities. He has had upper abdo fullness, early satiety and unintentional weight loss but no fever, night sweats, cough or rash. Doesn't smoke or drink or do drugs. Physical examination shows mucosal pallor with no scleral icterus. Lungs and heart clear. Mild hepatomegaly and the spleen tip is palpable near the midline. Lab results show pancytopenia and peripheral blood smear shows immature granulocytes, nucleated erythrocytes and tear drop cells. Bone marrow aspirated but yields no marrow. 
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Histology?
Why is no marrow aspirated?
A

Primary myelofibrosis

Chronic myseloproliferative disorder with clonal megakaryocyte –> secrete TGF-B –> stimulates fibroblasts in BM to produce collagen –> BM fibrosis –> extramedullary hematopoiesis

Large islands of hematopoietic progenitor cells

Dry tap

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306
Q

60 year old comes in saying food tastes bland and is unable to enjoy flavours in a meal. Two months ago, the patient suffered traumatic brain injury after a head-on motor vehicle collision. He was in a coma for several days and after regaining consciousness he began having severe headaches and impaired taste. Headaches have improved. No vision or balance or strength issues. He is a truck driver and has had a hx of heavy tobacco use.
Cause of his symtoms?

A

Avulsion of olfactory rootlets

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307
Q

Multiple and deep ulcers
base may have gray to yellow exudate
Organisms often clump in long parallel strands “school of fish”

Causative agent?
Disease?
Painful initially?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

Chancroid

Yes

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308
Q

Multiple, smal, grouped ulcers
Shallow with erythematous base
Multinucleated giant cells and intranuclear giant cells (Cowdry type A)

Causative agent?
Disease?
Painful initially?

A

Herpes simplex 1,2

Genital herpes

Yes

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309
Q

Extensive and progressive ulcerative lesions without lymphadenopathy
Base may have granulation-like tissue
Deeply staining gram-negative intracytoplasmic cysts

Causative agent?
Disease?
Painful initially?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

Granuloma inguinale

No

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310
Q

Single, indurated, well-circumscribed ulcer
Clean base
Thin, delicate, corkscrew-shaped organisms on dark field microscopy

Causative agent?
Disease?
Painful initially?

A

Treponema pallidum

Syphilis

No

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311
Q

Small and shallow ulcers
Large, painful, coalesced inguinal lymph nodes
Intracytoplasmic chlamydial inclusion bodies in epithelial cells and leukocytes

Causative agent?
Disease?
Painful initially?
Treatement?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

Lymphogranuloma venereum

No

Doxycycline

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312
Q

DSM 5 criteria schizophrenia?

A
>=2 of the following:
1) Delusions
2) Hallucinations
3) Disorganised speech
4) Disorganised or catatonic behaviour
5) Negative symptoms (apathy, reduced facial expressions, flat affect)
Continuous impairment >6 months
Significant function decline
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313
Q

How to improve treatment adherence in adolescence?

A

Close peers with complementary behaviour practices, positive family functioning, school involvement, physician empathy and immediate benefits of treatment?

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314
Q

What is ezetimibe?

Mechanism of action?

A

Cholesterol lowering agent

Decreasing intestinal cholesterol absorption by inihibiting Neimann-Pick C1-like 1 (NPC1L1) transporter protein.
Total amount of dietary cholesterol decreases
To compensate the liver increases LDL receptor expression

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315
Q

Sulfonylureas, meglitinides

What is it?
Mechanism of action?
Side effects?

A

Insulin secretagogues

Increases insulin secretion by inhibiting B-cell K(atp) channels

Hypoglycemia
Weight gain

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316
Q

Metformin

Mechanism of action?
Side effects?

A

Stimulates AMPK decreasing glucose production and insulin resistance

Lactic acidosis (kidney insufficiency at risk)

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317
Q

Pioglitazone, Rosiglitazone

What is it?
Mechanism of action?
Side effects?

A

Thiazolidinediones

Activates transcription regulator PPAR-y, decreasing insulin resistance

Fluid retention/heart failure
Weight gain

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318
Q

Exenatide, Liraglutide

What is it?
Mechanism?
Side effects?

A

GLP-1 agonists

Increases glucose-dependent insulin secretion, decreases glucagon secretion, delays gastic emptying

Pancreatitis

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319
Q

Sitagliptin, Saxagliptin

What is it?
Mechanism?
Side effects?

A

DPP4 inhibitors

Increases endogenous GLP-1 and GIP levels

Nasopharyngitis

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320
Q

Acarbose, Miglitol

What is it?
Mechanism?
Side effects?

A

a-glucosidase inhibitors

Reduces intestinal disaccharide absorption

Diarrhea and flatulence

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321
Q

Canagliflozin, dapagliflozin

What is it?
Mechanism?
Side effects?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

Increases renal glucose excretion

UTI
Hypotension

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322
Q
Glioblastoma -
Epidemiology?
Age of Onset?
Arises from?
Location?
Effects?
Symptoms?
Prognosis?
A

Most common primary cerebral neoplasm

40-70 years

Astrocytes

Frontal and temporal lobes, basal ganglia and commonly crosses the midline (butterfly distribution)

Mass effect with midline shift

Headache, seizure, bizarre giant cells, large number of mitoses

Poor prognosis (die within a year)

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323
Q

Meningiomas -
Appearance?
Arise from?
Location?

A

Well circumscribes neoplasms

Arachnoid cells (external to brain parenchyma)

Located of sites of dural reflection (falx cerebri, tentorium cereblli)

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324
Q

Schwannomas -
Location?
Presentation?

A

(Benign tumours)

Arise from vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII at cerebellopontine angle

Sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus

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325
Q

Stop codons?

A

UAA
UAG
UGA

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326
Q

Type II pneumocytes functions

A

Regeneration of the alveolar lining following injury

Surfactant production

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327
Q

What causes maternal insulin resistance in the second and third trimesters?

A

Human placental lactogen secreted by syncytiotrophoblast

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328
Q

Bone appearance in HyperPTH?

A

Subperiosteal resorption with cortical thinning

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329
Q

Bone appearance in postmenopausal osteoporosis?

A

Trabecular thinning with fewer interconnections

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330
Q

48 year old man comes to hospital after a day of high grade fever, progressive headache and double vision. The patient has been having purulent nasal drainage and frontal headache for the past several days. Hx of type 2 DM. Physical exam shows ptosis, mydriasis, mild proptosis and loss of corneal reflex of the right eye. Visual acuity is normal but he cannot move his right eye at all. Also decreased sensation in the right upper face.
Diagnosis?
Common pathogens?
Cranial nerves involved?

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Staph aureus, streptococci

III, IV, VI, V (ophthalmic and maxillary)

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331
Q

NK cells -
What do they express?
Activated by?
Responsible for?

A

CD 16 or 56

IFN-y and IL-12

Destruction of cells with decreased or absent MHC class I proteins on their surfaces. (via apoptosis)

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332
Q

5 year old boy is brought in due to recurrent generalised tonic clonic seizures over the past 24 hours. The patient has been having flu-like symptoms and high fever for the past 3 days. He has a PMH of febrile seizures at age 6 months. No FH of epilepsy and no meds. he appears lethargic and doesn’t follow simple commands. His neck is supple. During the exam he suddenly develops sustained generalised tonic-clonic convulsions without fully regaining consciousness in between.
Diagnosis?
Treatment?
Mechanism?

A

Status epilepticus

IV benzodiazepine (lorazepam)

Enhanced postsynaptic chloride influx at the GABA-A receptor

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333
Q

Antioxidant enzymes that help acute compartment syndrome?

A

Superoxide dismutase
Glutathione perocidase
Catalase

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334
Q
Severe micrognathia (hypoplasia of the mandibular prominence) results in?
Condition?
A

Posterior displacement of the tongue (glossoptosis) and prevents fusion of the secondary palate (cleft palate)

Pierre-Robin sequence

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335
Q

What causes typical atrial flutter?

A

Large reentrant circuit that traverses the cavotricuspid isthmus the region of right atrial tissue between the IVC and tricuspid valve annulus.

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336
Q

24 year old woman comes in with fatigue, weakness and conjunctival pallor. She also has been bleeding from her gums and has 2 week history of easy bruising. She had a respiratory tract infection recently. Lab shows pancytopenia and no hepatosplenomegaly on examination.

Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Cause?
Bone marrow Biopsy?
Differentials?
A

Aplastic anemia

Bone marrow failure due to hematopoietic stem cell deficiency (CD34+)

Autoimmune
Infections (parvovirus B19, EBV)
Drugs - carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, sulfonamides
Exposure to radiation

Hypocellular bone marrow with fat and stromal cells
Empty marrow

Severe vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency anemia
Acute leukemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
Cessation of causative drugs
Transfusions
Marrow-stimulating factors
Immunosupress
BMT
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337
Q

Social anxiety disorder -
Diagnosis criteria?
Treatment?

A

Marked anxiety >1 social situations for 6 months
Fear of scrutiny by others, humiliation, embarassment
Social situations avoided or endured with intense distress
Marked impairment (social, academic, occupational)

SSRI/SNRI
CBT
B-blocker/benzo for performance type

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338
Q

Where do gonadal arteries arise from?

A

Abdominal aorta

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339
Q

22 year old man comes in with acute severe scrotal pain and has vomited twice in the last hour. His left testes is lying much higher than the right and has no cremasteric reflex on that side.
Diagnosis?

A

Testicular torsion

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340
Q

An infant is born at 39 weeks gestation to a 26 year old woman. Apgar scores were 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes. The mother had gestational diabetes controlled by diet alone. Physical examination shows clitoromegaly and partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. 46,XX karyotype. Abdo imaging shows bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.
Diagnosis?
Deficient enzyme?
Lab?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

21-hydroxylase (progesterone –> 11-deoxycorticosterone)

Elevated 17-OH progesterone

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341
Q
32 year woman comes to the office because she felt sad and worthless and cries for no reason. The patient has difficulty sleeping, decreased appetite and no longer enjoys spending time with her friends. no significant medical history, negative pregnancy test and TSH is within normal limits. The physician discusses the diagnosis with the patient and initiates first-line pharmacologic treatment. Two days after, the patient is brought to the ED after being found lying next to an empty bottle of the pills. BP is 146/92 and HR is 118. The patient is disoriented, tremulous and diaphoretic. She has abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. Neurologic exam reveals pupillary dilation, bilateral hyperreflexia in the lower extremities and bilateral, inducible ankle clonus.
Diagnosis?
Amino acid precursor?
Other causes?
Management?
A

Serotonin syndrome

Typtophan

Drug interactions -SSRIs and MAOI or linezolid
Overdose
MDMA

Stop the meds
Support and sedate with benzo

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342
Q

Antidote to serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine (5-HT antagonist)

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343
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepine OD

A

Flumazenil

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344
Q

Antidote for narcotic OD

A

Naloxone

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345
Q

Multiple ring enhancing lesion in HIV patient.
Diagnosis?
Other ways to get it?

A

Toxoplasmosis

Cat poop
Contaminated foods

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346
Q

Preventative agent following SAH to reduce morbidity and mortality

A

Calcium channel blocker

Nimodipine

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347
Q

What does the presence of hemosiderin-laden macrophage in pulmonary alveoli indicate?
Stain used?

A

Chronic increase of pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure due to left heart failure. (left ventricular dysfunction)
Prussian blue stain

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348
Q

19 year old woman brought to ED after motor vehicle accident. history of celiac and 3 episodes of pneumonia. Pulse is 130/min and BP is 80/45. Physical exam reveals pallor and USS shows splenic laceration. She receives a blood transfusion with O-negative packed RBCs. During transfusion, the patient develops facial swelling, generalised hives and SOB.
Diagnosis?
Labs?

A

Selective IgA deficiency

Decreased or absent IgA
Normal IgG and IgM

(In coeliac disease you see)

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349
Q
Sickle cell trait -
Epidemiology?
Life expectancy?
Symptoms?
Diagnosis?
Protection?
A

African, Middle-eastern + Mediterranean; African-American, Hispanic

No change in life expectancy

No symptoms

HbA > HbS

Relative protection from Plasmodium falciparum (malaria) but not immunity

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350
Q

Embryological derivative of melanoma?

A

Neural crest (melanocytes)

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351
Q

Clinical features of melanoma

A
Asymmetry - 2 sides not identical
Border irregularities - unever edges
Color variegation - variable mixtures of brown, tan, black and red
Diameter - >6mm
Evolving - changing lesion or new lesion
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352
Q

Most common metastatic tumours to the brain?

A

Lung
Renal
Melanoma

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353
Q

21 year old athlete comes in due to recent weight loss and fatigue. He says no matter how much he eats, he keeps losing weight. He has been really thirsty and drinking lots of water and that makes him go to the bathroom frequently. He is sexually active and has one lifetime partner.
Diagnosis?
Cause?
Labs?

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
Insulin deficiency

Fasting glucose (>125 mg/dL)
Hemoglobin A1c (>6.4%)
Random glucose (>200 mg/dL)
OGTT
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354
Q

Common pathogens causing nosocomial bloodstream infections

A

Coagulase-negative staph
Staph aureus
Enterococci
Candida species

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355
Q

Common benzos:
short acting
intermediate acting
long acting

A

Triazolam, midazolam

Oxazepam, alprazolam, lorazepam

Diazepam, chlordiazepoxide

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356
Q

62 year old man comes to the ED due to severe colicky upper abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. He reports several episodes of similar abdominal discomfort in the past. Doesn’t drink, smoke, illicit drugs. He immigrated to the US from East Asia several years ago. Physical exam reveals RUQ tenderness. Imaging shows several gallstones in the common bile duct and gallbladder. The stones are removed from the duct endoscopically and a cholecystectomy is also performed. The gallstones are dark, brown soft and composed primarily of calcium bilirubinate.
Enzyme involved?

A

Beta-glucuronidases

Liver fluke Clonorchis has a high prevalence in east asian countries

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357
Q

Giardia lamblia -
Treatment?
Epidemiology?
Colonization?

A

Metronidazole

Most common enteric parasite in the US and Canada

Duodenal and jejunal mucosal lining

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358
Q
Effects of prolonger glucocorticoid therapy -
Adipose?
Adrenal cortex?
Bone?
Immune system?
Liver?
Skeletal muscle?
Skin?
A

Lipolysis, altered fat distribution

Atrophy

Osteoporosis

Suppression, T-cell apoptosis

Increase gluconeogenesis and glycogenesis

Atrophy

Thinning, stria, impaired wound healing

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359
Q

Sacubitril -

mechanism?

A

Inhibits Neprilysin preventing the degradation of ANP causing peripheral vasodilation and increased urinary excretion of Na and H2O

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360
Q

Leukotriene B4 -

function?

A

Stimulates neutrophil migration to sites of inflammation

Others include 5-HETE, C5a and IL8

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361
Q

Medication for treatment-resistant schizophrenia or schizophrenia associated with suicidality?
Adverse effects?

A

Clozapine

Agranulocytosis
Seizures
Myocarditis
Metabolic syndrome

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362
Q

Sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

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363
Q

Sensation of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

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364
Q

C. diphtheria -
Toxin?
Microbiology?

A

Diphtheria toxin

Inactivates EF-2 via ribosylation thus inhibiting host cell protein synthesis

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365
Q

P aeruginosa -
Toxin?
Microbiology?

A

Exotoxin A

Inactivates EF-2 via ribosylation thus inhibiting host cell protein synthesis

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366
Q

S aureus -
Toxin?
Microbiology?
Virulence factor?

A

Enterotoxin - superantigen that acts locally in the GI tract causing vomiting
TSS toxin - superantigen that stimulates T cells leading to widespread cytokine release and shock
Protein A - binds with Fc protein of IgG to prevent complement activation.

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367
Q

C botulinum -
Toxin?
Microbiology?

A

Botulinum toxin

Blocks the presynaptic release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction resulting in flaccid paralysis

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368
Q

B pertussis -
Gram stain?
Toxin?
Microbiology?

A

Gram-negative coccobacilli

Pertussis toxin - inhibits phagocytes activity
Tracheal cytotoxin - destroys ciliated epithelial cells

Disinhibits adenylate cyclase via Gi ADP ribosylation, increasing cAMP production; causes increased histamine sensitivity & phagocyte dysfunction

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369
Q

V cholerae -
Toxin?
Microbiology?

A

Cholera toxin
Activates adenylate cyclase via Gs ADP ribosylation, increasing cAMP production in the host cell; causes secretory diarrhea, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances

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370
Q

Elevated free thyroxine (T4) and suppressed TSH with small thyroid and undetectable serum thyroglobulin.

A

Thyrotoxicosis

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371
Q

Appearance of pilocytic astrocytoma on MRI
Microscopic examination?

Location of juvenile masses?

A

Grey lesion with some white

Astrocytes with bundles of glial fibrillary acidic protein - positive hairlike processes and classic Rosenthal fibres and granular eosinophilic eosinophilic bodies

Juvenile ones arise in the cerebellum, brainstem, hypothalamic or optic pathways.

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372
Q

Ependymomas -
Arise from?
Occupy?
Microscopy?

A

Ependymal lining of the ventricle

Occupy the 4th ventricle

Perivascular pseudorosettes

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373
Q

Glioblastoma multiforme -
Arising from?
Located?
Microscopy?

A

GFAP-positive astrocytes

Cerebral hemispheres (crossing corpus)

Pseudopalisading pleomorphic cells

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374
Q

Medulloblastoma -
Location?
Microscopy?

A

Cerebellum (cerebellar vermis)

Hyperchromatic nuclei that form Homer Wright rosettes

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375
Q

Oligodendrogliomas -
Location?
Microscopy?

A

Frontal lobe (calcified)

“fried egg” appearance surrounded by anastomosing capillaries

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376
Q

17 year old boy comes in due to difficulty seeing and blurred vision which has slowly worsened. He is 195 cm and 71 kg. He has a slight kyphosis and is hypermobile. He also has flat feet and his breast bone drops inward.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Risks?

A

Marfan syndrome

Genetic defect in the glycoprotein fibrillin-1

Mitral valve prolapse and cystic medial degeneration of the aorta

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377
Q

13 year old boy is brought in due to right knee pain. Mild ache in the lower part of his knee that has worsened and is causing him to limp. Relieved by rest and can be reproduced when he straightens his knee. Evaluation reveals avulsion of the secondary ossification centre of the tibia due to repetitive muscle contraction and traction on the bone.
Diagnosis?
Insertion site of affected tendon?

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

Tibial tuberosity (patellar tendon)

(Occurs due to repetitive quadriceps contraction)

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378
Q

Clindamycin, azithromycin, chloramphenicol -
Used to treat?
Mechanism of action?

A

Covers oral anaerobes and aerobic gram positive organisms (ie. lung abscess)

Binds to the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit and disrupts protein synthesis (similar to macrolides)

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379
Q

Gram negative rods
MacConkey agar
Lactose fermenter (pink colonies)
Fast fermenters?

A

Klebsiella
E Coli (also indole positive)
Enterobacter

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380
Q

Gram negative rods
MacConkey agar
Lactose fermenter (pink)
Slow fermenters?

A

Citrobacter

Serratia

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381
Q
Gram negative rods
MacConkey agar
Lactose non-fermenter (white)
Oxidase negative
TSI agar
No H2S production (gas)?
A

Shigella

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382
Q
Gram negative rods
MacConkey agar
Lactose nonfermenter (white)
Oxidase negative
TSI agar
H2S production (black)?
A

Salmonella

Proteus

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383
Q
Gram negative 
Motile aerobic
Blue-green pigment
Fruity odor
MacConkey agar
Lactose non fermenter (white)
Oxidase positive?
Dermatologic lesions?
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa - produces a green pigment (pyocyanin) during culture

Ecthyma gangrenosum

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384
Q

Lab test for osteoblastic activity?

A

ALP

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385
Q

Lab tests for osteoclastic activity?

A

Urinary deoxypyridinoline
Urinary hydroxyproline
Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

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386
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome -
Labs?
Treatment?

A

Hyperphosphate
Hypocalcemia
Hyperkalaemia
Hyperuricemia

Allopurinol
Rasburicase

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387
Q

Graves ophthalmopathy -
Cause?
treatment?

A

Stimulation of orbital fibroblasts by thyrotropin receptor antibodies and cytokines released by activated T-cells

Glucocorticoids decrease the severity of inflammation and reduce the excess extraocular volume.

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388
Q

Blanching of a vein with NE -
What does that mean?
Pathogenesis?
Treat?

A

NE extravasation

Leak causes intense a1 receptor mediated vasoconstriction which can lead to local tissue necrosis

Phentolamine - a receptor blocker

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389
Q

Pituitary adenoma -
ACTH?
Cortisol?
High dose dexamethasone?

A

High, High

Cortisol reduces

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390
Q

Ectopic ACTH secretion -
ACTH?
Cortisol?
High dose dexamethasone?

A

High, high

Cortisol remains elevated

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391
Q

Adrenal adenoma/carcinoma -
ACTH?
Cortisol?
High dose dexamethasone?

A

Low, high

Cortisol remains elevated

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392
Q

A newborn is examined after induced vaginal delivery. Visual inspection shows the infant has low set ears, a small mandible and a prominent occiput and rocker-bottom feet. The neonate has a weak cry and increased tone of the extremities. (Clenches hands with second and 5th degitis on top of 3rd and 4th)
Auscultation reveals harsh, IV/VI holosystolic murmur best heard at left sternal border.
Diagnosis?

A

Trisomy 18 - Edwards syndrome

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393
Q

12 year old girl comes in with constant swelling and pain of her elbows. She had knee pain the preceding week. Parents say she is healthy and only had minor illness in the winter. temperature is 38.9. A new holosystolic murmur is heard on auscultation. Antistreptolysin O titers are 400 (normal is <300)
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Risk of dying?

A

Acute rheumatic fever

Occurs 2-4 weeks after acute Group A strep

Pancarditis (mitral regurg)

Her migratory arthritis and positive titer make this the most likely diagnosis.

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394
Q
Peripheral precocious puberty
Irregular cafe-au-lait macules
Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Complications?
A

McCune-Albright syndrome

Mutation GNAS gene
Constant G protein activation
Hormone overproduction

Thyrotoxicosis
Acromegaly
Cushing syndrome

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395
Q

65 year old woman comes to ED with progressive fatigue and lower-extremity paresthesias. MCV of 112 fL (slightly high). Upper GI endoscopy shows atrophic glandular mucosa in the gastric body and fundus and a normal-appearing antrum.
Diagnosis?
Cause?
Progressive findings?

A

Pernicious anemia

Autoimmune disorder caused by cell-mediated destruction of parietal cells.

Progressive destruction leads to chronic atrophic gastritis characterised by CD4 predominate inflammatory infiltrate, oxyntic gland atrophy and intestinal metaplasia.

Can develop B12 deficiency after a critical number of parietal cells are destroyed.

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396
Q
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome -
Characteristic triad?
Inheritance?
Immunodeficiency?
Infection risk?
Treatment?
A

Eczema, reccurent infections and thrombocytopenia (petechia, purpura, hematemesis and epitaxis)

Mutation on the X chromosome (only present in males)

Combined B and T lymphocyte disorder

Polysaccharide capsule - Neisseria men, H influenza, Strep pneumo.

HLA-matched bone marrow transplantation

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397
Q

Chediak-Higashi -

Important clinical findings

A

Oculocutaneous albinism, peripheral neuropathy and immunodeficiency as phagocyte phagosome-lysosome fusion

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398
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency -
Pathogenesis?
Presentation?

A

Defect in CD18, a common component in many integrins that is normally responsible for leukocyte adherence and transmigration through endothelial walls

Marked peripheral leukocytosis with neutrophilia
Delayed seperation of the umbilical cord
Recurrent cutaneous infections without pus formation and poor wound healing

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399
Q

Premature ejaculation -

Diagnostic criteria?

A

Unwanted episodes of early ejaculation accompanied by lack of control.

Ejaculation within one minute of penetration, most of the time for at least 6 months

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400
Q

23 year old woman comes in with acute N&V. She recently returned from a trip to Mexico and started to feel queasy on the last day. She then developed nausea with frequent vomiting and intermittent bouts of watery diarrhoea. She has no visible blood in the stool. Abdo exam shows mild tenderness and increased bowel sounds.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Treatment? What receptor would the treatment target?

A

Travelers’ diarrgea
E.Coli, Rotavirus, cryptosporidium parvum

Ondansetron
5-HT3 receptor antagonists

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401
Q

Biliary atresia -
Presentation?
Liver biopsy?

A

Jaundice, dark urine and acholic stools in the first 2 months of life due to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

Intrahepatic bile duct proliferation, portal tract edema, fibrosis

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402
Q

64 year old comes in with painless loss of vision in the right eye. Symptoms started suddenly several hours ago and have persisted. No trauma or any similar episode in the past. He has hx of CAD, AF and type 2 DM. BP is 144/86
CVS exam reveals irregularly irregular rhythm with no murmurs, no peripheral edema and slightly diminished pedal pulses in both feet symmetrically. Visual acuity in the right eye is hand motion only.
Diagnosis?
Fundoscopy?

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

Pale retina and cherry red macula

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403
Q

Diabetic retinopathy -

Presentation?

A

Blurry vision. black spots, floaters and decreased peripheral vision

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404
Q

1g of protein = how many calories of energy?

A

4

Metabolism of one gram of fat produces 9 calories

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405
Q

52 year old is evaluated low grade fever, malaise, abdo pain and diarrhea. The patient underwent cadaveric renal transplant 6 months ago to treat renal failure from polycystic kidney disease. He takes maintenance immunosuppressive therapy. Physical exam shows mild tenderness in the lower abdo quadrants with no rebound tenderness. Serum immunosuppressant levels are within therapeutic range and renal function studies are normal. Colonoscopy reveals mucosal erythema and ulcerations. Biopsy shows large cells with inclusion bodies and in situ hybridisation yields viral DNA.
Diagnosis?
First line therapy?
Risk of treatment?

A

Cytomegalovirus reactivation - CMV colitis

IV ganciclovir - blocks CMV DNA polymerase

Side effects are neutropenia, anemia and thrombocytopenia

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406
Q

Nerve supply below the dentate line?

A

Inferior rectal nerve, branch of pudendal nerve

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407
Q

Key features of DCIS?

A

Central necrosis
Precancerous lesion
Confined to ducts and lobules

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408
Q

Key features of Paget disease?

A

Eczematous nipple lesion

Extension of DCIS into ducts

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409
Q

Key features of Ductal carcinoma?

A

Most common type

Nests and cords of cells

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410
Q

Key features of lobular carcinoma?

A

Small cells in single file

Mammary stroma invasion

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411
Q

Key features of Inflammatory breast cancer?

A

Peau d’orange

Dermal lymphatic invasion

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412
Q
34 year old man comes to the hospital due to several hours of difficulty swallowing, dry mouth and blurred vision. The patient has a hx of major depression. Examination shows mydriasis and poorly reactive pupils. Electrodiagnostic studies reveals normal nerve conduction velocity but decreased compound muscle action potential (CMAP). Rapid, repetitive nerve stimulation leads to facilitation of CMAP.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Classic presentation?
How to destroy?
A

Food poisoning with Clostridium botulinum toxin

Toxin inhibits acetylcholine release from NMJ.

Diplopia, dysphagia and dysphonia

Can be destroyed with heat

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413
Q
44 year old man brought to ED because of confusion that began a few hours ago. Earlier he complained about a severe headache and nausea. Nuchal rigidity is present. LP was done:
Opening pressure 300 (high)
Glucose 20 (low)
Protein 200 (high)
RBCs 4 
Leukocytes 760:
Neutrophils - 90%
Lymphocytes - 10%

Diagnosis?
Most common cause?
Gram stain of CSF?
Risk factors?

A

Bacterial meningitis

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Lancet-shaped Gram positive cocci

Alcoholics, sickle cell anemia, asplenic, poor healthy

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414
Q

Bean-shaped gram negative cocci in pairs -
Diagnosis?
Epidemiology?
Virulence factor?

What does bleeding from venous puncture sites mean in sepsis?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Second most common <60 yr olds
Occur in outbreaks where many people live in close quarters - army barracks and college dorms

Lipo-oligosaccharide

DIC - excess fibrin exerts shearing forces on circulating erythrocytes –> schistocytes

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415
Q

Gram-negative coccobacillus cause of meningitis?

Type of vaccine?

A

H influenzae

(Can also cause septic arthritis and both X factor (hematin) and V factor (NAD+)
Hib capsule vaccine - protein capsule polysachharide conjugate vacccine

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416
Q

Bacillus anthracis -
Toxin?
Mechanism and effects?
Bacterial virulence factor?

A

Anthrax toxin

Edema factor - increases cAMP by acting as an adenylate cyclase –> edema and phagocyte dysfunction

Lethal factor - zinc dependent protease that inhibits mitogen-activated protein kinase signaling –> apoptosis

“Medusa head”

Antiphagocytic D-glutamate capsule

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417
Q

C. difficile -
Toxins?
Mechanism and effects?

A

Toxin A - recruits and activates neutrophils –> mucosal inflammation, fluid loss and diarrhea

Toxin B - Induces actin depolymerization –> mucosal cell death, bowel wall necrosis and pseudomembrane formation

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418
Q

Shigella dysenteriae -
Toxin?
Mechanism and effects?

A

Shiga toxin

Halts protein synthesis by disabling the 60S ribosomal subunit, leading to intestinal epithelial cell death and diarrhea

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419
Q

Strep pyogenes -
Toxin?
Mechanism and effects?

A

Pyrogenic extoxin - Superantigen inducing fever and shock –> associated with scarlet fever and strep toxic shock

Streptolysin O&S -
Damages erthrocyte membranes, causing beta hemolysis

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420
Q
Enterohemorrhagic E.Coli (EHEC) -
Presentation?
Associated?
Cause?
Toxin?
Mechanism and effects?
A

Blood diarrhea

Inadequately cooked hamburger meat

Shiga-like toxin
Enhanced by iron deficiency - inactivate 60S ribosomal subunit –> inhibition of protein synthesis and cell death

Can cause hemmorhagic colitis, hemolytic uremic syndrome (characterised by thrombocytopenia, microangiiopathic hemolytic anemia and renal insufficiency)

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421
Q
Thin, off-white discharge with fishy odor. No inflammation.
Diagnosis?
Pathogen?
Gram stain?
Lab findings?
Risk factors?
Treatment?
A

Bacterial vaginosis

Gardnerella vaginalis

Anaerobic gram-variable rod

ph>4.5
Clue cells - epithelial cells covered with gram-variable rods
Positive whiff test (amine odor with KOH)

Sexual intercourse increases the risk for bacterial vaginosis

Metronidazole or clindamycin

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422
Q
Thin, yellow-green, malodorous, frothy discharge. Vaginal inflammation is present. 
Diagnosis?
Pathogen?
Lab findings?
Confirmatory test?
Treatment?
A

Trichomoniasis

Trichomonas vaginalis

ph >4.5
Motile trichomonads

Saline microscopy

Metronidazole; treat sexual partner

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423
Q
Thick, cottage cheese, discharge. Vaginal inflammation is present.
Diagnosis?
Pathogen?
Lab findings?
Treatment?
A

Candida vaginitis

Candida albicans

Normal pH (3.8-4.5)
Pseudohyphae

Fluconazole

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424
Q

Heavy menses, constipation, urinary frequency, pelvis pain/heaviness and enlarged uterus.
Diagnosis?

A

Fibroids

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425
Q

Dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, heavy menses with a bulky, globular and tender uterus.
Diagnosis?
Lab?

A

Adenomyosis

Presence of endometrial glands within the uterine myometrium.

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426
Q

History of obesity, nulliparity or chronic anovulation
Irregular, intermenstrual or postmenopausal bleedings
Nontender uterus
Diagnosis?
Lab?

A

Endometrial cancer/hyperplasia

Increased endometrial gland to stroma ratio due to excess estrogen stimulation

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427
Q
67 year old man comes to the office with persistent headache and pain in the jaw when chewing food. For the past 2 months he has been unable to eat tough foods like steak because pain makes it take too long too chew. Hx pf HTN. type 2 DM and hyperlipidemia. Started on appropriate therapy and an arterial biopsy is performed. Histopathology shows multinucleated giant cell and internal elastic membrane fragmentation.
Diagnosis?
Labs?
Complication?
Cytokines involved?
Treatment?
Increased risk?
A

Giant cell arthritis

Elevated ESR and CRP
Biopsy - intimal thickening, elastic lamina fragmentation and multinucleated giant cells

Ischemic optic neuropathy

IL-6

Glucorticoids or Monoclonal antiboody against IL-6 (tocilizumab)

Thoracic aortic aneurysm

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428
Q

Vancomycin -
Mechanism?
Adverse?

A

Blocks glycopeptide polymerization by binding tightly to D-alanyl-D-alanine

Red man syndrome
Nephrotoxicity

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429
Q

Daptomycin -
Mechanism?
Adverse?

A

Depolarise cellular membrane by creating transmembrane channels

Myopathy and CPK elevation
Inactivated by pulm surfactant

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430
Q

Linezolid -
Mechanism?
Adverse?

A

Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to 50S subunit

Thrombocytopenia
Optic neuritis
High risk for 5-HT syndrome

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431
Q

7 year old boy is brought to the office by his mother due to facial puffiness that is noticeable in the morning. He has a hx of mild, intermittent asthma that is well controlled by albuterol as needed. Physical exam shows bilateral lower extremity pitting edema. Nephrotic range proteinuria consisting mainly of albumin is revealed on urinalysis.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Effect?

A

Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.

Systemic T-cell dysfuntion leads to production of glomerular permeability factor which causes podocyte foot process fusion and decreases the anionic properties of the GBM.

Loss of negative charge leads to selective albuminuria.

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432
Q

Ddx of back pain -
Positional
Relieved with rest

A

Degenerative (osteoarthritis)

Characterised by progressive fissuring, flaking and erosion of articular cartilage. Due to excessive biomechanical stress and increase intraarticular metalloproteinase activity.

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433
Q

Ddx of back pain -
Radiates to leg
Sensory and motor findings
Positive straight leg raise test

A

Radiculopathy (e.g. disc herniation)

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434
Q

Ddx of back pain -
Pain with standing (spinal extension)
Relieved by spinal flexion

A

Spinal stenosis

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435
Q
Ddx of back pain -
Young men
HLA-B27
Relieved with exercise
prolonged morning stiffness
A

Spondyloarthropathy

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436
Q

Ddx of back pain -
Constant pain
Worse at night
Not responsive to position changes

A

Spinal metastasis

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437
Q

Ddx of back pain -
Focal tenderness
Fevers and night sweats
Recent infection, IV drug abuse or immune compromise

A

Vertebral osteomyelitis

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438
Q
Postpartum blues -
Prevalence?
Onset?
Symptoms?
Management?
A

40-80%

2-3 days (usually resolves within 14 days)

Mild depression, tearfulness, irritability

Reassurance and monitoring

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439
Q
Postpartum depression -
Prevalence?
Onset?
Symptoms?
Management?
A

8-15%

Typically within 4-6 weeks (up to a year)

> 2 weeks of moderate to severe depression, sleep or appetite disturbance, low energy, psychomotor changes, guilt, conc. difficulty, suicidal ideation

Antidepressants, psychotherapy

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440
Q
Postpartum psychosis -
Prevalence?
Onset?
Symptoms?
management?
A

0.1-0.2%

Variable: days to weeks

Delusions, hallucinations, thought disorganisation, bizarre behaviours

Antipsychotics, antidepressants, mood stabilisers

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441
Q

Onset following viral illness
Painful thyroid enlargement
Transient hyperthyroid symptoms

Increased ESR and CRP and reduced radioiodine uptake

Diagnosis?
Pathology?

A

Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis

Inflammatory infiltrate with macrophages and giant cells

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442
Q

Autoimmune etiology
Painless thyroid enlargement
Predominant hypothyroid features

Positive TPO antibody
Variable radioiodine uptake

Diagnosis?
Pathology?

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

Lymphocytic infiltrate with well-developed germinal centers

Lymphocytic infiltrate with well-developed germinal centers
Hurthle cells (eosinophilic epithelial cells)
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443
Q
Acetazolamide -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Indications?
Side effects?
A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitior diuretic

Inhibiting carbonic anhydrase blocks HCO3 reabsorption in proximal tubules leads to water excretion and increased pH

Open and close angle glaucoma

Somnolence, paresthesias and urine alkalinization
(Rare include metabolic acidosis, dehydration, hypokalemia and hyponatremia)

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444
Q
Adverse effects of mood stabilisers in bipolar disorder -
Lithium
Valproate
carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
A

Diabetes insipidus, hypothyroid, tremor, ebstein anomaly

Hepatotoxicity, NTD

Aplastic anemia, SIADH, NTDs

Benign rash, Stevens johnson syndrome

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445
Q

MHC class I -
Structure?
Antigen presenting results in?

A

Heavy chain and B2-microglobulin

Apoptosis of the presenting cell

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446
Q

MHC class II -
Structure?
Antigen presenting results in?

A

Alpha and beta polypeptide chains

Activation of TH cells which stimulate the humoral and cell-meadiated immune responses

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447
Q

Cystic fibrosis -
Transmembrane protein?
Associated GI disorder?

A

CF transmembrane conductance regulator protein
Impaired post-translational processing
ATP-gated

Meconium ileus

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448
Q

Lung abscess -
Presentation?
CXR?
Formation?

A

Several days of fever, cough, copious sputum

Cavitation with air fluid level

Neutrophils recruitment and activation leading to release of cytotoxic granules that kill bacteria but can also cause liquefying necrosis of surrounding tissues

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449
Q

AV node location in the heart?

A

Septal leaflet of tricuspid valve and the orifice of the coronary sinus

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450
Q

4 year old boy is brought in due to headaches that have worsened over the past month and are most severe when lying down. He also had non bloody, non bilous emesis for the past 2 weeks that typically occurs early in the morning. The child has intermittent blurry vision especially when looking up at mirror while brushing his teeth. Physical exam shows bilateral papilledema, inability to gaze upwards and bilateral eyelid retraction. Lab testing of sodium, GH, LH and FSH are normal.
Diagnosis?
Reasoning?
Pathology

A

Pineal gland mass

Obstructive hydrocephals (papilledema, headache and vomiting)
Dorsal midbrain (Parinaud) syndrome - limitation of upward gaze, bilateral eyelid retraction and light near dissociation

Germinoma - midline malignant tumor that arises from embryonic germ cells

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451
Q

Oral candidiasis -
Epidemiology?
Management?

A

Young infants
Immunosuppressed patients
Asthma patients

Nystatin - polyene antifungal that binds to ergosterol moedcules in fungal cell membrane causing pores and leakage of contents

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452
Q

Bacteria from animal waste?

Symptoms?

A

Coxiella burnetti - Q fever
Nonspecific febrile illness with fever lasting >10days, fatigue and myaligias. Sever debilitating headaches which are often retroorbital and associated with photophobia. Pneumonia (lobal consolidation on CXR)

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453
Q
Down syndrome comorbidities -
Neurology?
Cardiology?
GI?
Endocrine?
Hematology?
Rheumatology?
A

Intellectual disability, early-onset Alzheimer disease

Completele AV septal defect, VSD, ASD

Duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung disease

Hypothyroid, Type 1 DM, obesity

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia and acute myelogenous leukemia

Atlantoaxial instability

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454
Q

Ataxia telangiectasia -
Symptoms?
Gene?

A

Cerebellar ataxia, telangiectasias and increased risk of sinopulmonary infections

Ataxia telangiectasia Mutated gene (recessive) - responsible for DNA break repair

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455
Q

Achondroplasia -
Inheritance?
Gene?

A

Most common form of short-limbed dwarfism

Autosomal dominant

Gain-of-function mutation in the FGFR3 gene- germline mosaicism

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456
Q

Congenital rubella syndrome -
Characterized by?
Vaccination?

A

Microcephaly, mental retardation, cataracts (white pupils), deafness and PDA, peripheral pulmonic stenosis

Live attenuated vaccine
Children at 12-15 months and again from 4-6 years

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457
Q

3 main causes of HIV associated esophagitis?

A

Candida, CMV, HSV

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458
Q

HIV associated esophagitis -
Candida albicans

Endoscopic findings?
Microscopic findings?

A

Patches of adherent, grey/white pseudomembranes on erythematous mucosa

Yeast cells and pseudohyphae invading mucosal cells

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459
Q

HIV associated esophagitis -
HSV-1

Endoscopic findings?
Microscopic findings?

A

Small vesicles - punched out ulcers

Eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions (Cowdry type A) in the multinuclear squamous cells at ulcer margins

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460
Q

HIV associated esophagitis -
CMV

Endoscopic findings?
Microscopic findings?

A

Linear ulcerations

Intranuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions

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461
Q

Bone pain, fatigue, anemia, kidney disease, persistent back pain, constipation and hypercalcemia. Renal biopsy shows atrophic tubules, many of which contain large, obstructing waxy casts that stain intensely with eosin. Labs show normocytic anemia and monoclonal paraproteinemia (M-spike)

A

Multiple myeloma

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462
Q
Nephritic syndrome -
Features?
Most common cause in children?
When does it occur?
Hypersensitivity?
A

Heamturia, edema, HTN

Poststrep glomerlonephritis

2-4 weeks after a strep infection

Type III hypersensitivity reaction (from strains of group A beta-hemolytic Steptococcus)

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463
Q

Presence of S3 gallop?

A

Severe mitral regurgitation

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464
Q

Presence of S4?

A

Can be normal in healthy older adults or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy or concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (HTN/aortic stenosis)

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465
Q

Presence of mid systolic click?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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466
Q

S2-to-opening snap time interval?

A

Mitral or tricuspid stenosis

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467
Q

Splitting of S2 accentuated by inspiration?

A

Normal

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468
Q

Stress-induced (takotsubo) cardiomyopathy -
Characterized by?
Cause?
Epidemiology?

A

Hypokinesis of the mid and apical segments and hyperkinesis of the basal segments of the LV resulting systolic dysfunction.

Surge of catecholamines due to physical or emotional stress

Postmenopausal women and resolves on its own with several weeks

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469
Q

43 year old man comes in due to SOB and fatigue, Over the last 2 weeks, his fatigue has been so profound that he has little energy to even get out of bed. He has no chills but has experienced recent weight gain and ankle swelling. No prior conditions and no meds. BP 168/94. he has bilateral lower extremity pitting edema limited to the ankles. Urinalysis reveals 2+ protein, WBC and RBC 75-100.
He undergoes a kidney biopsy that shows linear appearance.

Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Light microscopy?

A

Anti-GBM disease (Goodpastures disease)

Anti-GBM antibodies target alpha 3 chain collagen type IV leading to complement deposition.

Crescent formation

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470
Q

Treatment of Wernicke encephalopathy?

A

IV thiamine followed by glucose infusion

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471
Q

Primary HSV-1 -
Protein responsible for retrograde axonal transport?
Protein responsible for anterograde axonal transport?

A

Dynein

Kinesin (Secretory vesicles in nerve terminals)

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472
Q

14 year old boy is brought in by his mother because she is worried that although tall, her son looks much younger than his peers and shows no signs of “masculinity.” On physical exam, the boy has poorly developed secondary sexual characteristics. He is unable to distinguish smells but has good visual acuity.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Genes?

A

Kallman syndrome

Absence of GnRH secretory neurons in the hypothalamus due to defective migration from the olfactory placode.

KAL-1 gene or FGF1 gene

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473
Q

Middle aged woman with sister who has Sjogren’s syndrome. Has fatigue, itching and hepatomegaly. ALP is elevated and Antimicrobial antibody titres and positive.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

Chronic autoimmune liver disease characterised by destruction of small and mid-sized intrahepatic bile ducts with resulting cholestasis

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474
Q

Mycobacterium TB -
Pathogenesis?
Cells?
Sputum cultures?

A

CD4 T lymphocytes to release IFN-y which leads to macrophage activation and differentiation into epithelioid histiocytes

Horseshoe shaped, multinucleated Langhans giant cells (fused, activated macrophages)

Mycobacteria that appear as parallel chains (serpentine cords) - Cord factor is a primary virulence factor (it prevents macrophages from being bactericidal)

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475
Q

6 month old gilr brought in for a checkup. Mother states that her baby doesn’t seem to be growing much despite her being fed as often as her previous children. Physical exam shows hepatomegaly, hypotonia, and height wand weight are below the 10th percentile. Lab studies shows hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. Liver biopsy shows hepatic fibrosis without fat accumulation. Additionally there are abundant quantities of multibranched polysaccharide with abnormally short outer chains within the cytosol of the hepatocytes.

Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Cori disease (glycogen storage disease Type II)

Debranching enzyme deficiency that leads to accumulation of glycogen with abnormally short outer chains.

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476
Q

6 year old boy brought in due to persistent facial ulcer for the past 2 months. His mother reports extreme sensitivity to sunlight and has developed freckles on his face, neck and limbs since infancy. On physical exam the skin in sun exposed is dry and rough with numerous freckles and erythematous macules. There is an ulcerated plaque on the left face revealed to be squamous cell carcinoma.
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

Autosomal recessive

Defects in nucleotide excision repair
DNA damaged by UV rays leads to thymine dimers that are normally repaired by Endonuclease but these enzymes are deficient in patients with XP.

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477
Q
6 year old is brought in because of short stature, low set ears, high arched aplate, webbed neck and cubitus valgus. Also has lymphedema and cystic hygroma behind the neck. 45 XO karyotype.
Diagnosis?
Pregnancy?
Management?
Underlying mechanism?
A

Turner syndrome

IVF but not their own egg

Treat with growth hormone that activates JAK-STAT

Meiotic nondisjunction

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478
Q

Alcohol withdrawal -
Symptoms?
Examination findings?

A

Tremors, agitation, anxiety, delirium, psychosis

Seizures, tachycardia, palpitations

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479
Q

Benzodiazepines -
Symptoms?
Examination findings?

A

Tremors, anxiety, perceptual distrubances, psychosis, insomnia

Seizures, tachycardia, palpitations

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480
Q

Heroin withdrawal -
Symptoms?
Examination findings?

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, muscle aches

Dilated pupils, yawning, piloerection, lacrimation, hyperactive bowel sounds

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481
Q

Stimulants (cocaine, amphetamines) withdrawal -
Symptoms?
Examination findings?

A

Increased appetite, hypersomnia, intense psychomotor retardation, severe depression

No significant findings

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482
Q

Nicotine withdrawal -
Symptoms?
Examination findings?

A

Dysphoria, irritability, anxiety, increased appetite

No significant findings

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483
Q

Cannabis withdrawal -
Symptoms?
Examination findings?

A

Irritability, anxiety depressed mood, insomnia, decreased appetite

No significant findings

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484
Q

Effect or acute ureteral constriction or obstruction on GFR and diltration fraction?

A

Decreases both

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485
Q
Acute Mitral regurgitation -
Preload?
Afterload?
Contractile fraction?
Ejection fraction?
Forward stroke volume?
A
Increased
Decreased
nochange
Increased
Decreased
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486
Q
Compensated chronic MR -
Preload?
Afterload?
Contractile function?
Ejection fraction?
Forward stroke volume?
A
Increased
No change
No change
Increased
No change
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487
Q
Decompensated chronic MR -
Preload?
Afterload?
Contractile function?
Ejection fraction?
Forward stroke volume?
A
Increased
Increased
Decreased
Decreased
Decreased
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488
Q

What cell are androgens and progesterones synthesised in?

A

Theca interna (LH influence)

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489
Q

What cell are androgens converted to estradiol?

A

Granulosa (FSH influence) with enzyme aromatase

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490
Q

Androgenetic alopecia (male-pattern hair loss)
Pathogenesis?
Management?

A

Follicular hair loss is strongly influenced by dihydrotestosterone which is produced by conversion from testosterone by 5-a reductase.

Finasteride (5a reductase inhibitor) decreases the conversion to DNT

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491
Q

Clavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam -
What are they?
Concurrent admisitration with amoxicillin?

A

Beta lactamase inhibitors
Concurrent administration expands amoxicillin’s spectrum of activity to include strains of B-lactamase synthesising bacteria that are resistant to amoxicillin alone.

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492
Q

First line treatment for acute gouty arthritis with recent history of peptic ulcer?
Mechanism?
Side effects?
Contraindications?
Treatment to prevent furthur attacks (prophylactically)?

A

Colchicine

Binds to the protein tubulin and inhibits its polymerization into microtubules. This disrupts cytoskeletal-dependent functions such as chemotaxis and phagocytosis.

Nausea, abdominal pain and diarrhea

Elderly or severe renal dysfunction

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (allopurinol, febuxostat)

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493
Q

27 year old asian female came in with 3 month hx of fever, weight loss (5 kgs), myalgias and fatigue. She has also recently experiences leg pain with activity that resolves with rest. BP is 160/90 in the right arm and 120/80 in the left. A bruit is heard over left subclavian artery. Lest radial pulse and dorsalis pedis pulse in both legs are weak. hemoglobin is 9.8 and ESR is 110.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Histopathology?

A

Takayasu arthritis (<50 yrs)

Chronic large artery vasculitis that primary involves the aorta and its branches.

Granulomatous inflammation of arterial media
Transmural fibrous thickening, narrowing of lumen

ESR elevated
Corticosteroids to treat

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494
Q

14;18 chromosomal translocation
Genes affected?
Diagnosis?

A

Bcl2 proto-oncogene causing overexpression. (It has anti apoptotic effects)

Follicular lymphoma, (Non hodgkin lymphoma of the cleaved and non cleaved B-lymphocytes of the follicular center.

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495
Q

Genes affected in reciprocal translocation between chromosome 9 and 22?
Diagnosis?

A

Bcr-abl hybrid (Philadelphia chromosome)

Chronic Myelogenous leukemia (CML)

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496
Q

64 year old man comes to the office with 4 weeks of progressive dyspnea. For several months, he has had a nonproductive cough and fatigue. The patient’s medical conditions include degenerative joint disease and peptic ulcer disease. He smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 38 years but quit 4 years ago. On examination, there are decreased breath sounds and percussive dullness at the base of the right lung. Chest CT scan reveals right sided pleural effusion and diffuse nodular thickening of the pleura. On thoracocentesis, bloody fluid is obtained. Pleural biopsy shows proliferation of epithelioid-type cells that are joined by desmosomes, contain abundant tonofilaments and are studded with very long microvilli.
Diagnosis?
Primary risk factors?

A

Mesothelioma - rare, malignant neoplasm

Asbestos

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497
Q

Increased phospholipid content in amniotic fluid determines?

A
Lung maturity (dipalmioyl phosphatidycholine)
>=2 is considered mature
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498
Q

Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin levels?

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

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499
Q

Latanoprosy -
What is it?
Used for?
Mechanism of action?

A

Topical prostaglandin

Glaucoma

Increases outflow of aqueous humor

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500
Q

Open angle glaucoma -
Characterized by?
Fundoscopy?
Long term symptoms?

A

Increased intraocular pressure due to increased secretion or decreased outflow of aqueous humor
Type of optic neuropathy

Pale optic disk and enlarged optic cup

Peripheral visual fields

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501
Q
Zolpidem - 
What is it?
Mechanism of action?
Used for?
Metabolisation?
A

Short acting hypnotic agent

Bind to GABAA and enhance inhibitory action of GABA on the CNS.

Short term insomnia

Not muscle relaxing, not used for anesthesia, less potential for addiction

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502
Q

Most common malignant hepatic lesion?

A

Metastasis from another site

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503
Q

21 year old woman gravida 1 para 0 comes to the office for a prenatal visit. She is at 16 weeks gestation. The patient lost 2.3 kg since her latest prenatal visit 4 weeks ago, has occasional nausea with vomiting once a week. No constipation or diarrhea and no dysuria, chills or fever. The patient has a little appetite and her food consumption has decreased. However she craves ice and consumes it throughout the day. She has prenatal vitamins. Doesn’t take her iron for anemia. Does not use tobacco. Uterine fundus is consistent. Fetal HR is 140s.
Diagnosis?
Nutritional deficiencies?

A

Pica - compulsive consumption of a nonfood and/or non-staple food source for >1 month.

Iron, zinc

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504
Q

Collagen in mature scars?

A

Type 1

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505
Q

Tourette syndrome -
Clinical features?
Age of onset?
Treatment?

A

Both multiple motor AND >1 vocal tics for >1 year
(Motor - blinking, jerking, shrugging, sniffing … Vocal - grunting, snorting, throat clearing, barking, yelling)

<18 yrs old

Behavioural therapy (habit reversal)

Antidopaminergic agents:
Tetrabenazine (dopamine depleter)
Antipsychotics (receptor blocker)
Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonists

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506
Q

Caspofungin -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Effectiveness?

A

Echinocandins - antifungals

Inhibit synthesis of the polysaccharide glucan, an essential component of the fungal cell wall

507
Q

Renal biopsy reveals marked ballooning and vacuolar degeneration of proximal renal tubules; multiple oxalate crystals are observed in the tubular lumen.
Diagnosis?
Lab findings?

A

Ethylene glycol ingestion (antifreeze) causing acute tubular necrosis

High anion gap metabolic acidosis, increased osmolar gap

508
Q

First trimester 22 year old immigrant from the middle-east comes in with low-grade fever, a maculopapular rash with cephalocauda progression and posterior auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy.
Diagnosis?
Risks to mother and effect on fetus?

A

Maternal rubella infection

Polyarthritis and polyarthralgia

Congenital rubella syndrome with sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac malformations

509
Q
34 year old comes in with several months of vision problems, difficulty chewing and trouble speaking. The symptoms fluctuate but they are worse after a long day. She works as a telemarketer and has been putting in incredibly long hours. An ice pack to her face helps. After staring at the ceiling for 2 minutes, her vision becomes blurry. Her symptoms are reversible on administration of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
Diagnosis?
Mechanism?
Treatment?
Additional finding?
A

Myasthenia Gravis

Autoantibody-mediated, T-cell dependent attack on the acetylcholine receptors of the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction. (Over time leads to reduced numbers of AChRs)
Type II hypersensitivity

Pyridostigmine - Acetylcholinestease inhibitor
Edrophonium - myasthenic crises

Thymoma or thymic hyperlasia

510
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea -
Pathophysiology?
Symptoms?
Sequelae?

A

Relaxation of pharyngeal muscles leads to closure of airway
Loud snoring with periods of apnea

Daytime somnolence
Non-restorative sleep wth frequent awakenings
Morning headaches
Affective & cognitive symptoms

Systemic HTN
Pulmonary HTN and right heart failure

511
Q

Pancoast syndrome -
Location?
Symptoms?

A

Superior sulcus

Shoulder pain radiating toward axilla and scapula - paresthesia, weakness and muscle atrophy

Horner syndrome - Ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis

Spinal cord compression

512
Q

Intraabdominal infections - most prominent organisms isolated?

A

B fragilis and E.coli

513
Q
Sarcoidosis -
Epidemiology?
Clinical features?
Imaging?
Lab?
Pathology?
Treatment?
A

Young adults, African Americans

Constitutional symptoms
Cough, dyspnea and chest pain
Skin lesions, anterior/posterior uveitis, Lofgren syndrome

Bilateral hilar adenopathy
Pulmonary reticular infiltrates

Hypercalcemia and elevated serum ACE level

Biopsy showing noncaseating granulomas that stain negative for fungi and acid fast bacilli
CD4+ T-cell mediated diseases which release IFN-y and TNF-alpha to drive macrophage activation and granuloma formation

Oral glucocorticoids (prednisone)

514
Q
55 year old man comes in for evaluation of chronic muscle weakness. The patient has had increasing difficulty walking up stairs and lately had noticed dificulty combing his hair and lifting objects overhead. On examination, the patient has symmetric proximal muscle weakness and mild muscle tenderness. There is no skin rash. Muscle biopsy reveals endomysial monocnuclear infiltrate and patchy muscle fiber necrosis. 
Diagnosis?
Autoantibody?
Elevated enzymes?
Associated complications?
A

Polymyositis

ANA, anti-Jo-1 (anti-histidyl-tRNA synthetase)

CK, aldolase

Interstitial lung disease, myocarditis

515
Q

IL-10 -

Function?

A

Reduces proliferation of pro inflammatory cytokine (TH1 - IL2 and IFNy) and MHC class II expression. (anti-inflammatory)

Inhibits activated dendritic cells and macrophages.

516
Q

Plasmodium falciparum -

Key features?

A

Fever, icterus, splenomegaly and ring-shaped parasites with RBCs.

517
Q

Isoniazid -
Mechanism of action?
Side effect?

A

Inhibits pyridoxine phosphokinase leading to pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) deficiency.
Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

Sideroblastic anemia
Vit B6 deficiency
Hepatotoxicity

518
Q

54-year-old man comes in with 2 months of progressive, generalised weakness and easy fatiguability. He also has abdo discomfort and early satiety. He works as a security advisor and has not travelled. He has pallor, abdominal distension and massive splenomegaly with the spleen tip crossing the midline. No peripheral lymphadenopathy. Peripheral blood cell count shows pancytopenia. Bone marrow aspiration is attempted but no marrow is aspirated.
Diagnosis?
Microbiology?
Tests?

A

Hairy cell leukemia (an indolent B-cell neoplasm)
Usually diagnosed in middle aged men

Lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections

Bone marrow biopsy (dry tap), Flow cytometry

519
Q
Firm erythematous pre/postauricular swelling. Trismus (lockjaw), dysphagia, systemic findings - fever chills
Diagnosis?
Risk factors?
Microbiology?
Tests?
A

Parotitis

Decreased salivary flow due to:
Medications - anticholinergic
Obstruction - calculi, neoplasm
Dehydration, post surgical

Staph aureus, anaerobes

Imaging - ductal inflammation/onstruction, frank abscess
Elevated serum amylase but normal lipase (no pancreatitis)

520
Q

3 year old boy who recently immigrated to the US is brought to the physician by his parents because he has not yet begun to walk or speak. Severe intellectual disability. He died 6 months later from refractory seizures resulting in respiratory failure. Autopsy shows pallor of the substantia nigra, locus ceruleus and vagal nucleus dorsalis.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Phenylketonuria

Inability to convert phenylalanine into tyrosine (normally catalyzed by phenylalanine hydroxylase.

521
Q

3 conditions aspergillosis causes?

A

Invasive aspergillosis develops in immunosuppressed patients

Aspergillomas (fungal balls) in old lung cavities

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis in patients with asthma and wheezing

522
Q

Hyperacute rejection in transplanted organ -
Type of hypersensitivity?
Examples?

A

Type II hypersensitivity (occurs due to anti-donor antibodies)

anti-ABO and anti-HLA antibodies

523
Q

Lymphatic channels drainage -
Proximal to anal dentate line?
Distal to anal dentate line?

A

From superior rectal nodes to inferior mesenteric and internal iliac lymph nodes

Drain into the inguinal nodes

524
Q

Effect of carotid sinus massage?

What is it used for?

A

Increased vagal parasympathetic tone
Slows conduction through the AV node and prolongs AV node refractory period

Termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

525
Q

4-year-old boy is brought to the office due to skin lesions on his face for the past 2 days. There are tender perioral papules and pustules some of which appear to have broken down and are covered with golden yellow crusts. Exudate microscopy reveals gram-positive cocci in chains.

Diagnosis?
Microbiology?
Treatment?
Complications?

A

Impetigo

Staph aureus or Group A strep (Strep pyogenes)

Topical antibiotics (mupirocin)

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (facial edema and dark urine)

526
Q

Transference vs countertransference?

A

Transference is the patient’s reaction to the provider whereas countertransference refers to the provider’s reaction to the patient

527
Q

38-year-old man comes to the ED because he is vomiting blood. After the appropriate resus, he undergoes upper GI endoscopy which reveals a bleeding duodenal ulcer. During day 2, the patient develops decreased urine output. Serum Cr rises to 3 (from baseline of 1.2). Renal biopsy shows patchy epithelial necrosis of the tubules, tubulorrhexis and intratubular casts. On day 8, urine output significantly increases and serum Cr levels decline.
Diagnosis?
What is complication the patient at the highest risk for?
Most vulnerable segments of the nephron?
Nephrotoxins that can cause ATN?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

Electrolyte wasting - decreased potassium, magnesium, phosphorus, calcium

Proximal tubule and thick ascending loop of the loop of Henle

Antibiotics - aminoglycosides (gentamicin), vancomycin
Antivirals - Cidofovir, foscarnet
Other - IV radiocontract dye, cisplatin, heme pigment

528
Q

What bacteria can cause hepatic abscesses and how?

A

Staph aureus via hematogenous seeding from the liver

Enteric bacteria (E. Coli, Klebsiella and enterococci) - by ascending the biliary tract

529
Q

Urinary leakage with coughing, lifting and/or sneezing.
Type of incontinence?
Etiology?

A

Stress incontinence

Decreased urethral sphincter tone
Urethral hypermobility

530
Q

Sudden, overwhelming urge to urinate that cannot be held in.
Type of incontinence?
Etiology?

A

Urge incontinence

Detrusor hyperactivity

531
Q

Incomplete emptying and persistent involuntary dribbling of urine (constant).
Type of incontinence?
Etiology?

A

Overflow incontinence

Incomplete emptying and persistent involuntary dribbling

532
Q

5 year old boy is brought to the ED due to 2 days of dark, low-volume urine and decreased energy. The parents say the boy had abdo pain, fever and bloody diarrhea for 4 days which resolved 3 days ago without treatment. The day before onset of symptoms, the patient swam in a lake and ate hamburgers at the family picnic. Lab evaluation shows anemia, thrombocytopenia and elevated BUN and serum Cr.
Diagnosis?
Etiology?
Contamination?

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

Shiga toxin producing bacteria:
E Coli O157:H7
Shigella

Contaminated undercooked beef
Person-person contact
Fruits and vege contaminated with manure

533
Q

Oseltamivir -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Used for?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor

Sialic acid analogue that inhibits the neuraminidases.
Newly synthesised virions to adhere to the host cell surface and form viral aggregates to reduce the spread of virus to other hose cells. (Virion particle release)

Treatment of both influenza A and B virus infections

534
Q

Ddx for patient with hypertension and hypokalemia with increased renin and increased aldosterone.

A
Secondary hyperaldosteronism:
Renovascular HTN
malignant HTN
Renin-secreting tumor
Diuretic use
535
Q

Ddx for patient with hypertension and hypokalemia with decreased renin and increased aldosterone.

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism:
Aldosterone-producing tumor
Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

536
Q

Ddx for patient with hypertension and hypokalemia with decreased renin and decreased aldosterone..

A
Non-aldosterone causes:
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Deoxycorticosterone-producing adrenal tumor
Cushing syndrome
Exogenous mineralocorticoids
537
Q
Tenofovir, emtricitabine, lamivudine, abacavir, zidovudine -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Side effects?
Hypersensitivity?
A

NRTI

Inhibits HIV DNA synthesis from RNA template by terminating DNA chain elongation
Competitive nucleoside/nucleotide RT inhibitor

Bone marrow toxicity –> anemia

Abacavir hypersensitivity reaction - HLA-B*57:01 allele (Type IV reaction)

538
Q

Efavirenz, nevirapine -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?

A

NNRTI

Inhibits HIV DNA synthesis from RNA template by terminating DNA chain elongation
Allosteric RT inhibitor

539
Q

Atazanavir, darunavir, indinavir, ritonavir -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Adverse effects?

A

Protease inhibitor

Inhibits HIV polyprotein cleavage

Lipodystrophy
Hyperglycemia
Inhibition of cytochrome P450

540
Q

Dolutegravir, raltegravir -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?

A

Integrase inhibitor

Inhibits HIV DNA integration into host genome

541
Q

Enfuvirtide -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?

A

Fusion inhibitor

Inhibits HIV fusion with target cell membrane by binding HIV gp41

542
Q

Maraviroc -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?

A

Chemokine receptor 5 antagonist

Inhibits HIV entry by blocking the HIV gp120allosteric interaction with CCR5

543
Q

Hyaline urinary casts associated conditions?

A

Non specific, concentrated urine (Tamm-Horsfall protein)

544
Q

Fatty urinary casts associated conditions?

A

Nephrotic syndrome (lipid droplets)

545
Q

Waxy urinary casts associated conditions?

A

Chronic kidney disease (degenerated hyaline cast)

546
Q

Granular (muddy brown) urinary casts associated conditions?

A

Acute tubular necrosis (Sloughed tubular epithelial cells with pigmented granules)

547
Q

WBC urinary casts associated conditions?

A

Pyelonephritis, interstitial nephritis

548
Q

RBC urinary casts associated conditions?

A

Glomerulonephritis

549
Q

Gram positive, catalase positive, coagulase positive?

A

Staph aureus

550
Q

Gram positive, catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive?
Cause?

A

Staph epidermis

Prosthetic valve endocarditis
Catheter related infections
Prosthetic joint septic arthritis

551
Q

Gram positive, catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin resistance?
Cause?

A

Staph Saprophyticus

UTI in sexually active young women

552
Q

Nasal congestion, discharge, sneezing, cough and sore throat in children.
Clinical illness?
Common etiologic agent?

A

Nasopharyngitis (common cold)

Rhinovirus, influenza virus, coronavirus

553
Q

URT symptoms followed by hoarseness, barking cough, stridor and respiratory distress in children.
Clinical illness?
Common etiologic agent?

A

Laryngotracheitis (croup)

Parainfluenza virus

554
Q

Sore throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, coalescing pseudomembrane in children.
Clinical illness?
Common etiologic agent?

A

Diphtheria

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

555
Q

Sore throat, dysphagia, drooling and respiratory distress in children.
Clinical illness?
Common etiologic agent?

A

Epiglottitis

Haemophilus influenzae

556
Q

Upper respiratory tract symptoms followed by wheezing, cough and respiratory distress in children.
Clinical illness?
Common etiologic agent?

A

Bronchiolitis

Respiratory syncytial virus

557
Q

6 month old is brought to to the clinic. No illnesses though she has had trouble latching when breastfeeding. She can roll over when prone but cannot roll from supine position or sit unsupported. Head has head circumference above the 97th percentile and has a full anterior fontanelle. Spasticity & hyperreflexia. At birth the head was at 50th percentile. CT reveals significant dilation of the lateral ventricles.
Diagnosis?
Causes?
Treatment?

A

Congenital hydrocephalus

Congenital obstruction - aqueductal stenosis, Chiari malformation
Acquired obstruction - congenital infection, posthemorrhagic

Cerebral shunting

558
Q

What vitamin does isoniazid compete with?

A

Pyridoxine

Vitamin B6

559
Q

Stroke volume formula?

A

End diastolic volume(EDV) - End systolic volume(ESV)

560
Q

Ejection fraction formula?

A

Stroke volume/End diastolic volume

561
Q

Biopsy of Hashimoto thyroiditis?

Epidemiology?

A

Intense mononuclear infiltrate consisting of lymphocytes and plasma cells, often with germinal centers. Residual follicles are often surrounded by Hurthle cells (large oxyphilic cells filled with granular cytoplasm)

Peak incidence around 45-65 in women

562
Q

What is derived from the first pharyngeal pouch?

A

Epithelium of middle ear and auditory tube

563
Q

What is derived from the second pharyngeal pouch?

A

Epithelium of palatine tonsil crypts

564
Q

What is derived from the third pharyngeal pouch?

A

Thymus, inferior parathyroid glands

565
Q

What is derived from the fourth pharyngeal pouch?

A

Superior parathyroid glands, ultimobranchial body

566
Q

Amiodarone -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Used for?

A

Class III antiarrhythmic drug

Inhibit potassium channels (phase 3 of action potential)
Low risk of QT prolongation
Supra and ventricular arrhythmias

567
Q

Lidocaine -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Used for?

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic drug

Inhibits sodium-dependent (phase 0) depolarisation

Ischemia-induced ventricular arrhythmias

568
Q

Procainamide -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?

A

Class IA antiarrhythmic drug

Inhibits sodium-dependent (phase 0) depolarisation

Increased risk of torsades de pointes

569
Q

Verapamil -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?

A

Class IV antiarrhythmic drug

Cardio-selective calcium channel blocker
slows sinus rate and prolongs PR interval

570
Q

Thin, blood-tinged discharge expressed from nipple.
Most likely diagnosis?
Histopathology?

A

Intraductal papilloma

Proliferation of papillary cells with fibrovascular core

571
Q

Eczematous exudate?

A

Paget disease of nipple

572
Q

Hernia that travels lateral to inferior epigastric vessels.
Type?
Classic presentation?
Anatomy?

A

Indirect inguinal
Male Infants

Patent processus vaginalis
Content protrudes through deep inguinal ring

573
Q

Hernia that travels media to inferior epigastric vessels.
Type?
Classic presentation?
Anatomy?

A

Direct inguinal
Older man

Weakness of transversalis fascia
Content protrudes through hesselbach triangle

574
Q

Hernia that travels inferior to inguinal ligament.
Type?
Classic presentation?
Anatomy?

A

Femoral
Women

Weakness of proximal femoral canal
Content protrudes through femoral ring

575
Q

Language milestone at age 2.

A

Vocabulary 50-200 words

Be able to use 2 word phrases

576
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

Drugs that are associated with it?

A

Repetitive, rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk and extremities.

Dopamine antagonist medications - antipsychotics, metoclopramide

577
Q

Oculomotor nerve - eye muscles innervated?

Lesion?

A
Superior rectus
Medial rectus
Inferior rectus
Inferior oblique
Levator palpebrae superioris

Eye deviates down and laterally
Dilation of pupil
Loss of accommodation
Ptosis

578
Q

Trochlear nerve - eye muscles innervated?

Lesion?

A

Superior oblique

Eye devaited upwards
Vertical and torsional diplopia

579
Q

Abducens nerve - eye muscles innervated?

Lesion?

A

Lateral rectus

Eye deviated medially
Horizontal diplopia

580
Q

Primary hyperthyroidism -
Treatment?
Mechanism of action?

A

Thioamide drugs - methimazole and propylthiouracil

Inhibit thyroid peroxidase (enzyme responsible for both iodine organification and coupling of iodotyrosines.

581
Q

28 year old woman brought to ED due to abrupt onset of high fever, severe headache, photophobia and confusion. Temperature 38.9, BP is 90/60 and pulse 118/min. The patient is obtunded and diaphoretic. Increased resistance to passive neck flexion. Pupillary reflexes are brisk and symmetric. LP shows neutrophilic pleocytosis, elevated protein and low glucose. Wet mount shows motile trophozoites.
Diagnosis?
Pathophysiology?
Management?

A

Primary amoebic encephalitis

Infection with Naegleria fowleri (free-living, motile protozoan)
Exposure during recreational water activities
Mucosal invasion

Nearly all cases are fatal
Antibiotics (amphotericin B)

582
Q

Risk factors of rhabdomyolysis?

Lab findings - Cr, K, P, Ca

A

Crush injury
Prolonged muscle activity (eg seizure, marathon running)
Drug/medication use (eg statins, amphetamines, heroin)

Increased Cr, increased K, increased P, decreased Ca

583
Q

Most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in HIV-infected individuals?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

584
Q

Stages of grief

A
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
585
Q

7 year old boy brought to ED for abdo pain and arthralgias. he had a cough and runny nose last week but otherwise in good health. Physical exam shows palpable purpura over his buttocks and thighs. Auscultation of the lung and heart is normal. Abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation without rebound or guarding. Both knees are tender but not warm or swollen. A stool occult blood test is positive.
Urinalysis: Protein 2+, Blood moderate, RBCs many, RBC casts
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Lab?
Presentation?

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

IgA immune complex mediated vasculitis (follows upper resp or other infections)

Confirmed by skin biopsy showing IgA deposition in blood vessels.

Palpable purpura on buttocks and legs
GI pain and bleeding
Haematuria (IgA nephropathy)
Occurs after URTI

586
Q

Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) function?

A

Removal of supercoils

587
Q

15 year old boy is brought to ED due to hemoptysis. He has a hx of amputation of the right lower extremity for bone cancer in Mexico. Chest imaging reveals a lung mass. Excisional biopsy of the mass shows sheets of uniform, small (slightly larger than lymphocytes), round cells with scant, clear cytoplasm. The cellular deposits are interrupted by vascular fibrous septae, with areas of haemorrhage and an abrupt transition from viable to necrotic cells.
Diagnosis?
Epidemiology?

A

Ewing sarcoma

Mesenchymal stem cell neoplasm
Primarily seen in children/young adults
Site of origin - long bones, axial skeleton, pelvis

588
Q

HPV in the throat - what does it infect?

A

True vocal cords (Stratified squamous epithelium like the anal canal, vagina and cervix)

589
Q

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia -

Pathogenesis?

A

Disorder of conjugate horizontal gaze resulting from damage to heavily-myelinated fibers of the medial longitudinal fasciculus.

590
Q

E Coli virulence factor - Lipopolysaccharide
Mechanism?
Presentation?

A

Macrophage activation causes widespread release of IL-1, IL-6 and TNF-a

Bacteriemia and septic shock

591
Q

E Coli virulence factor - K1 capsular polysaccharide
Mechanism?
Presentation?

A

Prevents phagocytosis and complement mediated lysis

Neonatal meningitis

592
Q

E Coli virulence factor - Verotoxin (shiga-like toxin)
Mechanism?
Presentation?

A

Inactivates 60S ribosomal component, halting protein synthesis and causing cell death

Gastroenteritis (bloody)

593
Q

E Coli virulence factor - Heat stable/ heat labile exotoxins
Mechanism?
Presentation?

A

Promotes fluid and electrolyte secretion from intestinal epithelium

Gastroenteritis (watery)

594
Q

E Coli virulence factor - P fimbriae
Mechanism?
Presentation?

A

Allows adhesion to uroepithelium

UTI

595
Q

Adverse effect of permanent pacemaker?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

596
Q

Presentation of severe tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Right heart failure. Distended jugular veins, pulsatile and tender hepatomegaly, abdo distension with ascites and lower extremity edema.

597
Q

Locus ceruleus -
Location?
Functions?

A

Posterior rostral pons near the lateral floor of the 4th ventricle

Norepinephrine synthesis (control of mood, arousal, sleep-wake cycles, cognition)

598
Q
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome -
Time line?
Distinct features?
Precipitant?
Treatment?
A

1-3 days

Diffuse rigidity, hyporeflexia

Dopamine antagonist

Benzos and dantrolene
Dantrolene - inhibition of calcium ion release from sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

599
Q

Milrinone -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Used for?

A

Phosphodiesterase-3 enzyme inhibitor

Inhibition of cAMP degradation via milrinone causing positive inotropy and vasodilation (reduced preload and afterload)

600
Q

Causes of erectile dysfunction

A
Psychogenic stressors
Performance anxiety or depression
Medications (SSRIs)
Vascular or neurological
Trauma (prostatectomy)
601
Q
Amyloid precursor protein gene - 
What chromosome is it located on?
Stained with Congo red?
Effect?
Biochemical abnormalities?
Other mutation sites?
A

Chromosome 21

Viewed under polarised light, characteristic apple-green birefringence due to beta-sheet structure

Alzheimer dementia

Decreased acetylcholine levels in the hippocampus and nucleus basalis of Meynert

Presenilin 1 gene on chromosome 14
Presenilin 2 gene on chromosome 1

602
Q

Labetalol -
Type of drug?
Used for?

A

Reversible, competitive antagonist a1 and b adrenergic receptos

HTN

603
Q

Phentolamine -
Type of drug?
Used for?

A

Reversible, competitive a-adrenergic antagonist

Management of catecholamine- induced HTN crises

604
Q

Hep B genome replicative process?

A

Double-stranded DNA –> + RNA template –> partially double-stranded DNA progeny

605
Q

Hypoplasia/absence of cerebellar vermis and cystic dilation of the 4th ventricle with posterior fossa enlargement of axial MRI. Presented with developmental delay and progressive skull enlargement.
Diagnosis?

A

Dandy-Walker malformation

606
Q
Epidural hematoma -
Location?
Blood vessel involved?
Clinical manifestation?
Presentation on CT scan?
A

Between skull bone and dura

Middle meningeal artery

Lucid interval followed by LOC

Biconvex hematoma

607
Q
Subdural hematoma -
Blood vessel?
Location?
Clinical manifestation?
Presentation on CT scan?
A

Bridging cortical veins

Between the dura and arachnoid

Gradual onset of headache and confusion

Crescent-shaped hematoma

608
Q
Subarachnoid hemorrhage -
Blood vessel?
Location?
Clinical manifestation?
Presentation on CT scan?
A

Aneurysm or AV malformation of anterior and posterior communicating arteries

between the arachnoid and pia mater

Severe headache (worst of my life), fever, nuchal rigidity

Blood in basal cisterns

609
Q

Function of supraspinatus

A

Abduction

610
Q

Function of infraspinatus

A

External rotation

611
Q

Function of teres minor

A

Adduction and external rotation

612
Q

Function of Subscapularis

A

Adduction and internal rotation

613
Q

Sickle cell anemia mutation?

Clinical features?

A

Point mutation in the 6th codon of the beta-globin gene which causes the substitution of valine for glutamic acid.

Exertional dyspnea, pneumonia causing ACS and recurrent abdo and bone pain

614
Q

2 year old boy is being evaluated for failure to thrive and developmental delay. His past medical hx is significant for recurrent ear infections since 6 months old. Physical examination shows coarse facial features, corneal clouding, hepatosplenomegaly and restricted joint mobility. Mass spectrometry analysis is performed on cultured fibroblasts and reveals deficient phosphorylation of mannose residues on certain glycoproteins in Golgi apparatus.
Diagnosis?

A

Inclusion cell disease, an autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disorder.

615
Q

Superior orbital fissure -

Traveling structures?

A

CN III, IV, V1, VI, ophthalmic vein, sympathetic

616
Q

Optic canal -

Traveling structures?

A

CN II, ophthalmic artery, central retinal vein

617
Q

Foramen rotundum -

Traveling structures?

A

CN V2 (maxillary)

618
Q

Foramen ovale -

Traveling structures?

A

CN V3 (mandibular)

619
Q

Foramen spinosum -

Traveling structures?

A

Middle meningeal artery and vein.

620
Q

Internal acoustic meatus -

Traveling structures?

A

CN VII, VIII

621
Q

Jugular foramen -

Traveling structures?

A

CN IX, X, XI, Jugular vein

622
Q

Hypoglossal canal -

Traveling structures?

A

CN XII

623
Q

Foramen magnum -

Traveling structures?

A

Spinal roots of CN XI, brain stem

624
Q

13 month old girl. She used to sit on her own and loved babbling and clapping her hands. She still plays with her sisters and likes snuggles however for the past 3 months she hasn’t babbled as much and she can no longer sit up by herself. She keeps twisting her hands together. The skin on her hands is getting red, dry and painful. Weight and height are 60th percentile but head growth has decreased for 50th to 40th percentile in 3 months. She is globally hypotonic and unable to sit upright without being held. She makes no sound apart from an occasional grunt. She shows an interest in tows but doesn’t reach out for them.
Diagnosis?
Linked to?
Other features?

A

Rett syndrome

De novo mutations in the X-linked MECP2 gene.

Seizures, intellectual disability, autistic features, and breathing issues.

625
Q

Chlorpromazine, Thioridazine -
Type of drug?
Side effect?

A

Low potency 1st gen anti-psychotics

Sedation
Anticholinergic (constipation, dry mouth, urinary retention)
Orthostatic hypotension (and dizziness)
626
Q

Haloperidol, Fluphenazine -
Type of drug?
Side effect?

A

High potency 1st gen antipsychotics

Extrapyramidal symptoms:
Acute dystonia
Akathisia
Parkinsonism (rigidity)

627
Q

Early neonatal sepsis

Lab shows:
Narrow zone of beta-hemolysis on blood agar
Production of CAMP factor

Diagnosis?

A

Group B strep (Streptococcus agalactiae) - coagulase negative

628
Q

Alpha 1 Receptor -
Target organ
Effect of stimulation

Example

A

Peripheral vascular - Increased SBP (decreases pulse pressure, decreases HR)

Bladder - Contraction of internal urethral sphincter

Eye - Mydriasis

Epinephrine
NE
Phenylephrine
Methoxamine

629
Q

Beta 1 Receptor -
Target organ
Effect of stimulation

Example

A

Heart - Increased HR, contractility and conductance

Epinephrine
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Isoproterenol

630
Q

Beta 2 Receptor -
Target organ
Effect of stimulation

Example

A

Peripheral vasculature (skeltal muscle) - vasodilatation, decreased DBP

Bronchi - bronchodilatation

Uterus - Relaxation (tocolysis)

Isoproterenol
Terbutaline
Ritodrine

631
Q

What is DRESS syndrome?

Associated drugs?

A

Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms

2-8 weeks after drug exposure

Anticonvulsants (phenytoin, carbamazepine), allopurinol, sulfonamides and antibiotics (minocycline, vancomycin)

632
Q

Gram positive cocci, catalase negative, alpha hemolytic, optochin resistant, bile insoluble?

A

Viridans streptococci

Dental caries
SBE after dental work

633
Q

62 year old man comes in with watery diarrhea. He has also been having episodes of dyspnea and wheezing. His wife noticed sometimes he gets very flushed and red. The patient has no abdo pain, vomiting, cough or fever. He has a hx of HTN and takes amlodipine. Abdo CT reveals mass lesions in the right liver lobe and ileum. Surgery is scheduled to resect the tumor.
Diagnosis?
Tests?
Treatment?

A

Carcinoid syndrome

Elevated 24-hour urinary excretion of 5-HIAA
CT/MRI of abdo pelvis

Ocreotide for symptomatic patients

634
Q

Gastrin -
Actions?
Secretion site?

A

Increased gastric H+ secretion

G cells (gastric antrum, duodenum)

635
Q

Somatostatin -
Actions?
Secretion site?

A

Decreased secretion of GI hormones

D cells (pancreatic islets and gut mucosa)

636
Q

CCK -
Actions?
Secretion site?

A

Increased pancreatic enzyme and HCO3 secretion

I cells (SI)

637
Q

Secretin -
Actions?
Secretion site?

A

Increased pancreatic HCO3 secretion
Decreased gastric H secretion

S cells (SI)

638
Q

GIP -
Actions?
Secretion site?

A

Increased insulin release
Decreased gastric H secretion

K cells (SI)

639
Q

Motilin -
Actions?
Secretion site?

A

Increased GI motility

M cells (SI)

640
Q

Normal aging of the heart?

A

Decreased left ventricular chamber size
Sigmoid shape septum

Atrophy of myocardium –> increased interstitial connective tissue

progressive accumulatin of cytoplasmic granules containing brownish lipofuscin pigment

641
Q

45 year old woman comes into the office due to unintentional loss of 6.8 kg over the past 6 months. She used to enjoy dining with her friends but has become concerned about lower abdo pressure and feeling full very quickly. She also has epigastric pain but no dysphagia, regurg, vomiting or diarrhea. Physical exam shows bilateral adnexal fullness. USS shows bilateral complex ovarian masses with solid and ovarian masses.
Diagnosis?
Histology?

A

Krukenberg tumour, a primary gastric cancer that has metastisized.

Nests of signet ring cells. Mucin displacing nucleus.

642
Q
Lowering cutoff of diagnostic test:
False positive
False negatives
Sensitivity
PPV
Specificity
A
Reduced false negatives
Increased false positives
Decreased true negatives
Increased true negatives
Increased sensitivity
Decreased specificity
PPV - not changed
643
Q

Cytochrome P450 inducers

A
Carbamazepine
Cyclophosphamide
Rifampin
Alcohol (chronic)
Modafinil

Griseofulvin
Phenytoin
St John Wort

644
Q

Cytochrome P450 inhibitors

A

Sulfonamides
Isoniazid
Cimetidine, ciprofloxacin
Ketoconazole

Fluroquinolones
Amiodarone/azole antifungals (acute)
Clarithromycin
Ethanol (acute), erythromycin
Ritonavir (protease inhibitor)
645
Q

Isoniazid -
Mechanism?
Enzyme?

A

Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis

Mycobacterial catalase peroxidase

646
Q
36 year old with panacinar emphysema, basilar lung areas predominantly affected, smoking accelerates disease, associated liver dysfunction or cirrhosis.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis of emphysema?
Testing?
Inheritance?
A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Due to unchecked destruction of the interalveolar septa

Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio, decreased DLCO
Decreased serum a-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Autosomal codominant

647
Q

Gram positive, catalase negative, gamma hemolytic (no hemolysis), grown in bile and PYR-positive

A

Enterococci

IE after GU procedures
UTI
Wound infection

648
Q

Gram positive, catalase negative, gamma hemolytic (no hemolysis), grown in bile and PYR-negative

A

Streptococcus gallolyticus

Bacteremia/IE associated with colonic cancer

649
Q

Bcl-2 protein function?

A

Inhibits apoptosis of tumour cells, thereby facilitating neoplastic growth.

650
Q

Lymph from superior portion of the bladder drains to?

Lymph from inferior portion of the bladder drains to?

A

External iliac nodes

Internal iliac nodes

651
Q

Lymph from the prostate drains to?

A

Internal iliac nodes

652
Q

Lymph from testes drains to?

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

653
Q

Lymph from the upper third of the rectum drains to?

A

Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes

654
Q
Multiple and deep ulcers
Base may have gray to yellow exudate
Organisms often clump in long parallel strands
Painful initially
Disease?
Causative agent?
A

Chancroid

Haemophilus decreyi

655
Q
Multiple, small, grouped ulcers
Shallow with erythematous base
Multinucleated giant cells and intranuclear inclusions (Cowdry type A)
Painful initially
Disease?
Causative agent?
A

Genital herpes

herpes simplex virus 1&2

656
Q

Extensive and progressive ulcerative lesions without lymphadenopathy
Base may have granulation-like tissue
Deeply staining gram-negative intracytoplasmic cysts (Donovan bodies)
Not painful initially
Disease?
Causative agent?

A

Granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)

Klebsiella granulomatis

657
Q

Single, indurated, well-circumscribed ulcer
Clean base
Thin, delicate, corkscrew-shaped organisms on dark-field microscopy
Not painful initially
Disease?
Causative agent?

A

Syphilis

Treponema pallidum

658
Q

Small and shallow ulcers
Large, painful, coalesced inguinal lymph nodes (buboes)
Intracytoplasmic chlamydial inclusion bodies in epithelial cells and leukocytes
Not painful initially
Disease?
Causative agent?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

Chlamydia trachomatis

659
Q

3 year old girl is brought to ED with abrupt-onset vomiting followed by frequent, large-volume, watery diarrhea. She has not received vaccinations. Mild dehydration and the abdomen is soft and mildly tender. Bowel sounds are increased. PCR testing yields a virus with a segmented, double-stranded RNA genome.
Diagnosis?
Lab testing?

A

Rotavirus

Blunting of the villi in the duodenum and proximal jejunum

660
Q

Triangle-508
What is it?
Effect?
Disease?

A

The most common CFTR gene mutation

This deletion causes abnormal protein folding and failure of glycosylation. The CFTR protein is then targeted for degradation by the proteasome causing an almost complete absence from the apical membrane

Cystic fibrosis

661
Q

34 year old comes to the office due to white plaques on his buccal mucosa. He was found to be HIV positive with CD4+ count of 280/mm3. He was noncompliant. The patient returns 3 years later due to several months of pain and itching in the perirectal area.He also has intermittent rectal bleeding and often sees bright red block on the tissue after wiping. Its a single hard mass with superficial ulceration about 2x2cm in the anal canal. No palpable lymphadenopathy.
Diagnosis?
Linked to?

A

Anal squamous cell carcinoma

Human papillomavirus

662
Q

Ashkenazi Jewish couple asking about autosomal recessive disorder of sphingomyelinase deficiency.
Diagnosis?
Key features?

A

Neimann-Pick

Macular cherry-red spot
Progressive neurodegeneration
Hepatosplenomegaly

663
Q

Ashkenazi Jewish couple asking about autosomal recessive disorder of beta-hexosaminidase deficiency.
Diagnosis?
Accumulated substrate?
Key features?

A

Tay-Sachs

GM2 (ganglioside)

Macular cherry-red spot surrounded by white macule
Progressive neurodegeneration

664
Q

Ashkenazi Jewish couple asking about autosomal recessive disorder of beta-glucocerebrosidase deficiency.
Diagnosis?
Accumulated substrate?
Key features?

A

Gaucher

Glucocerebroside

Hepatospelnomegaly
Pancytopenia
Bone pain/osteopenia

665
Q
X-linked recessive alpha-galactosidase deficiency.
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?
Accumulated substrate?
Key features?
A

Fabry

X-linked recessive lipid storage disorder (characterised by alpha-galactosidase A deficiency)

Globotriasylceramide

Angiokeratomas
Peripheral neuropathy
Glomerulopathy

666
Q

Autosomal recessive galactocerebrosidase deficiency.
Diagnosis?
Accumulated substrate?
Key features?

A

Krabbe

Galactocerebroside and psychosine

Progressive neurodegeneration
Peripheral neuropathy
Optic atrophy

667
Q

Autosomal recessive Arylsulfatase A deficiency.
Diagnosis?
Accumulated substrate?
Key features?

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

Cerebroside sulfate

Progressive neurodegeneration
Peripheral neuropathy

668
Q

Most inherited cause of intellectual disability?
Defect is due to?
Early manifestations?
Classic physical features?

A

Fragile X syndrome

Unstable expansion of trinucelotide repeats in the fragile mental retardation 1 (FMR1) gene. Occurs due to the methylation of this FMR1 gene inactivating it.

Developmental delay and delayed motor and language milestones. Also mild to moderate ID.

Prominent forehead, large ears, long narrow face, prominent chin and macroorchidism

669
Q

First line treatment for localised psoriasis?

A

Topical corticosteroids (diflorasone)

Vitamin D analogs (calcipotriene, calcitriol) - inhibit T cell and keratinocyte proliferation and stimulation of keratinocyte differentiation.

670
Q

Manic episode clinical features

A

> 1 weeks of elevated or irritable mood and increased energy

>3 of the following symptoms:
Distractibility
Impulsivity, risky behaviour
Grandiosity
Flight of ideas
Increased activity/psychomotor agitation
Decreased need for sleep
Talkativeness/pressured speech
671
Q

What does menotropin act as? Effect?

A

FSH

Triggers the formation of a dominant ovarian follicle

672
Q

What does administration of hCG act like? Effect?

A

LH surge

Ovulation

673
Q

Deep inguinal ring opening?

Superficial inguinal ring opening?

A

Transversalis fascia

External oblique muscle aponeurosis

674
Q

Muscle pain, cramps and weakness involving the proximal muscles. Delayed tendon reflexes and myoedema and features of hypothyroidism.
Disorder?
Creatine kinase?

A

Hypothyroid myopathy

Raised creatine kinase
Elevated TSH level

675
Q

Proximal muscle pain and weakness usually within weeks too months after starting statins
Disorder?
Creatine kinase?

A

Statin-induced myopathy

Increased

676
Q

Mechanism of action of hydroxyurea?

Used for?

A

Increases fetal hemoglobin (Hb F) synthesis through an incompletely understood mechanism.

Sickle cell disease - with frequent pain crises

677
Q

6 day old boy with difficulty feeding, trismus. Also he has spasms and has clenched hands, dorsiflexed feet and opsithotonus.
Diagnosis?
Treatment?
Prevention?

A

Neonatal tetanus

Supportive care
Abx and tetanus immune globulin

Immunization of pregnant women and those of child bearing age
Hygienic delivery and cord care
(Transplacental IgG)

678
Q

Foscarnet -
Used for?
Mechanism of action?

A

Pyrophosphate analog sometimes used for ganciclovir-resistant CMV infections
Binds in vitro to viral-encoded enzymes such as DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase.

Chelate calcium

679
Q

Rifampin -
Mechanism of action?
Side effects?

A

Inhibition of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

GI side effects, rash, red-orange body fluids, cytopenias

680
Q

Isoniazid -
Mechanism of action?
Side effects?

A

Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis

Neurotoxicity (give vitamin B6). hepatotoxicity

681
Q

Pyrazinamide -
Mechanism of action?
Side effects?

A

Unclear

Hepatoxicity, hyperuricemia

682
Q

Ethambutol -
Mechanism of action?
Side effects?

A

Inhibition of arabinosyl transferase (?)

Optic neuropathy - decreased visual acuity, central scotoma, or color blindness

683
Q

Sudden cardiac death -
Precipitated by?
Autopsy?

A

Cardiac arrhythmia

Cardiac hypertrophy with patchy interstitial fibrosis-

684
Q

24 year old woman comes in with joint pain, fatigue, edema and weight gain for the past 4 weeks. She has recurrent oral ulcers, facial puffiness and 3+ peripheral edema. Swelling, erythema and tenderness are noted over bilateral MCP and POP joints. Kidney biopsy shows glomerular capillary wall thickening with no increase in cellularity. When the sample is stained with methenamine silver, irregular spikes protruding from the glomerular basement membrane.
Diagnosis?

A

Membranous glomerulopathy

“spike and dome”

685
Q

Epidermis easily comes off with gentle pressure.

Diagnosis?

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

Due to exfoliatin exotoxin

686
Q
Bacterial meningitis
CSF findings -
Cell count?
Cell type?
Glucose?
Protein?
A

Very increased

Neutrophils

Decreased

Very high protein

687
Q
Viral meningitis CSF findings -
Cell count?
Cell type?
Glucose?
Protein?
A

Increase

Lymphocytes

Normal

Normal or increase

688
Q
Fungal or TB meningitis CSF findings -
Cell count?
Cell type?
Glucose?
Protein?
A

Increase

Lymphocytes

Decrease

Increase

689
Q
Herpes encephalitis CSF findings -
Cell count?
Cell type?
Glucose?
Protein?
A

Increase

Lymphocytes and erythrocytes

Normal

Increase

690
Q
Guillain-Barre syndrome CSF findings -
Cell count?
Cell type?
Glucose?
Protein?
A

Normal

Normal

Normal

Increase

691
Q

Graves ophthalmopathy cause?

Treatment?

A

Stimulation of orbital fibroblasts by thyrotropin receptor antibodies and cytokines released by activated T cells.Excess deposition of extracellular glycosaminoglycans and inflammatory infiltration lead to expansion of extraocular muscle and retro-orbital tissues.

Glucocorticoids

692
Q

ANP in the kidneys:
Where is ANP secreted from?
Effect in kidneys?

A

Secreted by atrial cardiomyocytesin response to atrial stretch

Dilates afferent artioles, increasing GFR and urinary excretion of sodium and water

693
Q

ANP in the adrenal gland?

A

Restricts aldosterone secretion leading to increase H2O and sodium excretion by the kidneys.

694
Q

ANP in the blood vessels?

A

Relaxes vascular smooth muscle in arterioles and venules producing vasodilation.

695
Q

Nosocomial bloodstream infections?

Associated with?

A

Coagulase-negative staphylococci
Staphylococcus aureus
Enterococci
Candida species

Intravascular catheters

696
Q

Motile, curved, gram-negative rod and causing gastroenteritis.
Diagnosis?
Transmission?
Associated?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

Ingestion of contaminated food (undercooked poultry)
Direct contact with domesticated animals (especially puppies from kennels)

Guillain-Barre syndrome (ascending, symmetric muscle weakness)

697
Q

21 year old man in a stuporous condition returned from a visit to Mexico 2 weeks ago. One week ago, high grade fever, headaches, severe myalgias and joint pains. BP 80/50 and HR is 128/min. Examination shows a diffuse maculopapular rash, multiple purpuric lesions, and hepatomegaly. Lab studies show marked thrombocytopenia, leukopenia and elevated liver aminotransferases.
Diagnosis?
Mechanism?

A

Dengue hemorrhagic fever

Infection with a different viral serotype

Increased vascular permeability
Thrombocytopenia
Spontaneous bleeding –> shock
Positive tourniquet test (petechiae after cuff inflation for 5 minutes)

698
Q

6 hour boy in a newborn nursery with feeding difficulties. the patient was born at 39 weeks gestation to a 33 year old via C section. Failure to progress and late decelerations. Infant with excessive drooling and occasional coughing. Infant attempts to breastfeed however several bouts of coughing and perioral cyanosis with O2 sats of 85%.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula with esophageal atresia

Failure of primitive foregut to separate from airway

699
Q

Brief transient euphoria, lethargy, disorientation, LOC, poor coordination and slurred speech. Effects last about 15-45 minutes. Afterwards perioral and perinasal rash on examination.
Drug?

A

Inhalants

700
Q

Etoposide -
What is it?
Mechanism of action?

A

Chemotherapeutic agent

Inhibits the dealing activity of topoisomerase II.

Cause chromosomal breaks to accumulate in dividing cells.

701
Q

VHL gene -
Syndrome?
Associated neoplasms?

A

Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

Hemangioblastomas
Clear cell renal carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma

702
Q

Bones in rickets?

A

Excess of unmineralised osteoid matrix and epiphyseal cartilage

703
Q

8 Year old Middle eastern immigrant is brought in with low grade fever and skin rash. Rash started on his face and spread rapidly down his body. The boy just returned from a month long trip to Yemen where he visited relatives. Examination shows a generalised, fine, pinkish, maculopapular rash and tender lymphadenopathy bilaterally behind the ears. Most likely virus?

A

Togavirus - Rubeola/”Rubella”

Child probably didn’t complete vaccine regimen recommended by CDC

704
Q

Fenofibrate -
Mechanism?
Major lipid effects?
Side effects?

A

Activates Proliferator-activated receptor-alpha
Decreased VLDL synthesis

Decreased Triglycerides and increased HDL

Muscle toxicity
Gallstones

705
Q

First line treatment of Trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine - decreases sodium current on multiple levels (can cause bone marrow suppression)

706
Q

Potter sequence?

A

Urinary tract anomaly
Anuria/oliguria in utero
Oligohydramnios

Pulmonary hypoplasia
Flat facies
Limb deformities

707
Q

59 year old man complains of difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a chair. He also reports diplopia and dry mouth. Past surgical history is remarkable for intramedullary nailing of his right tibia after he sustained injuries in an accident. Smoking 1.5 paks daily for 30 years. He states he has been married for 33 years but he isn’t performing as well as he used to. Examination is significant for decreased deep tendon reflexes (esp quadriceps tendons). CXR shows an irregular round mass in the upper lobe of the right lung.

Most likely diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

Autoimmune disorder - antibodies against presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel and NMJ

708
Q

Specific gastric cancer risk factors?

A

Dietary nitrates
Alcohol and tobacco use
H pylori

709
Q

Specific liver cancer risk factors?

A

Hep B & C
Liver cirrhosis
Hemochromatosis
Aflatoxin

710
Q

Specific colorectal cancer risk factors?

A

Hereditary CRC syndromes
Inflammatory bowel disease
Obesity
Charred or fried foods

711
Q

Pregnanct woman in cardiogenic shock, hypoxemic resp failure, DIC and seizures.
Diagnosis?
Histology?

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

Pulmonary artery branch with swirls of fetal squamous cells

712
Q

Uncomfortable urge to move the legs with unpleasant sensations in the legs, onset with inactivity or at night and relief with movement (e.g walking, stretching).

Diagnosis?
Causes?
Treatment?

A

Restless leg syndrome

Idiopathic
Iron deficiency
Uremia
Diabetes (especially with neuropathy)

Avoidance of aggravating factors (eg alcohol, sleep deprivation)
Dopamine agonists (pramipexole)
713
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome -

Characterised by?

A

Dysphagia and iron deficiency anemia
Koilonychia and shiny red tongue
(Treat with iron supplements)

714
Q

The metanephric blastema gives rise to?

A

Glomeruli, Bowman’s space, proximal tubules, the loop of Henle and DCT

715
Q

What is B? (statistics)

A

Probability of committing a type II error

716
Q

How to calculate statistical power?

A

1-Beta

717
Q

What is a type 1 error?

A

When researchers reject the null hypothesis when its really true

718
Q

Portal vein thrombosis presentation?

A

Portal HTN, splenomegaly and varcosities at postocaval anastomoses

719
Q

> 1 day and <1 month, sudden onset, full return to function of delusion, hallucinations, disorganised speech, grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviour

A

Brief psychotic disorder

Greater than 1 month and <6 months is schizophreniform disorder

720
Q

Amatoxins in amanita phalloides inhibit?

A

RNA polymerase II (halting mRNA synthesis)

721
Q

PCOS long term risk

A

Endometrial carcinoma

722
Q

Hemophilias and desmopressin therapy

A

Increases circulating factor VIII

Endothelial secretion

723
Q

Bipolar I vs Bipolar II

A

Manic episode VS hypomanic episodes

Bipolar II also has to have >1 major depressive episodes

724
Q

Loss of pain, temperature and light touch on contralateral side
Loss of motor function and vibration, position, and deep touch sensation on ipsilateral side

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

Hemisection of the cord

725
Q

MEN type 1

A
Primary HyperPTH
Pituitary tumours (prolactin, visual defects)
Pancreatic tumours (gastrinomas)
726
Q

Fevers, fatigue, myalgias, headache, flulike symptoms also anemia, thrombocytopenia and increased LFTs while in northeastern USA outdoors.
Blood smear shows intraerythrocytic pleomorphic ring inclusions.
Diagnosis?
Transmission?

A

Babesiosis

Ixodus scapularis tick (same for lyme disease and HGA)

727
Q

Diabetes mellitus with postprandial nausea, vomiting of undigested food, bloating and early satiety.
Diagnosis?
Treatment?
Mechanism?

A

Diabetic gastroparesis

Metoclopramide, a dopamine 2 receptor antagonist
Erythromycin - Important for activation of motilin receptor

728
Q

Constrictive pericarditis -
Physical examination?
Pathogenesis?

A

Increased jugular venous pressure, pericardial knock, pulsus paradoxus, kussmaul sign

Rigid pericardium prevents ventricular expansion and restricts diastolic fillings
Predominantly right-sided manifestations

729
Q

Elderly patients with oropharyngeal dysphagia, halitosis, regurg and recurrent aspiration.

A

Zenker diverticulum

730
Q

Vaginal bleeding, enlarged uterus inconsistent with dates, extremely high B-hCG levels that can cause hyperemesis gravidarum, pre-eclampsia, hyperthyroidism, theca-lutein cysts.
Diagnosis?
Pathologic features?
Kayotype?
Immunochemistry?
Risk of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia?

A

Complete hydatidiform mole

Diffuse trophoblastic proliferation and edematous chorionic villi “bunch of grapes” appearance
No fetal/embryonic tissue

46 XX or XY

p57-negative

15%-30%

731
Q

Vaginal bleeding, crampy abdo pain, normal uterine skin, normal to high B-hCG levels with some enlarged villi with focal trophoblastic proliferation and fetal/embryonic tissue is present.

A

69 XXX or XXY (maternal and paternal DNA)

p57-positive

<5%

732
Q
Colitis associated colorectal cancer -
Age?
Origin of dysplasia?
Location?
Tumours?
Histology?
Mutations?
A

Younger (age 40-55)

Flat (nonpolypoid) lesions

Proximal > distal

Multifocal

Mucinous and/or signet ring cells
Poorly differentiated

Early p53 mutation
Late APC gene mutation

733
Q
Sporadic colorectal cancer -
Age?
Origin of dysplasia?
Location?
Tumours?
Histology?
Mutations?
A

Older (age >60)

Polypoid lesions

Distal > proximal

Singular

Rarely mucinous
Well differentiated

Early APC gene mutation
Late p53 mutation

734
Q

Poison ivy dermatitis -
Allergic substance?
Type of reaction?
Effector cells?

A

Urushiol

Type IV hypersensitivity

CD8+ T cells

735
Q

TP53 gene -
Syndrome?
Associated neoplasms?

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

Sarcomas, breast cancer, brain tumours, adrenocortical carcinoma, leukemia

736
Q

Autism spectrum disorder clinical features

A

Deficits in social communications and interactions: sharing of emotions, nonverbal communication, developing and understanding relationships

Restricted repetitive patterns of behaviours: repetitive movements or speech, insistence on sameness, intense, fixated interests

737
Q

Effect of excess vasoactive intestinal peptide?

A

Watery diarrhea, hypokalemia and aclorhydria syndrome (pancreatic cholera)

(VIPoma)

738
Q
Platelet count - Normal
Prothrombin time - Normal
Partial thromboplastin time -  Increased
Plasma fibrinogen values - Normal
Peripheral blood smear - Normal
Options:
von Willebrand disease
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
TTP-HUS
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
A

von Willebrand disease

Normally binds collaged
Factor VIII is rapidly degraded

739
Q
Platelet count - Decreased
Prothrombin time - Normal
Partial thromboplastin time -  Normal
Plasma fibrinogen values - Normal
Peripheral blood smear - Isolated thrombocytopenia
Options:
von Willebrand disease
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
TTP-HUS
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
A

Immune thrombocytopenia purpura

740
Q
Platelet count - Decreased
Prothrombin time - Normal
Partial thromboplastin time- Normal
Plasma fibrinogen values - Normal
Peripheral blood smear - RBC fragmentation (schistocytes)
Options:
von Willebrand disease
Immune Decreased purpura
TTP-HUS
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
A

TTP-HUS

741
Q
Platelet count - Normal
Prothrombin time - Increased
Partial thromboplastin time - Increased
Plasma fibrinogen values - Decreased
Peripheral blood smear - RBC fragmentation
Options:
von Willebrand disease
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
TTP-HUS
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
A

DIC

742
Q

IV drug users and right-sided endocarditis -

Cause?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

743
Q

Photoaging -
Caused by?
Wrinkles caused by?

A

Excess exposure UV A wavelengths caused by epidermal atrophy with flattening of rete ridges

Decreased collagen fibril production and increased degradation of collagen and elastin in the dermis

744
Q

First line treatment of agitation of psychosis associated with delirium?

A

Haloperidol or Quetiapine

745
Q

A diarrheal outbreak is reported in Ohio. Six, healthy children age 10-11 and two teachers developed acute vomiting and diarrhea whithin a 2 day period. It is described as watery and without blood or mucus. Three of them are febrile. None have travelled abroad and are up to date with immunizations.
Pathogens?

A

Norovirus
Single-stranded RNA genome
(most common cause of viral gastroenteritis)c

746
Q

Immunocompetent patients with a heterophile antibody-negative mononucleosis-like syndrome - most likely diagnosis?

A

Cytomegalovirus

747
Q

Fidaxomicin -
Type of drug?
Used for?
Mechanism of action?

A

Macrocyclic antibiotic

C.difficile

Inhibits the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase leading to protein synthesis impairment and cell death

748
Q

Sickle cell disease effect on spleen

A

Splenic atrophy and fibrosis

749
Q

What is regulator of iron homeostasis?

What secretes it?

A

Hepcidin

Acute phase reactant secreted by hepatic parenchymal cells

750
Q

S-100 immunoreactivity - diagnosis?

A

Schwannomas

751
Q

What is abetaliproteinemia?

A

An inherited ability to synthesize apoliprotein B. Lipids absorbed by the small intestine cannot be transported into the blood and accumulate in the testinal epithelium resulting in ennterocytes with clear or fomay cytoplasm

752
Q

6 year old boy with autosomal recessive disorder that has bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with prologed QT interval.
Diagnosis?
Genetic defect?

A

Jervell and Lange-Neilsen syndrome

753
Q
HIV -
CD4 <200/mm3
Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Infection risk?
Prophylaxis?
A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

754
Q
HIV -
CD4 <100/mm3
Positive Toxoplasma IgG antibody
Infection risk?
Prophylaxis?
A

Toxoplasma gondii

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

755
Q

HIV -
CD4 <50mm3
Infection risk?
Prophylaxis?

A

Mycobacterium avium complex

Azithromycin

756
Q

44 year old man due to several weeks of difficulty walking and frequent falls. Reports episodes of sharp, stabbing pain in his extremities (Lancinating pains). The patient has HIV acquired from unprotected sexual contact and is non adherent with treatments. Deep tendon reflexes are absent at the knee and ankle bilaterally. Proprioception and vibration sensation are reduced throughout the lower extremities. He has a wide based gait and a positive Romberg sign.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Epidemiology?

A

Tabes dorsalis

Treponema pallidum spirochetes directly damage the dorsal sensory roots
Secondary degeneration of dorsal columns

Increased incidence of syphilis in men who have sex with men and HIV-infected patients

757
Q

Serrated or adenomatous colonic polyps (villous > tubular) -

Neoplastic or non neoplastic?

A

Neoplastic

758
Q

Hyperplastic, inflammatory, juvenile, submucosal colonic polyps -
Neoplastic or non neoplastic?

A

Non-neoplastic

759
Q
28 year old woman comes to ED with acute onset abdo pain, nausea and confusion. Urine is reddish in colour and darkens on standing for 24 hours. IV dextrose is administered and her symptoms improve significantly. Dextrose infusion improved her condition.
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?
Treatment?
Prevention?
A

Acute intermittent porphyria, autosomal dominant disorder of the heme synthesis pathway
Caused by prophobilinogen deaminase deficiency

Inhibiting ALA synthase which is downregulated by heme and glucose

Avoidance of alcohol, smoking, griseofulvin, rifampin

760
Q

Benign tumour composed of blood vessels, smooth muscle and fat.
Diagnosis?
Associated with?

A

Angiomyolipoma

Tuberous sclerosis - autosomal dominant characterised by cortical tubers and subependymal hamartomas. Facial angiofibromas and leaf shaped patches of skin lacking pigment can also occur.

761
Q

34 year old woman being evaluated for several months of moderate hearing loss and a disturbing ringing noise in her left ear. Her father has bilateral hearing loss attributed to old age. Canals are patent and tympanic membranes appear grey with well visualised light reflex. Hearing is diminished on the left side. Neurologic examination shows left sided facial numbness, an asymmetric smile and decreased afferent and efferent corneal reflex responses in the left eye.
Diagnosis?
Location?

A

Intracranial schwannomas.

Cerebellopontine angle (From CN VIII - acoustic)

762
Q

Intellectual disability, gait abnormality, eczema and a musty body odor in 3 year old baby.
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?

A

Phenylketonuria

Autosomal recessive

763
Q

What is the Hawthorne effect?

A

Tendency of subjects to change their behaviour as a result of their awareness that they are being studied.

764
Q

What is the Berkson’s bias?

A

Selection bias created by choosing hospitalization patients as the control group.

765
Q

What is the Pygmalion effect?

A

Describes the fact that a researcher’s beliefs in the efficacy of treatment can potentially affect the outcome.

766
Q

PaO2 - Normal
SaO2 - Decreased
Oxygen content - Decreased

A

CO poisoning

767
Q

PaO2 - Normal
SaO2 - Normal
Oxygen content - Normal

A

Cyanide poisoning

768
Q

PaO2 - Normal
SaO2 - Normal
Oxygen content - Decreased

A

Anemia (Decreased Hgb)

769
Q

PaO2 - Normal
SaO2 - Normal
Oxygen content - Increased

A

Polycythemia (Increased Hgb)

770
Q

PaO2 - Decreased
SaO2 - Decreased
Oxygen content - Decreased

A

High altitude

771
Q

Triad of reactive arthritis

A

Urethritis
Conjunctivitis
Mono/oligoarticular arthritis
(Axial involvement would include sacroiliitis)

772
Q

First aortic arch derivatives

A

Part of the maxillary artery

773
Q

Second aortic arch derivatives

A

Hyoid artery and stapedial artery

774
Q

Third aortic arch derivatives

A

Common carotid artery

Proximal internal carotid artery

775
Q

Fourth aortic arch derivatives

A

On left -> aortic arch

On right -> proximal right subclavian artery

776
Q

Sixth aortic arch derivative

A

Proximal pulmonary arteries

On left -> ductus arteriosus

777
Q

Clinical features of oppositional defiant disorder?

A

Pattern of irritable mood for >6 months

Argues with adults, defias authority figures, refused to follow rules
Deliberately annoys others
Blames others for own mistakes or misbehaviour
Easily annoyed, angered or vindictive
Not due to another disorder

778
Q

Varenicline -
Type of drug?
Effects?

A

Partial agonist of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.

Reduces withdrawal cravings while decreasing the pleasurable effects of cigarettes and other tobacco products.

779
Q

Weight gain and edema with 4+ protein and oval fat bodies with nephrotic syndrome. Presence of phospholipase A2 receptor.
Diagnosis?

A

Membranous nephropathy

780
Q

31 year old woman comes in with transient visual changes tat are characterised by loss of vision for a minute precipitated by bending or lifting objects. She has had persistent headaches. Takes OTC medication as needed. Has bilaterally symmetric papilledema. Symtpms worsen with Valsalva manouvre.

Diagnosis?
Effect on optic nerve?

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

Impairs axoplasmic flow

781
Q

Immunodeficiency disorder -

Recurrent Neisseria infection

A

Terminal complement deficiency

782
Q

16 year old has difficulty walking. He has thoracic scoliosis and multiple small scars on his hands. He frequently burns his hands by accident because he can’t feel the heat. He has 1+ biceps reflex and 3+ patella reflexes bilaterally as well as decreased muscle strength in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. His hand muscles are atrophic and position and vibration in the feet are also impaired.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Syringomyelia

Central cystic dilation in the cervical spinal cord slowly enlarges and causes damage to the ventral white commissure and anterior horns.

783
Q

How do CAAT and TATA box promote initiation of transcription?

A

Act as binding sites for general transcription factors and RNA polymerase II

784
Q

Effects of excess choline (Insecticide - organophosphate)

A
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm
Bradycardia
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
785
Q

Causes of hypoxemia with normal alveolar to arterial gradient

A

Hypoventilation - obesity hypoventilation syndrome, neuromuscular disorders

Low inspired fraction of O2 - High altitude

786
Q

Amphotericin B, nystatin -
Type of drug?
Mechanism?

A

Polyenes

Bind to ergosterol molecules in fungal cell membranes, creating pores and causing lysis

787
Q

Ketoconazole, Fluconazole, itroconazole -
Type of drug?
Mechanism?

A

Inhibit the synthesis of of ergosterol

788
Q

Caspofungin, micafungin -
Type of drug?
Mechanism?

A

Echinocandins

Inhibit the synthesis of glucan, a component of the cell wall

789
Q

Flucytosine -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?

A

Pyrimidines

Converted to 5-fluorouracil within the fungal cell and interferes with fungal RNA and prootein synthesis

790
Q

Drug-induced lupus erythematosus -
Causes?
Lab findings?
Clinical features?

A

Procainamide, Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Minocycline, TNF-a inhibitors (e.g etanercept)

Anti-histone antibodies present in >95% of patients
(Anti-dsDNA antibodies rarely seen)

Abrupt-onset symptoms:
Fever/fatigue
Arthalgias/arthritis
Rash
Serositis

Predilection for slow acetylators

791
Q
5 year old boy is brought to the ED, by his parents for sever resp distress? He has not received any immunisations due to parental preference. Very uncomfortable and anxious. He is leaning forward and making a loud, harsh sound with every inspiration.  Temperature is 39.6. Patient is intubated immediately. During intubation, the epiglottis is visualised and appears markedly swollen and erythematous. 
Diagnosis?
Virulence factor?
Radiology?
Type of vaccine?
A

Haemophilus influenzae type B.

Capsule of Polyribosylribitol phosphate.It protects the bacterium by binding factor H preventing C3b deposition

Thumbprint sign

Conjugate Hib vaccine

792
Q

Warfarin-induced skin necrosis -
When?
Why?

A

Due to the transient hypercoaguable state in the first few days of warfarin therapy

Decreased protein C and S and persistent clotting factor II, IX and X activity

793
Q

Neurodegenerative disorders -
A neuronal protein that primarily exists in an alpha-helical secondary structure is found to be in beta-sheets conformation. The altered protein is resistant to protease and has accumulated in large quantities within the cells. Further investigation shows that the abnormal isoform can perpetually induce the same conformational change within normally folded proteins.
Diagnosis?

A

Prion diseases are progressive neurodegenerative disorders caused by accumulation of an abnormally folded protein within the brain

794
Q

45 year old woman calls 911 due to severe chest pain and dyspnea. The ED finds the patient unresponsive with no pulse and she does not revive. She had prolonged hx of SLE and was recently evaluated for progressive muscle weakness. Records show increased BP, and examination findings of facial plethora, truncal obesity and skin ecchymoses. Also mild hyperglycaemia. Medical hx of left hip replacement for osteonecrosis.
Diagnosis?

A

Cushing syndrome due to medication of SLE

795
Q

Baclofen -
Type of drug?
Used for?

A

Agonist at GABA-B receptor

Effective as monotherapy for treatment of spasticity secondary to brain and spinal cord disease (MS)

796
Q
Sudden cardiac death in a young person with FH of SCD and asymmetric septal hypertrophy.
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?
Echo findings?
Common mutations?
A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Autosomal dominant genetic disorder of the cardiac myocytes

Increase in LV mass
Reduced LV cavity size
Asymmetric increase in LV wall thickness (septum)

Left atrial enlargement
Single point missense mutations in the genes for the beta-myosin heavy chain and myosin-binding protein C

797
Q

Acidosis stimulated renal ammoniagenesis process?

A

Process by which renal epithelial cells metabolise glutamine, generating ammonium and bicarbonate.

798
Q

Maple syrup urine disease -
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?
Treatment?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder

Characterized by the defective breakdown of branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase complex (leucine, isoleucine and valine)

Thiamine, Lipoate, Coenzyme A, FAD, NAD

799
Q

Forms of cardiac rupture (most to least common) and their associated clinical signs

A

Free wall rupture - hemopericardium and cardiac tamponade (profound hypotension and shock - 5-14 days)

Ventricular septal rupture - acute ventricular septal defect and left-to-right shunting and new holosystolic murmur (3-5 days)

Papillary muscle rupture - acute onset of severe mitral regurg with acute severe pulmonary edema (3-5 days)

800
Q

Endocarditis after dental procedures -
Cause?
Pathogenesis?

A

Viridans streptococci

Fibrin-platelet aggregates that adhere and colonise

801
Q

Post radical mastectomy - Multiple firm violaceous nodules on her right arm and has developed chronic lymphedema involving her right arm.
Diagnosis?
Risk factors?
Histopathologically?

A

Chronic lymphedema also is known as Stewart-Treves syndrome

Angiosarcoma will show infiltration of the dermis with slit-like abnormal vascular spaces.

802
Q

15 year old boy is evaluated for fever, headache, malaise and cough 3 weeks after returning from summer camp. CXR reveals nodular infiltrates. The patient’s blood samples are collected for analysis in anti coagulated tubes, which are transported submerged in ice; when taken out several minutes later, turbidity and clumping are noted. Warming the tube to body temperature leads to rapid dissolution of the clumps.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Treatment?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

Attaches to the respiratory epithelium using surface antigens (I-antigen)

These patients with M pneumoniae typically develop cross-reactive IgM antibodies attach to RBCs, activate the complement system and cause erythrocyte lysis. (cold agglutinins)

Bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor such as macrolide or tetracycline

803
Q

Fever, headache, rash (maculopapular/morbilliform)
Meningitis, encephalitis, acute asymmetric flaccid paralysis
Rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor
Located in Texas

Diagnosis?
Transmission?
Risk factors?

A

West Nile Virus

Birds to mosquitoes (Culex spp.)
More common in summer/fall
Warm climate

Older age
Malignancy/organ transplant

804
Q

Decreased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening

A

Aneuploides (eg. trisomy 18& 21)

805
Q

Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening

A
Open NTD (e.g. open spina bifida)
Ventral wall defects (eg. omphalocele)
Multiple gestation
806
Q

Non-cyanotic congenital heart defects

A

Atrial septal defect
Ventricular septal defect
PDA
Coarctation of the aorta

807
Q

Nitrate therapy -

Adverse effects?

A

Headaches, cutaneous flushing, lightheadedness, hypotension and reflex tachycardia

808
Q

Most common cause of acute pediatric glomerulonephritis?
Presentation?
Timeline?
Age group?

A

Post strep golmerulonepphritis
Acute onset of malaise, periorbittal edema, HTN, and either microscopic or gross hematuria.

1-3 weeks after group A strep or skin infection.

5-12 years old

809
Q

Paralysis of all the instrinsic hand muscles (Klumpke’s palsy) - what nerve is injured?

A

Injury to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus

810
Q

Sickle cell disease mutation?

A

Glutamic acis to valine substitution at position 6

GAG -> GTG

811
Q

Fructokinase deficiency -
Inheritance?
Signs?
Enzyme that takes over?

A

Asymptomatic autosomal recessive disorder

Fructose gets excreted into urine

Hexokinase

812
Q

30 year old brought to ED due to erratic behaviour, progressive right sided weakness and difficulty walking last month. Has been diagnosed with HIV but is non compliant. Physical exam shows cachectic and disheveled man. Motor strength in the right upper and lower extremities is decreased and his gait is ataxic. Brain MRI reveals several discrete areas of demylineation in the subbcortical and periventricular white matter with no edema or mass effect. CD4 cell count is 30.
Responsible pathogen?
Pathogenesis?
Diagnosis?

A

JC virus - polyomavirus acquired in childhood that causes life-long latent infection of the kkidney nd lymphoid organs.
Attacks the oligodendrocytes that produce myelin causing a severe demylinating disease
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

813
Q

Binge eating disorder -

Clinical features?

A

Recurrent binge eaing with llack of control

No compensatry behavours

814
Q

Recurrent episodes of binge eating and purging, excess preoccupation with body weight and shape
Body weight within or above normal range
Complains of abdo pain, bloating, constipation, lethargy and irregular menses
Diagnosis?
Physical examination?
Lab findings?
Treatment?

A

Bulimia nervosa

Hypotension, tachycardia, dental erosion, dorsal hand calluses, parotid gland swelling

Hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis

CBT
Nutritional rehabilitation
SSRI (fluoxetine)

815
Q

What is 99m Tc-pertechnetate diagnostic for?

A

Localised Ectopic gastric mucosa, and its increased uptake is diagnostic for meckel’s diverticuum

816
Q

Glossopharngeal nerve -
Where does it travel?
Function?

A

Originates in the medulla and exits the cranial cavity via the jugular foramen

Stylopharngeus muscle (elevates larynx during swallowing)
Posterior third of tongue - sensory
Tympanic membrane einner surface
Carotid sinus and carotid body
Inferior salivary nucleus -> CN IX -> otic ganglion -> travels along auricotemporal nerve (CN V) -> parotid gland secretion

817
Q

What is thiamine a cofactor for?

How can you diagnose thiamine deficiency?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase
alpha-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase - citric acid cycle
Branched chain alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase
Transketolase - pentose phosphate pathway

Erythrocyte transketolase activity (will be low)

818
Q

Chronic AV shunt effect of ccardiac output and venous return?

A

Increase CO

Increase venoud return

819
Q

What are cold agglutinins?

Manifestations?

A

Cross reacting antibodies hat bind to erythrocytes in the areas where the blood temperature is below core body temperature (distal extremities, nose)

Intravascular hemolytic anemia such as elevated reticulocyte count and lactate dehydrogenase

820
Q

Patient has efever, chills, sweats and red blood cell inclusions on Giemsa stain that follows travelling tropical geographical region.
Diagnosis?
Pathogen and the difference between them?
Treatment?

A

Malaria

Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, or P falciparum
P vivax and P ovale are different as they also establish a latent hepatic infection in the form of hypnozoites for relapses

Chloroquine - readicating choloroquine-sensitive plasmodia from the blood stream (useful for all)
In vivax and ovale - Primaquine must be added to the regimen to completely readicate the hypnozoites.

821
Q

Low serum levels of C1 esterase inhibitor are diagnostic of?
Inheriance?
Symptoms?
Contraindicated drugs?

A

Hereditary angioedema

Automsomal dominant

Painless, non-pitting, well-circumscribed edema of skin and mucosal surfaces

ACE inhibitors as there are increased levels of kallikrein and bradykinin.

822
Q

Baby born fie but few hours later is irritable, crying, hypertonic, jittery with diarrhea, vomiting and refusing to feed. Baby is sweating and sneezing along with dilated pupils.
Diagnosis?
Treatment?

A

Neonatal abstinence syndrome - due to transplacental opiates (mothers drug use)

Opioid therapy - morphine (Increased potassium efflux out of cells), methadone

823
Q

Lynch syndrome -
Genes?
Associated neoplasms?

A

MSH2, MLH1, MSH6, PMS6

Colorectal cancer
Desmoids and osteomas
Brain tumours

824
Q

3 year old us brought to ED with high fevers and malaise for the last 4 days. His parents say he began limping yesterday and seems to refrain from using his right leg. No travel or recent exposure. Temperature o 39.4. Passive motion does not ellicit pain and no joint effusion. Patient refuses to bear weight with his right lower extremity.
Diagnosis?
Where does it occur?

A

Hematogenous osetomyelitis (affects children particulary boys)

Metaphysis of long bones

825
Q

Hydrogen breath test used to diagnosis?

A

Lactose intolerance

826
Q

21 year old Caucasian male suffers from weakness and gait disturbance. He noticed he had difficulty releasing the doorknob recently and after a handshake. Phsyical exam shows cataracts, frotal baldness and gonadal atrophy
Biopsy shows muscle atrophy involving type 1 fibers
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?

A

Myotonic muscular dystrophy
(second most common inherited muscle disorder)

Autosomal dominant

Abnormal trinucelotide repeat expansion of the gene that codes for a myotonia-protein kinase

827
Q

Cytokines that are responsible for sepsis

A

Tumour necrosis factor-alpha
IL-1
IL-6

828
Q

Lung abscess -
Pathogens?
Risk factors?

A

Peptostreptococcus, prevotella, bacteroides and fusobacterium species

Alcoholism, drug abuse, seizure disorders, previous stroke, and dementia

829
Q

Dissociative identitiy disorder characterisic features?

A

Fragmentation into >2 distinct personalities

Discontinuity in identity and personal agency

830
Q

Dissociative amnesia characteristic features ?

A

Inability to recall personal information usually of a traumatic or stressful nature

831
Q

Depersonalization/derealisation disorder characteristic features?

A

1 or both:
Depersonalisation (detachment, unreality of self)
Derealisation (detachment, unreality of surroundings)

832
Q

Substantia nigra -
Type of neurons?
Disease?

A

Dopaminergic neurons

Parkinson disease

833
Q
Primary ciliary dyskinesia -
Pathogenesis?
Resp tract features?
Extrapulmonary effects?
Diagnosis?
A

Dynein arm defect - abnormal ciliary motion and impaired mucociliary clearance

Chronic infections, nasal polyps, bronchiectasis, clubbing, persistent bronchial dilation

Situs inversus (50%), Infertility due to immotility, normal growth

Low nasal nitric oxide levels
Bronchoscopy and electron microscopic visualisation

834
Q

Acute pericarditis -
Causes? (most common?)
Clinical features?
ECG?

A

Viral or idiopathic
Autoimmune disease
Uremia
Post MI

Pleuritic chest paun (decreases when sitting up)
Pericardial friction rub
ECG: diffuse ST elevation
Pericardial effusion on echocardiogram

Diffuse ST elevation

835
Q
29 year old with new onset generalised tonic clonic seizures and has a history of HIV (non compliant with medication). She has been sleepy and weak for the past 2 weeks. MRI shows 2 ring-enhancing focal lesions with surrounding edema in the right frontal lobe.
Diagnosis?
Mode of transmission?
Treatment?
Differentials?
A

Toxoplasma gondii

Cat is host
(food or water contaminated by cat feces or undercooked meats)

Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

Primary central nervous system lymphoma (Caused by EBV and B cell origin)

836
Q

Chronic obstructuve pulmonary disease exacerbation-
Triggers?
Clinical presentation?

A

Viral infection - rhinovirus, infleunza, parainfluenza
Bacterial - H influenzae, moraxella catarrhalis, strep pneumo

Increased dyspnea and/or cough
Change in sputum color or quality

837
Q
Tamoxifen, Raloxifene -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Indications?
Adverse effects?
A

Selective estrogen receptor modulators

Competitive inhibitor of estrogen binding
Mixed agonist/antag action

Prevention of breast cancer
Tamoxifen - adjuvant
Raloxifene - postmenopausal osteoporosis

Hot flashes
Venous thromboembolism
Endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma (tamoxifen)

838
Q

Why is tetracycline contraindicated during pregnancy?

A

Teeth staining (ie doxycyline) (<8 yrs)

839
Q

Why is chloramphenicol contraindicated during pregnancy?

A

Gray baby syndrome - gray skin, vomiting, lethargy and cardiopulmonary collapse

840
Q

Why is trimethroprom/sulfamethoxazole contraindicatedd during pregnancy?

A

It is a folic acid antagonist and can increase the risk of neural tube defects.
Also displacement of blirubin in the third trimester could increase risk of kernicterus in the neonate.

841
Q

Why are aminoglycosides contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Injury to cranial nerve VIII –> ototoxicity and vestibulotoxicity (sensorineural heariing loss or vestibular instability and ataxia)

842
Q

Abrupt onset gross haematuria in an otherwise healthy patient with a FH of sickle cell disease suggests?

A

Renal papillary necrosis

due to underlying trait

843
Q

Villous adenomas -
What do they produce?
Effect?

A

Large quantities of prostaglanding E2, which results in increased mucin production and a secretory diarrhea
Excessive production can case hypoproteinemia and hypokalemia

844
Q
3 year old boy comes to ED for evaluation of oral bleeding that began an hour after a tooth extraction Bleeding persisted for 30 minutes. BP is 90/60 and HR is 100/min. There is still slow oozing at the side of dental extraction. FH is significant for a maternal uncle who suffered from recurrent bleedings into his joints. 
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?
Clinical features?
Lab findings?
Treatment?
A

Hemophilia A&B

X linked recessive

Hemaarthrosis, instramuscular hematomas, GI or GU tract bleedings, intracranial hemorrhage

Increased activated PTT, normal platelet & PT, absent or decreased factor VIII (A) or factor IX (B)

Factor replacement
Desmopressin for mild A

845
Q

Minute ventilation formula

A

tidal volume x breaths/min

846
Q

Alveolar ventilation formula

A

(tidal volume - dead space volume) x breaths/min

847
Q

Mitral valve prolapse murmur sound

A

Midsystolic click followed by late systolic murmur

848
Q

Atrial septal defect murmur sound

A

Midsystolic with wide and fixed splitting of S2

849
Q

Sertoli cells in embryology function

A

Suppresses female internal reproductive organ development by producing anti-mullerian which causes duct involution. (Also concentrated testosterone to enable spermatogenesis)

850
Q

Leydig cells in embryology function

A

Secrete testosterone which stimulates Wolffian ducts to develop internal male reproductive organs. It is peripherally converted to DHT which triggers external male reproductive organs

851
Q

Effect of CO2 on cerebral vasculature?

Therefore effect of tachypnea?

A

Potent vasodilator of cerebral vasculature

Hypocapnia and cerebral vasoconstriction thereby decreasing cerebral blood volume and ICP

852
Q

Glyburide -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Adverse effects?

A

Sulfonylureas

Bind to their receptor on pancreatic beta cells to inhibit the ATP-dependent potassium channel. This alters the cell’s resting potential and allows calcium influx (exocytosis of insulin)

Hypoglycemia (risk is increased by exercise, missed meals, malnourishment)

853
Q

27 year old leaves men’s room after smoking unknown substances. he becomes disoriented and belligerent. The man displays uncoordinated, jerky movements of his extremities and assaults a bouncer who tries to calm him. He fights off 4 officers before being restrained and appears immune to pain. In the ED, he has visual hallucinations, cannot cooperate with the interview and alternates between agitation and sedation. He is hypertensive and tachycardic with vertical nystagmus. Several hours later, he has forgotten everything.
What substance did he take?
Mechanism?

A

PCP (phenylcyclidine) intoxication

N-methyl-D-aspartate glutamate receptor antagonist

854
Q

How to do cognitive testing of:
Concentration?
Visual-spatial?
Executive function?

A

Reciting months of the year backwards, count back from 100 by intervals of 3 or 7, spelling world backwards

Drawing intersecting pentagons

Drawing a clock oriented to the time requested

855
Q

58 year old man comes in due to sudden right-sided weakness. He has no sensory loss, issues speaking or difficulty with balance. The patient was previously told he has HTN but no follow up. His mother has coronary artery disease and father died of stroke. No medications. He has decreased strength (3/5) on the right side. Initial CT shows no abnormalities but 4 weeks later there is a 9mm, fluid filled cavity lesion in the left internal capsule.
What type of infarct?
Vessels involved?
Caused by?

A

Lacunar infarcts

Small penetrating arterioles

Primarily caused by chronic HTN which promotes lipohyalinosis, microatheroma formation and hardening/thickening of the vessel wall - Hypertensive arteriolar sclerosis

856
Q

Hematuria, flank pain, palpable abdo mass
Weight loss, polycythemia, hypercalcemia
Golden-yellow tissue mass

Diagnosis?
Risk factor?
Where does it originate from?
Gross examination?
Histology?
A

Renal cell carcinoma

Smoking, HTN, obesity and toxin exposure (eg heavy metal, petroleum by-products)

Proximal renal tubules

Spherical mass often with invasion of renal vein

Clear cell - cuboidal or polygonal cells with abundant clear cytoplasm
Branching, chicken wire vasculature

857
Q

Cells increased in COPD?

A

Neutrophils, macrophages and CD8+ T lymphocytes

858
Q
Vitamin B3 -
What is it?
Used for?
Deficiency?
Adverse effects?
A

Niacin

Most effective for raising HDL levels

Hartnup disease - causes pellagra-like skin eruptions and cerebellar ataxia

Flushing, hyperglycemia (mediated by PGs)
It can decrease renal excretion of uric acid and an increase risk for gouty arthritis

859
Q

42 year old woman comes in with nonproductive cough and worsening SOBOE. Hx of primary pulmonary HTN and underwent lung transplantation 8 months ago. (Has been compliant)
Pulmonary function testing demonstrates a FEV of 67% and FVC is unchanged
Lung biopsy shows areas of total fibrotic obstruction in the terminal bronchioles
Condition?

A

Chronic transplant rejection

860
Q

Causes of hypopituitarism:
Pituitary causes?
Hypothalamic lesions?

A

Mass lesions
Infiltration
Hemorrhage (pituitary apoplexy)
Ischemic infarction (sheehan syndrome) - failure to lactate due to prolactin deficiency (during pregnancy estrogen induced hyperplasia of the pituitary doesn’t have matching increase in blood suppy)

Sarcoidosis, infection, radiation therapy

861
Q

What happens to cells in Vitiligo?

A

Partial or complete loss of epidermal melanocytes

862
Q

Cells in albinism?

A

Melanocytes that do not produce melanin because of absent or defective tyrosinase

863
Q

What is polyarteritis nodosa? (PAN)
Commonly involved organs?
Spared organs?
Treatment?

A

Segmental, transmural, necrotising inflammation of medium to small size arteries in any organ
String of pearls appearance on imaging (multiple aneurysms)

Kidney - HTN
Heart, liver, GI

Lungs

Corticosteroids or cyclophosphamide

864
Q

Drug induced parkinsonism -
Causes?
Symptoms?
Management?

A

D2 receptor blockers (on the nigrostriatal pathway)
Antipsychotics and antiemetics/gastric motility agents (prochlorperazine, metoclopramide)

Prominent rigidity and bradykinesia, tremor, masked facies

Decrease or discontinue medication
Anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl, benztropine)

865
Q
Most common ovarian cancer 
Bilateral
Histology: Psammoma bodies
Epithelial neoplasm
Diagnosis?
A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

866
Q

Psuedomyxoma peritonei
Mucin-producing epithelial cells
Epithelial neoplasm
Diagnosis?

A

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

867
Q
Adolescents
High b-hCG and high LDH
Histology: Fried egg cells
Germ cell neoplasm
Diagnosis?
A

Dysgerminoma

868
Q
Increased AFP
Aggressive
Schiller-Duval bodies resemble glomeruli
Germ cell neoplasm
Diagnosis?
A

Endodermal sinus (yolk sac)

869
Q
Large, unilateral adnexal mass
Increased estrogen 
Increased inhibin
Histology: Call-Exner bodies, coffee bean nuclei
Stroma (sex cord) neoplasm
Diagnosis?
A

Granulosa cell

870
Q

Increased androgens
Stroma neoplasm
Diagnosis?

A

Sertoli-Leydig

871
Q

Formula for net filtration pressure

A

(Pc-Pi) - (c-i)

872
Q

Anatomically in which part of the penis does a hydrocele occur?

A

Tunica vaginalise

873
Q

Sublimation description?

A

Channeling impulses into socially acceptable behaviours

874
Q

Suppression description?

A

Putting unwanted feeling aside to cope with reality/

875
Q

Toxic shock syndrome -
Pathogen?
Cytokines?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

IL-2, IL-1 and TNF from macrophages

876
Q

Absence seizures -
Clinical features?
Treatment?

A

Sudden impairment of consciousness
Preserved muscle tone
Short duration
Easily provoked by hyperventilation

Ethosuximide - blocks T-type Ca2+ channels

877
Q

Blue sclerae, small malformed teeth and a history of several fractures after only minimal trauma -
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta - impaired synthesis of type 1 collagen by osteoblasts

878
Q

Chemoprophylaxis for meningococcal disease?

A

Rifampin

879
Q

Single painless genital ulcer at inoculation site with heaped borders and clean base
Diagnosis?
Causative agent?
Lab tests?

A

Syphilis

treponema pallidum

VDRL/RPR
Dark-field microscopy

880
Q

Multiple, painful superficial genital vesicles or ulcerations with erythematous base
Diagnosis?
Causative agent?
Lab tests?

A

Genital herpes

Herpes simplex virus

PCR
Tzanck smear

881
Q

Deep, purulent painful genital ulcers with matted/suppurative lymphadenitis
Diagnosis?
Causative agent?
Lab tests?

A

Chancroid

Haemophilus ducreyi

Gram stain and culture
PCR

882
Q

Painless, progressive, red serpiginous ulcerative genital lesions without lymphadenopathy
Diagnosis?
Causative agent?
Lab tests?

A

Granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)

Klebsiella granulomatis

Gram stain and culture
Biopsy - Donovan bodies

883
Q

Bromocriptine, pramipexole and ropinirole -
Type of drug?
Classes?
Mechanism?

A

Dopamine agonists

Bromocriptine - Ergot compound
Nonergot - pramipexole and ropinirole

Directly stimulate dopamine receptors
Can delay the need to start levodopa (longer half life)

884
Q

Blood vessel behind duodenal wall that is penetrated can by ulcers

A

Gastroduodenal artery

885
Q
12 year old boy is brought to the office due to gait instability and pruritic skin rash for the past several weeks. His mother reports he has been irritable and had loose stools. The patients childhood development has been unremarkable except for several episodes of similar skin rash. Scaly, erythematous skin lesions in sun-exposed areas and cerebellar ataxia. Lab shows increased levels of neutral amino acids in the urine.
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?
Treatment?
A

Hartnup disease

Autosomal recessive

Inactivating mutations affecting the neutral amino acid transporter. This results is impaired transport of neutral amino acids specifically tryptophan in SI and proximal tubule (Tryptophan is precursor for niacin, serotonin, melatonin)

High-protein diet with daily niacin or nicotinamide

886
Q

Clotting difference between heparin and warfarin

A

Heparin - increase aPTT

Warfarin - Increase PT

887
Q

Episodic bleeding unrelenting since childhood
PT - normal
aPTT - normal
Platelet count - decreased (<50)
Bleeding time - increased
Increased megakaryocytes on bone marrow biopsy

Treatment?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)

Corticosteroids

888
Q

Follicular lymphoma -
Gene mutation?
Pathogenesis?

A

t(14;18) translocation

Over expression of antiapoptotic gene product Bcl 2 and tumour formation

889
Q

Dementia -
Early personality changes
Apathy, disinhibition, compulsive behaviours
Atrophy of brain on neuroimaging

A

Fronto-temporal dementia

890
Q
Central neurofibromatosis -
Gene?
Inheritance?
What does it code for?
Chromosome?
Main clinical feature?
A

NF2

Autosomal dominant

Merlin

Ch 22

Bilateral acoustic neuromas

891
Q
Neuronal changes -
Shrinkage of cell body
Psyknosis of the nucleus
Loss of Nissl bodies
Eosinophilic cytoplasm (red neuron)

Type of response?
Type of injury?

A

Severe insult leading to cell death

Acute neuronal injury

892
Q
Neuronal changes -
Enlargement of the celll body
Eccentrically placed nucelus
Enlargement of the nucelolus
Dispersion of Nissl bodies

Type of response?
Type of injury?

A

Axon transection

Axonal reaction (regeneration)

893
Q

Neuronal changes -
Loss of functionally related neurons
Reactive gliosis

Type of response?
Type of injury?

A

Progressive degenerative disease (ALS, Parkinsons)

Chronic neuronal injury

894
Q

6 year old boy is evaluated for recurrent infections and failure to thrive. Hospitalised for pneumococcal pneumonia twice and has had 5 episodes of otitis media. (Has tympanostomy tubes placed)
Hx of prolonged diarrhea caused by Cryptosporidium parvum
Physical examination shows large tonsils, palpable lymph nodes and hepatosplenomegaly
He also has defective signalling between the activated CD4+ T cells and B lymphocytes.
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?
Etiology?
Labs?

A

Hyperimunoglobulin M syndrome

X-linked recessive

Deficient CD40L-CD40 interaction
Failure of antibody switching in B cells

Increased IgM
Very low IgG, IgA, IgE
CD40L absent on CD4+ T cells

895
Q

Causes of polyhydramnios?

A

Impaired fetal swallowing - fetal GI obstruction -> esophageal, duodenal or intestinal atresia and anencephaly

Increased fetal urination - High fetal cardiac output -> alloimmunization, parvovirus infection, fetomaternal hemorrhage

896
Q

Patient with HIV recently started on antiretroviral therapy and subsequently developed evidence of proximal tubule dysfunction (eg hypophosphatemia, glucosuria, proteinuria, biopsy abnormalities)
Likely diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Tenofovir-induced nephrotoxicity (common part of first-line HIV therapy)

Adenosine analogue -> nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors

NRTIs prevent reverse transcriptase from converting the HIV RNA genome into complementary double-stranded DNA, which inhibits viral replication.

Eliminated via the proximal tubule cells of the kidney
Manifests as AKI and/or signs of proximal tubule dysfunction

897
Q

What do patients who adequately respond to the HBV vaccine generate?

A

They generate anti-HBs antibodies which bind to circulating viral particles and prevent attachment to and penetration of hepatocytes.

898
Q

Medications that increases long term survival in heart failure

A

Beta blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol)
ACE inhibitors
Ang II recpetor blockers
Aldosterone antagonists (spironolactone, eplerenone)

899
Q
60 year old professor is brought to the ED after developing right-sided weakness and numbness an hour ago. He also has nausea and confusion. His father died of an MI at age 70. BP is 190/100 mm Hg and pulse 60/min. There is diminished right-sided strength (1/5) and an upgoing plantar reflex.
Diagnosis?
Location?
Size?
Result of rupture?
A

Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms

Basal ganglia
Cerebellum
Thalamus
Pons

<1mm

Intracerebral haemorrhage

900
Q

CREST syndrome?

Limited type of systemic sclerosis

A

Limited skin and late visceral involvement

Calcinosis
Raynaid phenomenon
Esophageal dysmotility (atrophy and fibrous replacement of the muscularis in the lower esophagus)
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
901
Q

Effects of desmopressin therapy on mild hemophilia A and Type 1 von Willebrand disease

A

Increases circulating factor VIII and endothelial secretion of vWF to stop bleeding

902
Q

Effects of desmopressin therapy on central diabetes insipidus and nocturnal enuresis

A

Binds to V2 receptors in renal tubular cells, leading to increased aquaporin channels, increased water reabsorption and decreased urine output

903
Q

Hepatic angiosarcoma -
Associated with?
Cells expressed?

A

Arsenic, thorotrast and polyvinyl chloride

CD31 - PECAM1 (platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule)

904
Q

Lymphoblasts in precursor B-ALL

A

Tdt+, CD10+ and CD19+

905
Q

Lymphoblasts in precursor T-ALL

A

T cell markers

CD2,3,4,5,7,8, TdT and CD1a

906
Q

Cluster A personality disorders

A

Paranoid: suspicious, distrustful, hypervigilant
Schizoid: prefers to be a loner; detached, unemotional
Schizotypal: unusual thoughts, perceptions and behaviour

907
Q

What are anti-Smith antibodies associated with?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

908
Q
Gaucher disease -
Inheritance?
Epidemiology?
Pathology?
Onset?
Presentation?
A

Autosomal recessive

Ashkenazi Jews

Lysosomal storage disorder caused by beta-glucocerebrosidase deficiency

Childhood to early adulthood

Bone pain due to bone marrow invasion/inflammation, abdominal distension due to hepatosplenomegaly and easy bleeding and bruising, pallor and fatigue due to pancytopenia

909
Q

Severe headache
Bitemporal hemianopsia (optic chiasm) and ophthalmoplegia (CN III)
Hemodynamic instability and altered sensorium

Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Complication?

A

Pituitary apoplexy

Acute pituitary hemorrhage
Usually occurs in preexisting adenoma

Panhypopituitarism
Severe hypotension
Coma and death

910
Q

This patient’s seizure, headache, motor weakness and brain mass composed of abnormal astrocytes.
Suspicion?
Cells?

A

Glioblastoma

Highly aggressive tumor that stems from glial or pluripotent neural stem cells.

Associated with the overexpression of epidermal growth factor receptor on the surface of neoplastic cells.

911
Q
42 year old man comes to physician because of dysuria and blood in his urine at the end of urination. He returned to the US 2 weeks ago after several months touring Africa. While there, he went spelunking, bathed in the beaches and lakes and ate the local street food. Ultrasonography reveals mild bilateral hydronephrosis and bladder wall thickening.
Source of infection?
Species?
Location?
Pathogenesis
A

Freshwater snails

S haematobium

North Africa
Sub-saharan africa
Middle east

Larvae can penetrate intact human skin and travel to the liver afterwards it migrates to the urinary bladder venous plexus. (Can remain to 5-30 years)

912
Q

Dubin-Johnson syndrome -
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?
Presentation?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder
Defective hepatic excretion of bilirubin glucuronides due to a mutation in canalicular membrane transport protein

Can develop into episodes of jaundice and may result in direct hyperbilirubinemia

Liver appears black and is composed of polymers of epinephrine metabolites

913
Q

Symmetrical proximal muscle weakness
Increasing difficulty climbing stairs, getting up from a chair and carrying heavy objects. Progressive worsening.
Muscle biopsy revealed MHC class I overexpression on the sarcolemma CD8+ lymphocyte infiltration.
Diagnosis?
Other tests?
Associated complications?

A

Polymyositis

Elevated muscle enzymes (CK, aldolase)
Autoantibodies ( ANA, anti-Jo-1)

Interstitial lung disease
Myocarditis

914
Q

10 year old boy is brought to the physician by his parents due to restlessness and involuntary jerking. On examination, the patient has rapid, irregular jerking movements involving his face, arms and legs.
Risk of developing?
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Valvular heart disease (Sydenham chorea)

Acute rheumatic fever

2-4 weeks after acute group A strep pharyngitis
Molecular mimicry: anti-strep antibodies attack cardiac and neuronal antigens

915
Q

Whipple’s triad?

A

Symptoms of hypoglycemia
Low blood glucose level
Relief of hypoglycemic symptoms when the blood glucose level is increased

916
Q

Effect of HTN emergency on kidneys

A

Malignant nephrosclerosis

Characterised by fibrinoid necrosis and hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis

917
Q

One month old Caucasian male with a history of persistent jaundice experiences muscle rigidity, lethargy and seizure.
What cause of hyperbilirubinemia would produce the neurological abnormalities?
Diagnosis?
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?

A

Absent liver conjugation enzymes

Crigler-Najjar syndrome type 1

Autosomal recessive disorder of bilirubin metabolism

Lack of UGT enzyme needed to catalyse bile glucuronidation

918
Q

Formula for renal blood flow

A

(renal artery pressure - renal vein pressure) / renal vascular resistance

919
Q

Formula for renal plasma flow

A

PAH clearance = (urine [PAH] x urine flow rate) / plasma [PAH]

920
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis -
Characterised?
Transmission?
Symptoms?

A

The formation of highly vascular lesions in the skin and other organs due to infection with the small, gram-negative bacterium Bartonella henselae.

Cat scratch or bite

Develop violaceous, cutaneous lesions that are highly vascular.

921
Q

Current alzheimer’s disease specific therapies

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors (Donepezil)
Antioxidants (Vitamin E)
NMDA receptor antagonists (Memantine)

922
Q

Where does middle meningeal artery branch from?

A

Maxillary artery

923
Q

Bacteroides -
Gram stain?
Produces?
Treatment?

A

Gram-negative anaerobic rods

Beta-lactamase (breaks down penicillins)

Tazobactam, clavulanic acid and sulbactam
Combination of piperacillin and tazobactam

924
Q
Relative polycythemia -
Etiology?
Plasma volume?
RBC mass?
SaO2?
EPO level?
A

Dehydration, excessive diureses

Decreased
Normal
Normal
Normal

925
Q
Primary polycythemia -
Etiology?
Mutation?
Plasma volume?
RBC mass?
SaO2?
EPO level?
Treatment?
A

Polycythemia vera - a clonal myeloproliferative disease of pluripotent hematopoetic stem cells. (Has a JAK2 a non-receptor tyrosine kinase)

V617F mutation involving JAK2 gene. Replaces valine with phenylalanine at 617 position

Increased
Increased
Normal
Decreased

Serial phlebotomy to keep hematocrit <45%

926
Q
Physiologic secondary polycythemia -
Etiology?
Plasma volume?
RBC mass?
SaO2?
EPO level?
A

Hypoxia

Normal
Increased
Decreased
Increased

927
Q
Inappropriate secondary polycythemia -
Etiology?
Plasma volume?
RBC mass?
SaO2?
EPO level?
A

EPO-producing tumours

Normal
Increased
Normal
Increased

928
Q

52 year old man is brought to the ED due to worsening right leg pain, fever and confusion. The patient injured his leg while operating a motorised watercraft on the ocean near Florida 2 days ago. Temp is 38.9 C, BP is 90/50 and pulse 120/min. The patient is lethargic and diaphoretic. Physical exam reveals a small laceration on the dorsum of the right foot with surrounding edema, erythema and several hemorrhagic bullae. Leukocyte count and serum lactic acid levels are elevated. Cultures yield curved gram-negative rods.
Diagnosis?
Epidemiology?
Manifestations?

A

Vibro vulnificus

High concentrations in warm months
Ingestion (raw oysters) or wound infection
Increased risk in those with liver disease and iron overload

Rapidly progressive
Septicemia
Cellulitis - hemorrhagic bullae, necrotizing fasciitis

929
Q
Aplastic anemia -
Pathogenesis?
Causes?
Lab findings?
Biopsy?
A

Bone marrow failure due to hematopoietic stem cell deficiency (CD 34+)

Autoimmune
Infections (Parvovirus B19, EBV)
Drugs (carbamazepine, chloramphencol, sulfonamides)
Exposure to radiation or toxins (Benzene, solvents)

Anemia (fatigue, weakness, pallor)
Thrombocytopenia (muscosal bleedings, easy bruising, petechiae)
Leukopenia - recurrent investigations

Hypocellular bone marrow with fat and stromal cells

930
Q

Acute pruritus following morphine is caused by?

A

Ig-E independent mast cell activation

931
Q

Intense pruritus in the pubic area with excoriations due to scratching. Transmission during sexual contact (condoms don’t help)
Translucent parasite with crab-like claws
Diagnosis?
Treatment?

A

Phthirus pubis (human pubic louse)

Topical permethrin cream - blocks parasite sodium ion conduction in nerve cell membrane channels and results in louse paralysis and death

932
Q

Function of enteropeptidase?

Effect of deficiency?

A

Duodenal brush border enzyme responsible for activation of trypsin

Protei and fat malabsorption as trypsin is required to activate for digestion
Causes diarrhea, failure of thrive, and edema

933
Q

Vemurafenib -
What is it?
Who is it used for?

A

Potent inhibitor of mutated BRAF that has significant anti-tumor effects

Improved survival and long-term outcomes in advanced stage V600E-positive melanoma patient

934
Q

Surface ectoderm derivatives

A
Anterior pituitary (Rathke pouch)
Lens and cornea
Inner ear sensory organs
Nasal and oral epithelial lnings
Epidermis, sweat and mammary glands
935
Q

RB -
Type of gene?
Where in the cycle does it work?
Manifestations?

A

Tumour suppressor gene

G1/S transition inhibitor

Retinolastoma
Osteosarcoma

936
Q

Ecological study

A

Using population level data as a unit of analysis rather than individuals

937
Q

25 year old woman is brought to the ED due to progressive lethargy. For the last 3 weeks, she has also had loss of appetite, constipation, muscle weakness and increased thirst and urination. She takes no prescription medications but has been taking large doses of vit D supplements in the belief that are beneficial for her health. On physical exam, she is stuporous and has dry mucous membranes. The metabolic abnormality most likely responsible?
Effect of excess vitamin D?

A

Sarcoidosis

Symptomatic hypercalcemia with impaired depolarization of neuromuscular membranes (e.g. muscle weakness, constipation, confusion) and impaired concentration of urine in the distal tubule (polyuria/polydipsia)

Chronic vit D intoxication can also lead to renal stone formation and bone demineralisation with associated bone pain

938
Q
Pleuropulmonary asbestosis -
When do symptoms begin?
CT radiography?
Histopathology?
Risk of malignancy?
A

20-30 years after initial exposure - dyspnea, cough and fatigue

Bilateral parenchymal fibrosis, most predominant in the lower lungs; honeycombing and upper lung involvement occur in advanced disease

Diffuse interstitial fibrosis in associated with ferruginous bodies

Bronchiogenic carcinoma

939
Q

Maintenance dose formula

A

C(pss) x CL/[Bioavailability fraction]

940
Q

46 year old woman comes with persistent diarrhea, weight loss and abdo pain. Her diarrhea started several months ago. The patient has not traveled outside of the country and has not drunk from any untreated freshwater sources. She has had no recent hospitalisations or antibiotic use. Her sister has a hx of celiac disease. Upper endoscopy reveals postbulbar duodenal and jejunal ulcers.
Tumor secreting which?
Diagnosis?

A

Gastrin

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

941
Q

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma -

Risk factors?

A

Age >65
Smoking
Chronic pancreatitis

Genetic predisposition -
Hereditary pancreatitis
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome - STK11 gene chromosome 19
MEN syndromes
Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer
942
Q
Sarcoidosis -
Epidemiology?
Clinical?
Imaging?
Laboratory?
Pathology?
A

Young adults, african americans

Constitutional symptoms, cough, dyspnea and chest pain, extrapulmonary findings (skin lesions, ant/post uveitis, Lofgren syndrome)

Bilateral hilar adenopathy
Pulmonary reticular infiltrates

Hypercalcemia/hypercalciuria
Elevated serum ACE level

Biopsy showing noncaseating granulomas that stain negative for fungi and acid-fast bacilli

943
Q
A 4 year old boy is brought in by his parents for evaluation of a fever that has persisted for the past 5 days. He has also been more irritable that usual and had 2 or 3 episodes of vomiting. The patient has no prior medical problems and takes no meds. He has received all recommended vaccinations. he traveled t China last year to visit his grandparents and cousins but has no traveled outside this year. Temp is 38.9 C. Physical exam shows bilateral conjunctival injection with no exudates. His tonigue is bright red and lips are cracked. Nonpitting edema is present on his hands and feet.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Characteristics?
Complication?
Treatment?
A

Kawasaki disease

Vasculitis of medium-sized arteries that affects young children (<5 yrs)

Fever for >5 days
Bilateral non-exudative conjunctival injection
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Mucositis “strawberry tongue”
Extremity changes - edema of hands and feet, palms and soles
Rash

Coronary artery aneurysms

Aspirin and IVIG

944
Q

23 year old man comes of the office due to a rapidly enlarging left jaw mass that has developed over the past several weeks. The patient is a political refugee from East Africa. He has no known medical problems and takes no medications. Temperature 37.1 C. Physical examination shows a large left-sided tumor on his jaw with surrounding lymphadenopathy but no erythema or warmth. HIV testing is negative. The lesion is biopsied and numerous mitotic figures and apoptotic bodies are observed on histopathologic examination.
Diagnosis?
Genetic features?
Associated infection?

A

Burkitt lymphoma

Translocation of the c-Myc gene on chromosome 8, usually onto the Ig heavy chain region of chromosome 14 [t(8;14)]. This leads to overexpression of the c-Myc oncogene and tumor growth

Epstein-Barr virus infection

945
Q
5 month old boy is brought to the office due to poor feeding. His mother says that he has difficulty holding his head up while breastfeeding and his suckling seems weaker than it used to be. His current weight is between 5th-10th percentile and length and head circumference are tracking along 25th percentile. Physical examination shows hepatomegaly and hypotonia in all 4 limbs. cardiac auscultation reveals a gallop rhythm and CXR shows severe cardiomegaly. Muscle biopsy shows enlarged lysosomes containing periodic acid-Schiff positive material.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?
Classic presentation?
Muscle biopsy?
A

Pompe disease - glycogen storage disease type II

Deficiency of acid alpha-glucosidase (acid maltase), an enzyme responsible for breaking down glycogen within the acidic environment of lysosomes

Presents in early infancy with marked cardiomegaly, severe generalised hypotonia, macroglossia and hepatomegaly. Blood glucose levels are normal

Accumulation of glycogen in lysosomes

946
Q

A 23 year old Caucasian male who notes recurrent severe nosebleeds is found to have pink spider-like lesions on his oral and nasal mucosa, face and arms.
Diagnosis?
Characterised by?

A

Osler-Weber-Rendy syndrome (hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia)

Autosomal dominant inheritance of congenital telangiectasias to the skin and mucous membranes.

947
Q

Conversion of testosterone to DHT

A

5 alpha reductase

948
Q

Timolol eye drops -
Type of drug?
Used for?

A

Non selective beta blocker

Open-angle glaucoma - Diminishes secretion of aqueous humour

949
Q

How long does this insulin last:
Glargine, Detemir?
NPH?
Lispro, Aspart, Glulisine?

A

Once daily

Twice daily

Peak (0.5-3 hours)

950
Q

A 6 month old boy is brought to the ED by his mother because of recent onset of vomiting, irritability and jaundice. The infant was born at term and has been healthy until onset. All of the vaccinations are up to date. He has been breast-fed exclusively until 1 week ago, when cereals and fruit juices were introduced into his diet. Further evaluation reveals hepatomegaly and abnormal LFTs.
Deficient enzyme?

A

Aldolase B deficiency

Can lead to failure to thrive, hepatomegaly and jaundice

951
Q

36 year old woman brought to ED with sudden-onset right side weakness and speech difficulty. During the last 3 weeks, the patient has experienced progressive fatigue, malaise and low grade fevers. She had a dental extraction 5 weeks ago, which was uncomplicated. The patient has never been previously significantly ill. Never traveled outside of the USA and doesn’t use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. The patient dies 2 hours later. Gross autopsy shows large, friable irregular masses attached to the atrial surface of a valve.
Diagnosis?
Predisposing factor?

A

Subacute infective endocarditis

Mitral valve prolapse

952
Q

Point mutation affecting the gene responsible for neurophysin synthesis?

A

Diabetes insipidus

953
Q

What is heteroplasmy?

A

Having different mitochondrial genomes within a single cell

954
Q

Capitation payment?

A

Health maintenance provider networks

955
Q

42 year old previously healthy woman comes to office with fever and sore throat. Physical exam shows tonsillar exudate and a nontender cervical lymph node measuring in 3.5 cm. Oral abx therapy is started and she reports symptoms have resolved. The previously enlarged cervical lymph node has decreased slightly in size. Patient remains asymptomatic and the size of lymph node fluctuates but does not disappear completely.
What will be seen in biopsy?
Gene?

A

Follicular lymphoma - indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma and B cell origin

t(14;18) translocation resulting in overexpression of the bcl-2 oncogene that blocks programmed cell death

956
Q

Causes of fibrinoid necrosis?

Morphology?

A

HTN, vasculitis

Damaged vessels leak fibrin/immune complexes
Eosinophilic layer of proteinaceous material in vessel walls

957
Q

Fat necrosis -
Causes?
Morphology?

A

Acute pancreatitis, trauma

FFA released by active enzymes or mechanical damage
Fatty acids combine with calcium forming chalky-whte deposits

958
Q

Coagulative necrosis -
Causes?
Morphology?

A

Irreversible ischemic injury outside CNS

Cells are anucleate with eosinophilic cytoplasm
Leukocytes eventually infiltrate and digest necrotic tissue

959
Q

18 year old man undergoes umbilical hernia repair under general anesthesia without any complications. 4 days later, patient develops fever, lethargy, nausea and vomiting. Scleral icterus is present. Abdomen is nondistended and soft with mild right upper quadrant tenderness. Markedly elevated AST, ALT and bilirubin. Liver biopsy is consistent with centrilobular hepatic necrosis.
Drugs used?
Diagnosis?

A

Desflurane

Acute hepatitis

960
Q

Pathogenesis of achondroplasia?

A

Endochondral ossification that makes long bones and portions of the skull and face. FGFR3 becomes activated causing exaggerated inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation

961
Q

Pathogenesis of Meniere disease?

A

Inner ear characterised by increased volume and pressure of endolymph

962
Q

Acute stress disorder -

time frame?

A

Lasting >3 days and <1 month

963
Q

Duodenal intestinal atresias -
Pathophys?
Clinical findings?
Associations?

A

Failure of recanalisation at 8-10 weeks gestation

Billous or nonbilous emesis
Double-bubble sign on X-ray

Down syndrome

964
Q

Jejunum/ileum atresias -
Pathophys?
Clinical findings?
Associations?

A

Vascular injury

Billours emesis
Abdo distension

Gastroschisis

965
Q

Colonic intestinal atresias -
Pathophys?
Clinical findings?
Associations?

A

Unknown

Constipation
Abdominal distension

Hirschsprung disease

966
Q

22 year old man comes due to recurrent blistering on the back of his hands and forearms. Patient usually develops small sports but now its been large blisters that heal with hyper pigmentation after rupture. Topical hydrocortisone and emollients have not worked. He works as a night security guard. He drinks 2-3 cans of beer daily. Physical exam shows vesicles and erosions on the dorsum of both hands.
Diagnosis?
Deficient enzyme?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda - porphyrin synthesis

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency

967
Q

Abciximab -
What is it?
Mechanism?
Used for?

A

GP IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

Inhibits binding of this receptor to fibrinogen.

Unstable angina and acute coronary syndrome, particularly in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

968
Q

12 year boy is evaluated for chronic headaches and visual changes. The headaches have progressively worsened over the past year and are associated with nausea. An intracranial calcified mass is detected on brain imaging. The mass is surgically removed and on gross inspection shows cystic spaces filled with thick, brownish yellow fluid that is rich in cholesterol.
What is mass derived from?

A

Anterior pituitary

Craniopharyngioma

969
Q

What is used in heparin OFD to reverse the effects?

A

Protamine sulfate

970
Q
A caucasian male who suffers from a severe neurological disease dies of an overwhelming respiratory infection. Autopsy shows an atrophic precentral gyrus and thin anterior roots of the spinal cord. Light microscopy reveals a severe loss of neurons in the anterior horn if the spinal cord and in the hypoglossal and ambiguous cranial nerve nuclei; corticospinal tracts stain only faintly, indicating demyelinization.
Diagnosis?
Age of onset?
Prognosis?
Common cause of death?
Genetic?
Treatment?
A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Middle aged

Within 5 years of diagnosis

Respiratory complications

Mutation of gene that codes for copper-zinc superoxide dismutase (SOD1)

Riluzole
MOA: decreases glutamate release

971
Q

Actinic keratosis - risk of developing?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

972
Q

Psoriasis is characterised by?

A

Hyperkeratosis
Epidermal hyperplasia
Neutrophilic foci

973
Q

Treatment of panic disorder -
First line/maintenance?
Acute distress?

A

SSRI/SNRI and/or CBT

Benzodiazepines

974
Q

Teratogenic medication effect -

Phenytoin?

A

Neural tube defects, orofacial clefts, microcephaly, nail or digit hypoplasia

975
Q

Teratogenic medication effect -

Lithium?

A

Ebstein anomaly, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, hypothyroidism

976
Q

Teratogenic medication effect -

Valproate?

A

Neural tube defects

977
Q

Teratogenic medication effect -

Isotretinoin?

A

Microcephaly, thymic hypoplasia, small ears, hydrocephalus

978
Q

Teratogenic medication effect -

Methotrexate?

A

Limb and craniofacial abnormalities, NTDs, abortion

979
Q

Teratogenic medication effect -

ACE inhibitors?

A

Renal dysgenesis, oligohydramnios

980
Q

Teratogenic medication effect -

Warfarin?

A

Nasal hypoplasia, stippled epiphysis

981
Q
8 year old boy is brought to the office due to a lower extremity skin rash for the past 3 days. The rash began as tender papules that quickly progressed to form vesicles and flaccid bullae that rupture easily. The patient has no mucosal lesions or other rashes. He is up to date with his vaccinations. 
Diagnosis?
Pathogen?
Pathogenesis?
Spread?
A

Bullous impetigo - blistering skin rash with tan- to honey-colored crusts

Staph aureus

Blistering is caused by production of exfoliative toxin A, a serine protease that targets desmoglein 1 in the superficial epidermis. Desmoglein is a cadherin component of desmosomes in epidermal cellular junctions.

Spread by direct contact

982
Q

21 year old woman volunteers in a research study evaluating the effects of viral infection on immunoglobulin production. The patient is a college student who has no past medical history and does not take any medications. She has not felt ill recently. The mature B lymphocytes exposed to a specific virus in vitro acquire the ability to proliferate indefinitely while maintaining the capacity to secrete immunoglobulins.
Test used to diagnose?
Pathogen?

A

Heterophile antibodies

EBV

983
Q

Difference between osteosarcoma and myositis ossificans on XR

A

Myositis is seperate from bone

984
Q

24 yer odl man comes into ED with painful erection fo past 6 hours. PMH is significant for treatment-resistant major depressive disorder, OCD, and insomnia. Smokes a pack a day for 2 years and drinks 1/2 cans a day. Examination reveals engoged corpora cavernosa.
Drug that caused it?

A

Trazodone - sedating antidepressant (used off label for insomnia)
Has side effect of priapism

985
Q

Epithelia of ovary?

Key features?

A

Simple cuboidal

Rapidly proliferate to repair ovulatory surface

986
Q

Epithelia of fallopian tube?

A

Simple columnar

987
Q

Epithelia of uterus?

Features?

A

Simple columnar

Sloughs off during menstraution (stratum functionalis)
Prolonged estrogen exposure prevents shedding, resulting in hyperplasia

988
Q

Epithelia of cervix - ecto and endo?

Features?

A

Ectocervix - Stratified squamous non-keratinized
Endocervix - Simple columnar

Secrete mucus

989
Q

Vagina epithelia

A

Stratified squamous non-keratinized

990
Q

Prominent intracytoplasmic granules that are tinged yellow-ish brown in the myocardium -
Pigment?
Indication?
Due to?

A

Lipfuscin

Wear and tear/aging

Free raduca injury and lipid peroxidation

991
Q
Neisseria Gonorrhea -
Presentation?
Gram stain?
Epidemiology?
Testing?
Treatment?
A

Dysuria and penile discharge

Gram negative intracellular diplococcus

Second most common STD

Nucleic acid amplification testing

Ceftriaxone and azithromycin (third gen cephalosporin and macrolide)

992
Q

What cells secrete Intrinsic factor?

A

Parietal cells in body and fundus of the stomach

993
Q

24 year old woman with gravida 1 para 0 at 26 weeks gestation comes to the ED due to abdo cramping and vaginal bleeding. She recently emigrated Bolivia and reports no prior medical problems. Tthe patient spontaneously delivers a still born fetus with multiple congenital malformations. Viral RNA of a neutropic virus is detected. Transplacental transmisssion of this virus causes apoptosis of neural progenitor cells in developing fetus, leading to disruption of neuronal proliferation, migration and differentiation.

Diagnosis?
Clinical features?
Pathogenesis?
Labs?

A

Congenital Zika virus

Newborn with microcephaly, craniofacial disproportion. Along with neurologic abnormalities and ocular abnormalities.

Single stranded RNA Flavivirus, transplacental transmission to fetus, targets neural progenitor cells

Neuroimaging - Calcifications, ventriculomegaly, cortical thinning

994
Q

Bluish neoplasm under the nail bed -
Ddx?
Function?

A

Subungal melanoma - pigmentation by melanocytes

Glomus tumour (glomangioma) - Thermoregulation

995
Q

Cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam -
Type of drug?
Mechanism of action?
Side effects?

A

Bile acid-binding resins

Binding bile acids in the GI tract and inhibiting enterohepatic circulation
Leads to diversion of hepatic cholesterol to synthesis of new bile acids, increased uptake of LDL cholesterol from the circulation and reduced blood LDL levels

GI upse and impaired absorption of nutrient and brugs
Also increased release of triglycerides –> hypertriglyceridemia

996
Q

Gilbert syndrome -
Pathogenesis?
Presentation?
Triggers?

A

Common familial disorder of bilirubin glucoronidation in which the production of UDP glucuronyl transferases is reuced.

Patients with no apparent liver disease who have mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Hemolysis, fasting, physical exertion, febrile illness, stress and fatigue

997
Q
45 year old Caucasian male presents with 2 year hx of abdo discomfort, greasy stool and weight loss. He has been treated for joint pain with ibuprofen. An intestinal biopsy shows multiple macrophages loaded with PAS-positive granules in the lamina propria. 
Diagnosis?
Pathogen?
Gram stain?
Treatment?
A

Whipple disease

Tropheryma whippelii

Gram positive with rod bacilli

Antibiotics

998
Q

45 year old smoker with a hx of HTN and diabetes mellitus comes to ED with severe substernal pain. ECG and enzymes show ST elevation MI. He undergoes cardiac catheterization but develops cardiogenic shock requiring vasopressors afterwards. The patient evntually dies from VF after a week. Autopsy shows bilateral wedge-shaped strips of necrosis over the cerebral convexity, parallel to and a few cm lateral to longitudinal cerebral fissure.
Diagnosis?

A

Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy.

999
Q

Most common cause of Budd Chiari syndrome

A

Polycythemia vera - overproduction of RBC leading to thrombosis

1000
Q

Why does CO binding cause decrease in SaO2?

A

CO binds Hb more avidly that O2

1001
Q

Reversible injury findings

A

Cellular swelling - loss of microvilli, membrane blebbing and swelling of RER
(Sodium buildup in the cell causes H2O to build up also)

1002
Q

Main differences between necrosis and apoptosis

A

Necrosis - inflammation occurs afterwards and NOT physiologic

1003
Q

What happens for red infarction to occur?

A

Blood must re-enter tissue

Tissue must be loosly organised

1004
Q

Saponification?

A

Fatty acids that are released by trauma or lipase join with calcium

1005
Q

30 year old woman with fibrinoid necrosis what could it be?

A

Pre-eclampsia

usually occurs due to malignant HTN and vasculitis

1006
Q

Intrinsic mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis

A

Cytochrome C
Bcl 2 role is to stabilise membrane and prevent cytochrome C being released
This activates caspases

1007
Q

Extrinsic receptor ligand pathway of apoptosis examples

A

FAS ligand binding FAS death receptor (CD95) on trget cell

TNF binds TNF receptor on target cell

1008
Q

Cytotoxic CD8 T cell pathway of apoptosis

A

Perforins create pores in membrane

Granzyme enters pores and activates caspases

1009
Q

Enzymes for free radicals

A

Superoxide dismutase
Glutathione peroxidase
Catalse (hydrogen peroxide)

1010
Q

Familial Meditteranean fever -
Pathogenesis?
Epidemiology?
Presentation?

A

Dysfuction of neutrophils - autosomal recessive

Mediteranean origin

Episodes of fever and acute serosal inflammation
High SAA during attacks deposits as AA amyloid

1011
Q

Where is P-selectin released from?

A

Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cell (mediated by histamine)

1012
Q

What induces E-selectin

A

TNF and IL-1

1013
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency -
Inheritance?
Clinical features?

A

Autosomal recessive defect of integrins (CD18)

Delayed seperation of the umbilical cord
Increased circulating neutrophils
Recurrent bacterial infections that lack pus formation

1014
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Clinical features?

A

Protein trafficking defect

Charaterised by impaired phagolysosome

Increased risk of pyogenic infections 
Neutropenia
Giant granules in leukocytes - produced by golgi
Defective primary hemostasis
Albinism - light skin and silvery hair
Peripheral neuropathy
1015
Q

MPO deficiency - symptoms?

A

Increased risk of Candida infections

NBT test turns blue

1016
Q

Granulomatous inflammation -
Type of inflammation?
Key cell?

A

Chronic

Epithelioid histiocytes (macrophage with abundant pink cytoplasm)
Surrounded by giant cells and rim of lymphocytes
1017
Q

Specific feature of noncaseating granuloma

Examples?

A

Lacks central necrosis

Reaction of foreign material
Sarcoidosis - multiple tissues like lung
Beryllium exposure
Crohn disease 
Cat scratch disease
1018
Q

Histologic hallmark of ulcerative colitis

A

Crypt abscess

1019
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency -
Pathogenesis?
Risks?

A

Low immunoglobulin due to B-cell of helper T-cell defects

Bacterial, enterovirus, giardia and also autoimmune disease and lymphoma

Present late in life

1020
Q

Hyper IgM syndrome -

Pathogenesis?

A

Due to mutated CD40 or CD40L receptor
Second signal cannot be delivered to helper T cell during b cell activation
Ig switching cytokines not produced
Low IgA, IgG and IgE –> recurrent pyogenic and mucosal infections

1021
Q

AIRE mutation -

Classic triad

A

Hypoparathyroidism
Adrenal failure
Chronic candida infections

1022
Q

Peripheral tolerance

A

Antigen recognised without costimulation signal then it will undergo anergy or apoptosis

CD95 (FAS) Death receptor
If it expresses FAS ligand then cell will undergo apoptosis

1023
Q

Regulatory T cells -
How do they work?
Polymorphisms/mutations?

A

Block T cell activation
CD4+, CD25+ (IL-2 receptor), FoxP3+

CD25+ polymorphisms - autoimmunity - MS and type 1 DM
FOXP3 mutations - IPEX syndrome (endocrinopathy, eczema X-linked)

1024
Q

Environmental triggers of autoimmunity in genetically susceptible patients

A

Increased incidence in twins

HLA-B27 and PTPN22 polymorphisms (tyrosine phosphotase -> gain of function)

1025
Q
Systemic lupus erythematous -
Epidemiology?
Risk factors?
Pathogenesis?
Clinical features?
ANA antibody?
Better tests?
A

Middle aged females
More common in african-americans and hispanics

Patients with early complement deficiency have increased risk of developing

Antigen-antibody complexes (Hypersensitivity type III)

Fever, weight loss and fatigue
Lymphadenopathy and raynaud 
Malar rash or discoid rash (circular)
Oral or nasopharyngeal ulcers
Arthritis
Serositis
Psychosis or seizures
Renal damage  (glomerulonephritis)
Anemia, thrombocytopenia or leukopenia (hypersensitivity type 2)
Libman-Sacks endocarditis

Sensitive but not specific
Better are anti-dsDNA (disease activity) and anti-Smith are specific

1026
Q

What is antiphospholipid antibody?

APA syndrome?

A

Autoantibody against proteins bound to phospholipin

Anticardiolipin (Syphilis - VDRL and RPR)
Lupus anticoagulent (falsely elevated PTT)
Anti-B2-glycoprotein I

Antiphospholipid antibody and hypercoaguable state
In deep venous, hepatic vein, placental and cerebral thrombosis

1027
Q

Treatment of SLE

Prognosis?

A

Avoid sun
Glucorticoids (flare)
Other immunosuppresive agents
>90% 5 year survival (renal failure and infection most common cause of death)

1028
Q
Sjoren syndrome -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Clinical features?
Labs?
Risks?
A

Autoimmune destruction of lacrimal and salivary glands

Lymphocyte mediated damage (yupe IV hypersensitivity)

Dry eyes, dry mouth, recurrent dental caries
(can’t chew a cracker, dirt in my eyes)

ANA and anti-ribonucleoprtein
Anti-SSA and SSB - risk of neonatal lupus and congenital heart block (screen pregnant women)

Risk of B-cell lymphoma is increased
Presents as unilateral enlargement of parotid late in disease course

1029
Q

Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) -
Where?
Pathogenesis?

A

Skin and visceral organs

Deposition of collagen in tissue by fibroblasts

1030
Q

Widespread musculoskeletal pain with fatigue. Impaired attention and concentration, psychiatric disturbances (>3 months)
Physical exam shows multiple tender points at characteristic locations not no inflammation.

A

Fibromyalgia

1031
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease -
What is it?
Testing?
Presentation?

A

Mixed features of SLE, sclerosis and polymyositis

ANA with serum antibodies against U1 ribonucleoprotein

Often have raynaud, no Renal or CNS involvement, severe arthritis and pulmonary HTN

1032
Q

Bone marrow stem cells - cytokine?

A

CD34+

1033
Q

Initial phase of repar?

What are the major components?

A

Granulation tissue

Fibroblasts (deposit type III collagen)
Capillaries (provide nutrients)
Myofibroblasts (contract wound)

1034
Q

Scar formation

A

Type III collagen converted to Type I collagen

Collagenase removes the type III collagen and requires Zinc as cofactor

1035
Q

Types of collagen

A

Type I - Bone
Type II - Cartilage
Type III - Blood vessels
Type IV - Basement membrane

1036
Q

How does Vit C impair wound healing?

A

Proline doesn’t get hydroxylated

1037
Q

How does copper impair wound healing?

A

Can’t cross link collagen - done by lysl oxidase

1038
Q
Associated cancer - Chemicals
Aflatoxins?
Alkylating agents?
Alcohol?
Arsenic?
A

Hepatocellular carcinoma (from Aspergillus)

Leukemia/lymphoma (side effect of chemo)

Squamous cell carcinoma of oro and upper esophagus, pancreatic carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma of skin, lung cancer and angiosarcoma of liver

1039
Q
Associated cancer - Chemicals
Asbestos?
Cigarette smoke?
Nitrosamines?
Naphthylamine?
Vinyl chloride?
Nickel/beryllium/chromium/silica?
A

Lung carcinoma and mesothelioma

Carcinoma of oropharynx, esophagus, lung, kidney and bladder

Stomach carcinoma (smoked foods)

Urothelial carcinoma (smoke)

Angiosarcoma of liver (occupational - PVC in pipes)

Lung carcinoma (occupational exposure)

1040
Q
Associated cancer - Oncogenic viruses
EBV?
HHV-8?
HBV and HCV?
HTLV-1?
High risk HPV (16,18,21,33)?
A

Nasopharyngeal carcioma, burkitt lympjoma and CNS lymphoma (Neck mass in chinese male)

Kaposi sarcoma (AIDS, transplant)

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

Squamous cell carcinoma of vulva, vagina, anus and cervix; adenocarcinoma of cervix

1041
Q

Associated cancer - radiation
Ionizing?
Nonionizing? (UVB)

A

AML, CML, papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma

1042
Q

Xeroderma pigementosum -

Pathogenesis?

A

Restruction endonucleases not working properly

1043
Q

Growth factor proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

PDGFB - Platelet derived growth factor

Overexpression -> autocrine loop

Astrocytoma

1044
Q

ERBB2 [HER/neu) proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Growth factor receptor proto-oncogene
Epidermal growth factor receptor

Amplification

Breast carcinoma

1045
Q

RET proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Neural growth factor receptor

Point mutation

MEN2A, MEN 2B and sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid (if genetic show ret mutation then take out thyroid prophylactically)

1046
Q

KIT proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Stem cell growth factor receptor

Point mutation

GI stromal tumour

1047
Q

RAS gene family proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Signal transducer - GTP binding protein

Point mutation

Carcinomas, melanomas, lymphoma

1048
Q

ABL proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Singal transducer - Tyrosine kinase

t(9;22) with BCR (Philidelphia chromosome)

CML and some ALL (in adults)

1049
Q

c-MYC proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Nucelar regulators - Transcription factor

t(8;14) involving IgH

Burkitt lymphoma

1050
Q

N-MYC proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Nucelar regulators - Transcription factor

Amplification

Neuroblastoma (starry sky)

1051
Q

L-MYC proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Nucelar regulators - Transcription factor

Amplification

Lung carcinoma (sall cell)

1052
Q

CCND1 (cyclin D1) proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Cell cycle regulators - Cyclin

t(11;14) translocation involving IgH
B cells overexpression heavy chain on chromosome 14
Increased cyclin D so cell cycle moves from G1 to S phase

Mantle cell lymphoma

1053
Q

CDK4 proto-oncogene -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Presents as?

A

Cyclin dependent kinase

Amplification

Melanoma

1054
Q
Scabies -
Pathogen?
Transmission?
Pathogenesis?
Treatment?
A

Sarcoptes scabiei

Prolonged skin-to-skin contact with infected individuals

Mites burrow into the epidermis and evoke a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction leading to pruritic rash

Topical permethrin - Blocks mite neurotransmission by impairing voltage-gated sodium channels
Oral ivermectin - an anti parasitic agent that binds chloride ion channels in invertebrate nerve and muscle cells

1055
Q
Nocardiosis -
Microbiology?
Epidemiology?
Clinical features?
Treatment?
A

Gram positive rod, partially acid-fast, aerobic

Endemic in soil , immunocompromised or elderly patients, disease from spore inhalation

Pneumonia, CNA involvement, cutaneous involvement

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Surgical drainage of abscesses

1056
Q

Selegiline -
Type of drug?
Used for?

A

MAO type B inhibitor

Delay progression of Parkinson disease

1057
Q

Treatment of trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

1058
Q

Widespread musculoskeletal pain with fatigue. Impaired attention and concentration, psychiatric disturbances (>3 months)
Physical exam shows multiple tender points at characteristic locations not no inflammation.

A

Fibromyalgia

1059
Q

Deer hunting trip.
Blood shows mulberry-shaped, intracytoplasmic inclusions in monocytes
Pathogen?
Transmission?

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

Tick bite

1060
Q

What happens if p53 finds mutation at G1?

A

First upregulates repair enzymes if that fails then it calls Bax and it destroys Bcl2 which is stabilising mitochondrial membrane so cytochrome C leaks out activating caspases –> apoptosis

1061
Q

Inheriting one bad copy of p53 -
What is it called?
Increased risk?

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

Multiple types of carcinomas and sarcomas

1062
Q

Function of Rb?

A

Also regulates G1 to S phase

Holds E2F transcription factor (released when Rb is phosphorylated by cyclinD/CDK4 complex)

1063
Q

Sporadic mutaton of Rb - presentation?

A

Unilateral retinoblastoma

1064
Q

Germline mutaton of Rb - presentation?

A

Bilateral retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma

1065
Q

Characteristics for spread of tumour

A

Downregulation of E-cadherin
Cells attach to laminin and destroy BM
Cells attach to fibronectin in extracellular matrix and spread locally
Entrance into vascular or lymphatic spaces allows for metastases

1066
Q

Where to carcinomas initially spread?

A

Lymphatics

1067
Q

How to sarcomas tend to spread? (and some carcinomas)

A

Hematogenous spread

(Renal cell - renal vein; Hepatocellular carcinoma - hepatic vein; Follicular carcinoma of thyroid; Choriocarcinoma

1068
Q

What type of tumour seeds body cavities?

A

Ovarian carcinoma

Cancer replaces the omentum (omental caking)

1069
Q
Intermediate filaments -
Epthelial cell?
Mesenchyme?
Muscle?
Neuroglia?
Neurons?
A

Keratin (if a tumour is keratin then its a carcinoma cause its epithelial)

Vimentin (sarcoma)

Desmin

GFAP

Neurofilament

1070
Q

What does chromogranin indicate?*

A

Neuroendrocrine cells (small cell carcinoma of lung and carcinoid tumour)

1071
Q

What does S-100 indicate?

A

Melanoma

1072
Q

Where does vWf come from?

A

Platelet and endothelial cell - Weibel-Palate body

1073
Q

Steps of primary haemostasis?

A

1) Transient constriction of damaged vessel (endothelin)
2) Platelet adhesion (vWF will bind collagen and Platelets bind vWF using GPIb receptor)
3) Platelet degranulation (release of ADP and TXA2)
4) Platelet aggregation (Using GpIIb/IIa using fibrinogen as linking molecule)

1074
Q

Primary hemostasis disorders -

Key characteristics?

A

Mucosal (Epistaxis, Gi bleed, monrrhagia, intracranial bleeding) and skin bleedings (petechia, purpura, ecchymoses, easy brusing)

1075
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia purpura -
What is it?
Where are antibodies produced?

A

Autoimmune production of IgG against platelet antigens (most common cause of thrombocytopenia)

Produced by plasma cell in spleen and consumed by macrophages in the spleen

1076
Q

Acute ITP -
When do youu see it?
Treatment?

A

Weeks after viral infection or immunization

Self-limited usually resolves within few weeks

1077
Q

Chronic ITP -
Who gets it?
Effect?

A

Women of child bearing age

Short-lived thrombocytopenia in offspring as the anti-platelet IgG can cross placenta

1078
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia -
What is it?
Complications?
When does it occur?

A

Pathologic formation of platelet microthrombi in small vessels

Platelets are consumed and RBCs are sheared resulting in hemolytic anemia with *schistocytes (2 points and no white center - looks like a helmet)

TTP and HUS
Prosthetic heart valves, aortic stenosis

1079
Q
TTP (Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura) -
Why do thrombi form?
Classic patient?
Clinical features?
Management?
A

Decreased ADAMSTS13
Normally it cleaves vWF into smaller monomers - large uncleaved multimers lead to the microthrombi

Adult female with autoantibody

Hemolytic anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, fever

Plasma exchange
Glucocorticoids
Rituxximab

1080
Q

HUS (Hemolytic uremic syndrome) -
Why do thrombi form?
Classic patient?

A

Infection with E.coli O157:H7 causes toxin called e.coli verotoxin that cause thrombi to form and they go kidney and brain and cause damage

Children who get exposure to undercooked beef

1081
Q

Clinical findings of HUS and TTP

Treatment?

A
Skin and mucosal bleedings
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Fever
Renal insufficiency (mainly HUS)
CNS abnormalities (mainly TTP)

Plasmaphoresis and corticosteroids

1082
Q

Bernard-Soulier syndrome -
Pathogenesis?
Blood smear?

A

Genetic GP1b deficiency - platelet adhesion is impaired

Mild thrombocytopenia with enlarged platelets

1083
Q

Glanzmann thrombasthenia -

Pathogenesis?

A

Genetic GIIb/IIIa deficiency - platelet aggregation is impaired

1084
Q

Vessel thrombosis, mental retardation, lens dislocation and long slender fingers
High levels of homocystein with homocystinuria
Diagnosis?

A

Cystathionine beta synthase (CBS) deficiency

1085
Q

Virchow’s triad?

A

Stasis of blood flow
Endothelial injury
Hypercoagualability

1086
Q

Factor V Leiden -

Pathogenesis?

A

Mutated from of factor V that lacks cleavage site for deactivation by protein C and S - Inability to shut it off –> hypercoaguable state

1087
Q

Factor V Leiden -

Pathogenesis?

A

Mutated from of factor V that lacks cleavage site for deactivation by protein C and S - Inability to shut it off –> hypercoaguable state

1088
Q

Prothrombin 20210A -
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?

A

Point mutation in prothrombin

Increase gene expression promoted thrombus formation

1089
Q

When do you get a gas embolus?

Chronic?

A

Divers who come up rapidly and nitrogen in the blood comes out as gas bubbles - joint and muscle pain and resp symptoms “bends and chokes”

Laproscopic surgery

Caisson disease - multifocal ischemia of the bone

1090
Q

When do you get a gas embolus?

Chronic?

A

Divers who come up rapidly and nitrogen in the blood comes out as gas bubbles - joint and muscle pain and resp symptoms “bends and chokes”

Caisson disease - multifocal ischemia of the bone

1091
Q

OCD Treatment

A

SSRI

CBT (exposure and response prevention)

1092
Q

Hereditary pulmonary arterial hypertension -
Mutation?
Inherited?
Heart sound?

A

BMPR2

Autosomal dominant

Loud pulmonic component of S2

1093
Q

Where is the brain damage -

“Split-brain syndrome”

A

Corpus callosum

1094
Q

Where is the brain damage -

Right-left confusion and difficulty with writing and mathematics. Hemi-neglect also present.

A

Parietal cortex

1095
Q
Typhoid fever -
Pathogen?
Pathogenesis?
Gram stain?
Transmission?
Presentation (week 1, 2 and 3)?
A

Salmonella Typhi
Invade enterocytes - evade destruction due to capsular Vi antigen

Gram negative

Fecal-oral - contaminated food or water

Week 1 - Rising fever, bacteremia, relative brady
Week 2 - Abdo pain, rose sports on trunk and abdomen
Week 3 - Hepatosplenomegaly
Intestinal bleedings and perforation

1096
Q

Pathogenesis of joint destruction in RA

A

Initiated by CD4+ and is characterised by synovial hyperplasia and inflammatory infiltrates. The joint space gets replaced by synovial pannus (invasive mass of fibroblast-like synovial cells, granulation tissue and inflammatory cells)

1097
Q

Colonic manifestations of adenocarcinoma -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Protuberant mass

Dysplastic mucosal cells with ariable degree of gland formation

1098
Q

Colonic manifestations of cytomegalocirus -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Multiple ulcers and mucosal erosions

Cytomegalic cells with inclusion bodies

1099
Q

Colonic manifestations of Cryptosporidium -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Nonulcerative inflammation

Basophilic clusters seen on the surface of intestinal mucosal cells

1100
Q

Colonic manifestations of Entamoeba histolytica -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Numerous discrete, flask-shaped ulcerative lesions

Trophozoites containing red blood cells

1101
Q

Colonic manifestations of Kaposi sarcoma -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Reddish/violet, flat maculopapular lesions or hemmorrhagic nodules

Spindle-shaped tumour cells with small-cessel proliferation

1102
Q

Colonic manifestations of Entamoeba histolytica -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Numerous discrete, flask-shaped ulcerative lesions

Trophozoites containing red blood cells

1103
Q

Colonic manifestations of Kaposi sarcoma -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Reddish/violet, flat maculopapular lesions or hemmorrhagic nodules

Spindle-shaped tumour cells with small-vessel proliferation

1104
Q

Colonic manifestations of Ulcerative colitis -
Colonoscopy?
biopsy?

A

Contiguous area of erythematous friable granular mucosa with possible pseudopolyps

Inflammatory infiltrate involving mucosa and submucosa with crypt abscesses

1105
Q
15 year old boy brought to the office by his mother due to difficulty with movement. The patient enjoys playing high school bball but had to leave due to worsening symptoms. Exam shows significant kyphoscoliosisand high plantar arch, His older brother suffered from a neurologic disorder and died of heart failure at age 25.
Diagnosis? 
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?
Presentation?
A

Friedreich ataxia

Autosomal recessive disorder mutation of frataxin gene (Increased trinuceleotide repeats)

Essential mitochondrial protein involved in assembly of iron-sulfur enzymes.
This leads to decreased mitochondrial energy production and increased oxidative stress resulting in degeneration of neural tracts and peripheral nerves.

1 -Spinocerebellar and lateral corticospinal tract degeneration causes gait ataxia and spastic muscle weakness
2-Degeneration of dorsal columns and root ganglia causes loss of position and vibration
3-Kyphoscoliosis and foot abnormal
4-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and heart faillure
5-Diabates Mellitus

1106
Q

Colonic manifestations of Entamoeba histolytica -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Numerous discrete, flask-shaped ulcerative lesions

Trophozoites containing red blood cells

1107
Q

Colonic manifestations of Kaposi sarcoma -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Reddish/violet, flat maculopapular lesions or hemmorrhagic nodules

Spindle-shaped tumour cells with small-vessel proliferation

1108
Q

Colonic manifestations of Ulcerative colitis -
Colonoscopy?
biopsy?

A

Contiguous area of erythematous friable granular mucosa with possible pseudopolyps

Inflammatory infiltrate involving mucosa and submucosa with crypt abscesses

1109
Q
15 year old boy brought to the office by his mother due to difficulty with movement. The patient enjoys playing high school bball but had to leave due to worsening symptoms. Exam shows significant kyphoscoliosisand high plantar arch, His older brother suffered from a neurologic disorder and died of heart failure at age 25.
Diagnosis? 
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?
Presentation?
A

Friedreich ataxia

Autosomal recessive disorder mutation of frataxin gene (Increased trinuceleotide repeats)

Essential mitochondrial protein involved in assembly of iron-sulfur enzymes.
This leads to decreased mitochondrial energy production and increased oxidative stress resulting in degeneration of neural tracts and peripheral nerves.

1 -Spinocerebellar and lateral corticospinal tract degeneration causes gait ataxia and spastic muscle weakness
2-Degeneration of dorsal columns and root ganglia causes loss of position and vibration
3-Kyphoscoliosis and foot abnormal
4-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and heart faillure
5-Diabates Mellitus

1110
Q

Colonic manifestations of Entamoeba histolytica -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Numerous discrete, flask-shaped ulcerative lesions

Trophozoites containing red blood cells

1111
Q

Colonic manifestations of Kaposi sarcoma -
Colonoscopy?
Biopsy?

A

Reddish/violet, flat maculopapular lesions or hemmorrhagic nodules

Spindle-shaped tumour cells with small-vessel proliferation

1112
Q

Colonic manifestations of Ulcerative colitis -
Colonoscopy?
biopsy?

A

Contiguous area of erythematous friable granular mucosa with possible pseudopolyps

Inflammatory infiltrate involving mucosa and submucosa with crypt abscesses

1113
Q
15 year old boy brought to the office by his mother due to difficulty with movement. The patient enjoys playing high school bball but had to leave due to worsening symptoms. Exam shows significant kyphoscoliosisand high plantar arch, His older brother suffered from a neurologic disorder and died of heart failure at age 25.
Diagnosis? 
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?
Presentation?
A

Friedreich ataxia

Autosomal recessive disorder mutation of frataxin gene (Increased trinuceleotide repeats)

Essential mitochondrial protein involved in assembly of iron-sulfur enzymes.
This leads to decreased mitochondrial energy production and increased oxidative stress resulting in degeneration of neural tracts and peripheral nerves.

1 -Spinocerebellar and lateral corticospinal tract degeneration causes gait ataxia and spastic muscle weakness
2-Degeneration of dorsal columns and root ganglia causes loss of position and vibration
3-Kyphoscoliosis and foot abnormal
4-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and heart faillure
5-Diabates Mellitus

1114
Q

MCV and anemia -

What is micro. normo and macro?

A

Microcytic - <80
Normocytic - 80-100
Macrocytic - >100

1115
Q

Microcytic anemia -

Causes?

A

Iron deficiency anemia
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia (low protoprophyrin)
Thalassemia

1116
Q
Iron deficiency causes -
Infants?
Children?
Adults?
Elderly?
A

Breast feeding

Poor diet

Peptic ulcer disease (male); menorrhagia or pregnancy

Colon polyps or carcinoma; hookworm (developing)

1117
Q

Iron deficiency anemia -
Clinical features?
Lab findings?
treatment?

A

Anemia
Koilonychia
Pica - eat abnormal foods like dirt ice etc.

Microcytic hypochromic
Decreased ferritin, Increased TIBC
Decreased serum iron and decreased saturation
Increased FEP

Supplemental iron (ferrous sulfate)

1118
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome -
What is it?
Presentation?

A

Iron deficiency anemia with esophageal web and atrophic glossitis

Presents with anemia, dysphagia and beefy-red tongue

1119
Q

Anemia of chronic disease -
Pathogenesis?
Labs?
Treatment?

A

Chronic inflammation means increase in acute phase reactant
Hepcidin increased which sequesters iron in storage sites limits iron transfer to erythroid precursor
This then suppresses EPO

high stores of iron so ferritin is high and decreased TIBC
Also decreased serum iron and decreased saturation
Increased FEP

Exogenous EPO

1120
Q

Sideroblastic anemia -

Pathogenesis?

A

Defect in protoporphyrin synthesis
(While it is being synthesized, iron is being transferred to erythroid percursor)
Iron comes to mitochondria as well but gets trapped there when there is low protoporphyrin

1121
Q

Congenital cause of sideroblastic anemia?

Acquired causes?

A

ALAS (rate limiting enzyme)

Alcoholism,
Lead poisoning (ALAD and ferro)
Vit B6 deficiency (isoniazid)
1122
Q

Thalassemia -

Pathogenesis?

A

Decreased synthesis of globin chains in Hb

Decreased globin leads to decreased Hb

1123
Q

Alpha-thalassemia -
Gene deletion details?
Chromosome?

A
Gene deletion (knockout of both)
cis deletion -> worse because increased risk of severe thalassemia in the offspring (seen in Asians)
trans deletion -> common in africa
(3 genes deleted - Severe anemia; B chains form tetramers of HbH)

Chromosome 16

1124
Q

Hydrops fetalis -
Cause?
pathogenesis?

A

4 hemoglobin alpha genesdeleted - Lethal in utero

y chains form tetramers - Hb Barts

1125
Q

Beta Thalassemia -
Gene details?
Chromosome?

A

Gene mutations not deletions on Ch 11

Mutations -> absent or diminished B-globin

1126
Q

Beta Thalassemia minor - B/B+ -
Details?
Blood smear?

A

Mildest form of disease
Usually asymptomatic with increased RBC count

Microcytic hypochromic RBCs and target cells on smear - center of RBC have red dot
Increased HbA

1127
Q
Beta Thalassemia major- B/B+ -
Details?
Presentation?
Why is the anemia so severe?
Treatment?
A

Most severe form of disease

Severe anemia a few months after birth because HbF still around (No HbA)

alpha chains dimerise and aggregate and damage RBC -> ineffective erythropoiesis and extravascular hemolysis

Chronic transfusions (risk of secondary hemochromatosis)

1128
Q

Massive erythroid hyperplasia -
Pathogenesis?
Presentation?

A

Massive EPO being released by kidney and goes to bone marrow

Expansion of hematopoeisis into marrow of skull and facial bones - crew cut appearance, thicken facial bones and chipmunk like face
Extramedullary hematopoiesis with HSM
Risk of aplastic crisis with parvo virus B19

1129
Q

Most common cause of macrocytic anemia

A

Folate or Vit b12 deficiency (megaloblastic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils)

1130
Q

Other causes of macrocytic anemia

A

Alcoholism
Liver disease
Drugs (e.g. 5-FU)
(No hypersegmented neutrophils and no megaloblastic change)

1131
Q

Folate -

Where is it absorbed?

A

Jejunum

1132
Q

Folate deficiency -

Clinical and Lab findings

A
Macrocytic RBCs and hypersegmented neutrophils
Glossitis
Decreased serum folate
Increased serum homocysteine
Normal methylmalonic acid
1133
Q

Most common cause of vit B12 deficiency?
Pathogenesis?
Clinical and lab findings?

A

Pernicious anemia

Autoimmune destruction of parietal cells (body of stomach leads to intrinsic factor deficiency

Macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils
Glossitis
Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord (methylmalonic acid builds up in the myelin)

Decreased vit b12, increased homocysteine (can’t convert to methianine)

1134
Q

Other causes of Vit B12 deficiency?

A

Pancreatic insufficiency
Damage to terminal ileum due to Crohns or Diphyllobothrium latum
Dietary deficiency is rare except in vegans

1135
Q

Intravascular hemolysis -
Pathogenesis?
Clin and lab findings?

A

Destruction of RBC within vessels

Hemoglobinemia - hemoglobin will leak
Hemoglobinuria
Hemosiderinuria
Decreased serum haptoglobin

1136
Q
Hereditary spherocytosis -
Inheritance?
Pathogenesis?
Lab and clinical findings?
Diagnosis test?
Treatment?
Complications?
A

Autosomal dominant - Northern European descent

Inherited defect of RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins - spectrin, ankyrin, band 3.1

Loss of pallor in the centre as it’s lost its biconcave shape
Increased RDW and MCHC
Splenomegaly, jaundice with unconjugated bilirubin and increased risk of gallstones
Increased risk for aplastic crisis with parvovirus B19

Osmotic fragility test - increased fragility in hypotonic solution

Splenectomy - because the problem is that the spleen is eating the cells creating anemia(spherocytes are not the problem)
Howell-Jolly bodies emerge on blood smear

Pigmented gallstones
Aplastic crises from parvovirus B19 infection

1137
Q

Sickle cell anemia -

Mutat

A

AR mutation in B chain of hemoglobin

Normal glutamic acid (hydrophilic) replaced with valine (hydrophobic)

1138
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

Treatment?

A

2 abnormal B genes that results in >90% HbS in RBCs

Hydroxyurea as it increases levels of HbF

1139
Q

Irreversible sickling -

Complications?

A

Vaso-occlusion -> infarction of tissues

Dactylitis - swollen hands and feet due to vaso-occlusive infarcts of bones (common in infants)

1140
Q

Complications of auto-splenectomy

A

Autosplenectomy -> increased risk of infection with encapsulated organisms (strep pneumo, H influenza)
Increased risk of Salmonella osteomyelitis
Howell-Jolly bodies on blood smear

1141
Q

How to identify trait vs disease

A

Metabisulfite screen - f there is any degree of HbS it will cause the cell to sickle so you can tell if someone has sickle cell trait.

1142
Q

Sickle cell trait -

Presentation?

A

Asymptomatic except in the renal medulla
The extreme hypoxia and hypertonicity causes sickling leading to microinfarctions and eventually microscopic hematuria and decreased ability to concentrate urine

1143
Q

Hemoglobin C -
Mutation?
Presentation?

A

AR mutation in B chain of hemoglobin
Normal glutamic acid is replaced by lysine

Presents with mild anemia due to extravascular hemolysis and
Hemoglobin C crystals on blood smear

1144
Q

G6PD -
Pathogenesis?
Inheritance?
Variant?

A

No NADH so ability to regenerate Gultathione by reducing it so then buildup of hydrogen peroxide

X linked recessive

African variant - mildly reduced half life
Mediterranean variant - markedly reduced half-life (fava beans)

1145
Q

Treatment of extravascular anemia

A

Cessation of drug
Steroids
IVIG
Splenectomy

1146
Q

IgM mediated autommune destruction of RBCs

Pathogens?

A

Mycoplasma oneumonia and infectious mono

1147
Q

Direct Coombs test

A

Are there RBCs bound to IgG
Anti-IgG added to RBCs and may cause agglutination

Used for Immune hemolytic anemia

1148
Q

Indirect Coombs test

A

Does the patient have antibodies in serum

1149
Q

Myelophthisic process

A

Pathologic process that replaces bone marrow

Hematopoiesis is impaired resulting in pancytopenia

1150
Q

Causes of lymphopenia

A

Immunodeficinecy
High cortisol state
Autoimmune destruction
Whole body radiation

1151
Q
Infectious mononucleosis -
Pathogenesis?
Transmission?
Where does it infect?
Presentation?
Testing?
Complications?
A

EVC infection resulting in Lymphocytic leukocytosis comprised of CD8+ cells

Saliva

Oropharynx, liver, B cells

CD8+ T cell response -> generalised lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, high whiite cell count

Monospot test - Positive 1 week after infection otherwise probs CMV (This is only a screening test)
Confirmatory test - EBV virus capsule antigen

Increased risk for spenic rupture
Rash
Dormany of virus in B cells

1152
Q

Hallmark marker for lyphoblasts in ALL

A

tDt+ ***

1153
Q

Hallmark marker for myeloblasts in AML

A

MPO

Auer rods* - line in cytoplasm

1154
Q

ALL -
What is it?
Which group?
Associated?

A

Neoplastic accumulation of lymphoblasts

Children

Downs syndrome - after age 5

1155
Q
B-ALL -
How common?
Cytokines?
Chemo response?
Classic gene change?
Other gene change?
A

Most common type of ALL

CD10, CD19, CD20

Good response but requires prophylaxis to scrotum and CSF

t(12;21) - good prognosis

t(9;22) - poor prognosis and seen in adults

1156
Q

T-ALL -
Cytokines?
Presentation?

A

Lymphoblasts that express CD2-CD8
DO NOT EXPRESS CD10

Thymic mass in teenager - Acute lympholastic lymphoma

1157
Q
AML -
Characterised by t(15;17)?
Pathogenesis?
Treatment?
Prior exposure risk?
A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

RAR receptor disrupted; promyelocytes accumulate
These contain numerous Auer rods that increases risk for DIC

ATRA - causes blasts to mature (derivative of Vit A)

Pre-existing dysplasia - alkylating agents or radiotherapy

1158
Q

Acute monocytic leukemia -
Pathogenesis?
Presentation?

A

Proliferation of monoblasts; lack MPO

Infiltrate gums

1159
Q

Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia -
Pathogenesis?
Presentations?

A

Proliferatin of megakaryoblasts; lack MPO

Associated with Down syndrome - before age 5

1160
Q
CLL -
Pathogenesis?
Cytokines?
Blood smear?
Type of kymphadenopathy?
Complications?
A

Neopastic proliferation of naive B cells

CD5 and CD20

Increased lymphocyes and smudge cells (splattered cells) seen on blood smear

generalised lymphadenopathy - small lymphocytic lymphoma

Hypogammaglobinemia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

1161
Q
Hairy Cell Leukemia -
Pathogenesis?
Characterised by?
Testing?
Presentation?
Treatment?
A

Neoplastic proliferation of mature B cells

Hairy cytoplasmic processes

Cells are positive for TRAP

Splenomegaly (red pulp*)
Dry tap with bone marrow aspiration
NO lymphadenopathy

Good response to 2-CDA - adenosine deaminase inhibitor

1162
Q

ATLL -
Pathogenesis?
Associated with?
Clinical features?

A

Neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ cells

Associated with HTLV-1 (Japan and carribean)

Rash
Generalised LAD with hepatosplenomegaly
Lytic bone lesions with hyper calcemia

1163
Q

Mycosis fungoides -
Pathogenesis?
Presentation?

A

Neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T cells

Infiltrate the skin and produce rash, plaques or nodules
Aggregates in epidermis -> Pautrier microabscesses
Sezary syndrome (spread to blood) - Cerebreoform nuclei

1164
Q

Myeloproliferative disorders -

Complications?

A

Hyperuricemia and gout
Progression to marrow fibrosis
Transformation to acute leukemia

1165
Q
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia -
What is it?
Pathogenesis?
Treatment?
Transformation?
A

Neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially granulocytes
Basophils are characteristically increased

t(9;22) translocation
BCR-ABL fusion with increased tyrosine kinase activity

Imatinib which blocks tyrosine kinase

AML (2/3) or ALL (1/3)

1166
Q

Distinguishing CML froma leukemoid reacion

A

CML granulocytes ae LAP negative
CML associated with increased basophils
CML granulocytes exhibit t(9;22)

1167
Q
Polycythemia vera - 
What is it?
Associated with?
Clinical features?
Treatment?
A

Neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells especially RBCs
Granulocytes and platelets are also increased

Associated with JAK2 kinase mutation

Blurry vision and headache
Increased risk of venous thrombosis (Budd-Chiari)
Flushed face due to congestion
Itching after bathing

Phlebotomy
Hydroxyurea

1168
Q

Polycythemia vera VS reactive polycythemia

A

In PV, SaO2 is normal and EPO is decreased

In reactive polycythemia due to lung disease, SAO2 is low and EPO is increased
Also in reactive due to ectopic EPO production (RCC), EPO is high and SaO2 is normal

1169
Q
Essentia thrombocythemia -
What is it?
Associated with?
Similar blood smear?
Symptoms?
A

Neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells especially platelets
RBCs and granulocytes are also increased

JAK 2 kinase mutation

Iron deficiency anemia

Increased risk of bleeding or thrombosis
Rare to -> marrow fibrosis or acute leukemia
No risk for hyperuricemia or gout

1170
Q
Myelofibrosis -
What is it?
Associated with?
Classic finding?
Clinical features?
Blood smear?
A

Neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially megakaryocytes

Associated with JAK2 kinase mutation

Excess PDGF results in marrow fibrosis

Splenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis
Leukoerythroblastic smear
Increased risk of infection, thrombosis and bleeding

Teardrop cells

1171
Q

Lymphadenopathy -
Follicular hyperplasia?
Paracortex hyperplasia?
Sinus histiocytes?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis and early HIV

Viral infection

LN draining tissue with cancer

1172
Q
Follicular lymhoma - 
What is it?
Clinically present?
Translocation and pathogenesis?
Treatment?
Complication?
A

Neoplastic small B cells (CD20+) that make follicle like nodules

Late adulthood with painless LAD

t(14;18) - Bcl2 becomes overexpressed
Bcl2 stabilises mitochondrial membrane preventing cytochrome c to leak out of mitochondria - inhibits apoptosis

Only for symptomatic patients
Low dose CTX or rituximab

Progress to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

1173
Q

Distinguish follicular hyperplasia vs follicular lymphoma

A

Disruption of normal LN architecture - lymphoma
Lack of tingible body macrophages in GC (apoptosis isn’t occurring)
Expression of Bcl2 in follicles
Monoclonality

1174
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma -
What is it?
When does it present?
Translocation and pathogenesis?

A

Neoplastic B cells (CD20+) that expand the mantle zone

Late adulthood wth painless LAD

t(11;14) - Cyclin D1
Overexpression of cyclin D1 promotes G1/S transition in cell cycle

1175
Q

Marginal Zone lymphoma -
What is it?
Associated with?

A

Neoplastic small B cells that expand marginal zone

Associated with chronic inflammatory states - Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Sjogrens syndrome
H pylori gastritis (marginal zone lymphoma in mucosal sites also called MALToma
(Formed by post-germinal center B cells)

1176
Q

Burkitt lymphoma -
What is it?
Associated with?
Presents as?

A

Neoplastic intermediate-sized B cells

Associated with EBV

Extranodal mass in child of oung adult
African form - jaw
Sporadic form - abdomen

1177
Q

Burkitt lymphoma -

Translocations and pathogenesis?

A

t(8;14)
Results in translocation of c-myc to Ig heavy chain locus on ch14
Overexpression of c-myc oncogene that promotes cell growth

Blue sky

1178
Q
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma -
What is it?
Prognosis?
Presents?
Arises?
A

Most common form of non-hodkin’s lymphoma
Very aggressive

Presents in late adulthood as an enlarging LN or extranodal mass

Arise sporadically or transformation from follicular lymphoma

1179
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma -
Characteristic cell?
Presentation?
Subtypes?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells (owl eyes) release cytokines that bring in other inflammatory cells
CD15 and CD30

Some have fever, chills and night sweats

Nodular sclerosis
Lymphocyte-rich (best prognosis)
Mixed cellularity (IL-5)
Lymphocyte depleted (Worst prognosis - elderly and HIV+)

1180
Q

Nodular sclerosis HL -
Presentation?
Biopsy?

A

Enlarging neck lymph node or mediastinal lymph node in a young adult usually female

Lymph node divided by broad bands of fibrosis
Reed-sternberg cells sit in big open spaces (lacunar cellsi

1181
Q
Multiple myeloma -
Important cytokines?
Pathogenesis and presentation?
SPEP indication?
Blood smear?
A

Serum IL-6 is elevated and important growth factor

Plasma cells activate RANK receptor on osteoclasts
Lytic ‘punched out’ lesions seen on xray especially in vertebrae and skull
Increased risk of fracture

Sharp spike in gamma region - M spike (indicated monoclonal immunoglobulin) usually IgG or IgA

Lacks antigenic diversity and thus infection is most common cause of death

Rouleaux formation on blood smear - poker chip
Primary AL amyloidosis due to free light chain circulating in serum and deposits in tissues

1182
Q

Multiple myeloma -

Excretion of free light chain

A

Free light chain excreted in urine as Bence Jones proteins

Deposition in kidney tubules leads to risk for renal failure (myeloma kidney)

1183
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significant -
What is it?
Who is it seen in?

A

Increased serum protein with M spike in SPEP
Other features of MM are absent

Common in elderly (5%)
1% develop MM

1184
Q

Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia -
What is it?
Clinical features?
treatment?

A

B cell lymphoma with monoclonal IgM production

Generalised LAD; lytic bone lesions absent
Increased serum protein with M spike due to IgM
Visual and neurologic deficits (retinal hemorrhage or stroke)
Bleedings

Acute - plasmapheresis

1185
Q

Langerhans cells

A

Specialised dendritic cell found in the skin
Derived from mone marrow monocytes
Present antigen to naive T cells

1186
Q

Langerhans cells histiocytosis -
EM?
Immunohistochemistry?

A

Birbeck (tennis racket) granules on EM

Cells are CD1a+ and S100+ by immunohistochemistry

1187
Q

Lettere-Siwe disease -
Malignant?
Presentation?

A

Malignant proliferation

Presents is skin rash and cystic skeletal defects in an infant <2 yrs
Multiple organs involved
Rapidly fatal

1188
Q

Eosinophilic granuloma -
What is it?
Classic presentation?
Biopsy?

A

Benign proliferation

Pathologic fracture in an adolescent (skin not involved)

Langerhans cells with mixed inflammatory cells (including eosinophils)

1189
Q

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease -
What is it?
Classic presentation?

A

Malignant proliferation of Langerhans cells

Scalp rash, lytic skull defects, diabetes insipidus and exopthalmos in a child (>age 3)

1190
Q

Buerger’s disease -
What is it?
Presentation?
Association?

A

Necrotizing vasculitis involving the digits

Ulceration, gangrene and autoamputation of fingers and toes
Raynaud phenomenon is present

High associated with smoking*

1191
Q
Wegner Granulomatosis - 
What is it?
Presentation?
Testing?
Treatment?
A

Necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis involving the nasopharynx, lungs and kidneys

Middle aged males - sinusitis or nasopharyngeal ulceration
Hemoptysis with bilateral nodular lung infiltrates
Hematuria due to RPGN

Serum c-ANCA levels correlate with disease activity

Cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids

1192
Q
Microscopic polyangiitis - 
What is it?
Presentation?
Testing?
Treatment?
A

Necrotizing vasculitis involving mutple organs, especially lung and kidney

Similar to WG but nasopharyngeal involvement and granulomas are absent

Serum p-ANCA correlate with level of disease activity

Cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids

1193
Q

Churg-Strauss Syndrome -
What is it?
Presentation?
Testing?

A

Necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis with eosinophils
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Involves multiple organs inclusing lungs and heart
Asthma and peripheral eosinophilia

p-ANCA correlates
Antibodies against neutrophil myeloperoxidase are common

1194
Q

Monkeberg Medial Calcific Sclerosis -

What is it?

A

Calcification of the media; non obstructive

Incidental finding

1195
Q

Hemanigioma -
What is it?
Presentation?
Where?

A

Benign tumour comprised of blood vessels (blanching)

Present at birth and usually regressses during childhood

Often involves skin and liver

1196
Q

Angiosarcoma -
What is it?
Where?
Association?

A

Malignant proliferation of endothelial cells
Highly aggressive

Skin, breast and liver

Liver angiosarcoma is associated with exposure to PVC, arsenic and Thorotrast

1197
Q
Kaposi Sarcoma - 
What is it?
Associated with?
Presentation?
Who gets it?
A

Low grade malignant proliferation of endothelial cells
Associated with HHV-8

Purple patches, plaques or nodules on skin (not blanching)

Older Eastern European males - needs to be surgically removed
AIDS - give retroviral agents
Transplant recipients - Decreased immunosuppression

1198
Q

Truncating mutations affecting TTN gene?
What does the gene do?
Inheritance?

A

Familial Dilated Cardiomyopathy

Encodes sarcomere protein titin
(Titin is an elastic protein that anchors beta-myosin heavy chain to the Z-discs)

Autosomal dominant inheritance

1199
Q

Common in Central and South America, sub-saharan Africa, and Asia
Prolonged incubation (months to years)
Seizures, focal neurologic symptoms, intracranial hypertension (CSF obstruction)
CT/MRI show cysts, scolex and tests indicate eosinophilia, increased ESR
Diagnosis?
Microbiology?
Management?

A

Neurocysticercosis

Ingestion of taenia solium (pork tapeworm) eggs excreted in feces of human carriers

Antiparasitic therapy (albendazole)

1200
Q

Effects of E6 and E7

A

Inhibition of cell cycle regulation and evasion of apoptosis (increasing malignant potential)

1201
Q

Adverse effects of succinylcholine

A

Malignant hyperthemia in genetically susceptible patients (halothane)

Severe hyperkalemia in patients with burns, myopathies, crush injuries and denervation

Bradycardia from parasympathetic stimulation or tachycardia from sympathetic effects

1202
Q

Nephritic syndrome characterization?

A

Glomerular inflammation resulting in hematuria and red blood cell casts.

1203
Q

COPD exacerbation -
Viral triggers?
Bacterial triggers?

A

Rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza

Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Streptococcus pneumo

1204
Q

Alport syndrome -
Associated symptoms?
Cause of injury?
Electron microscopy?

A

Hearing loss and ocular abnormalities

Defective type IV collagen in GBM

Lamellated appearance of GBM

1205
Q
A perviously healthy 23 year old man comes to the office due to abrupt-onset high fever, chills, headache, and weakness that developed during a hiking and camping trip in New Mexico. His initial symptoms was quickly followed by intensely painful swellings in the groin. Physical exam shows tender and enlarged inguinal lymph nodes with overlying erythematous skin. Gram-negative coccobacilli which resembles a closed safety pin on special staining.
Diagnosis?
Source of infection?
Pathogen?
Treatment?
A

Bubonic plague - zoonotic infection endemic to the Southwestern US.

Rodent flea bite

Yersinia pestis

Aminoglycoside

1206
Q

Pathogen in lyme disease?
Transmission?
Treatment?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

Ixodus tick

Doxycycline and/or ceftriaxone

1207
Q

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth -
Increased serum substances?
Symptoms?

A

Vitamin K and Folate

Nausea, bloating, abdo discomfort and malabsorption

1208
Q

Purulent or mucopurulent discharge
Friable cervix with easy bleeding (eg. intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding)
Microscopy of the discharge demonstrates abundant neutrophils and nucleic acid amplification testing is positive.
Diagnosis?
Complication?
Empiric treatment?

A

Gonococcal cervicitis

Infertility

Azithromycin and ceftriaxone

1209
Q

HIV associated dementia histopathologic findings?

A

Microglial nodules and multinucleated giant cells

1210
Q

Dermatophyte infections?
Pathophysiology?
Labs?

A

Tinea corporis, tinea pedis and tinea cruris

Infect keratinized matter in the stratum corneum of tthe superficial epidermis but do not invade the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.

Potassium hydrooxide preparation of skin scrapings.

1211
Q

Psychostimulants - Methylphenidate and amphetamines

Common side effects?

A

Decreased appetite, weight loss and insomnia

1212
Q

Reye syndrome -

Electron microscopy

A

Microvesicular steatosis with decreased mitochondria and glycogen depletion

1213
Q

Gerstmann syndrome -
Area affected?
Signs?

A

Angular gyrus of dominant parietal room

Agraphia (inability to write)
Acalculia (can’t carry out math equations)
Finger agnosia
Left-right disorientation

1214
Q

Function of Il-8?

A

Trigger neutrophils to enter site of infection (chmotaxis)

Induces phagocytosis in neutrophils once they have arrived

1215
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis -
Causes?
Clinical features?
Lab findings?

A
Antibiotics (beta-lactam, sulfonamide, rifampin)
PPI
NSAIDs
Diuretics
(Mycoplasma, Legionella)

Rash, fever or asymp
New drug exposure

AKI
Pyuria, haematuria, WBC casts
Eosinophilia, urinary eosinophils
Renal biopsy: inflammatory interstitial infiltrate and edema

1216
Q

32 year old hospitalised man is evaluated for new-onset SOB and confusion. Was in 3 days ago for RTA where he had bilateral femur fracture, a pelvic fracture and urethral injury. Increased temp, pulse and RR. Sats are 84%. Lungs are clear and no lower extremity edema. Petchial rash on chest. ECG shows tachy with no ischemic changes.
Diagnosis?
Histology?

A

Acute onset neuro, hypoxemia and petechia in patient with traumatic bone fracture -> Fat embolism syndrome

1217
Q

32 year old man comes in due to weakness and tingling that started in his feet and is now at his knees. He felt weak while climbing stairs. Weakness has progressed for the last week. Today he fell twice while attempting to walk. He had a mild resp infection 2 weeks ago. No social hx and no medications. Physical exam shows marked weakness in the distal muscles and moderate weakness in the proximal muscles in both legs. Deep tendon reflexes are absent at the knees.
Diagnosis?
What is it?
Histology?

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

Acute, immune-mediated demyelinating polyneuropathy due to molecular mimicry

Inflammatory infiltrate located within the endoneurium

1218
Q

45 year old woman suffers from an inability to walk.

What does Vit B12 deficiency show in spinal cord?

A

Spinal cord shows symmteric myelin layer vacuolization and axonal degeneration involving the posterior columns and the lateral corticospina tracts.
(Subacute combined degeneration)

1219
Q

Normal presure hydrocephalus -
Cause?
Triad?

A

Decreased CSF resorption

Progressive gait difficulties, cognitive disturbances ad urinary incontinence

1220
Q
Leptospirosis -
What is it?
Transmission?
Diagnostic clue?
Culture?
A

Thin, highly coiled motile spirochete

Water contaminated with animal urine

Conjunctival suffusion

Cork-screw shaped organism

1221
Q

Bacteria that can survive boiling?

A

Bacillus and Clostridium (spore forming)

1222
Q

What turns intensly pink on periodic acid-Schiff test (PAS) reaction?

A

Glycoprotein

1223
Q

AFP as tumour marker

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Germ cell

1224
Q

CA 19-9 marker?

A

Pancreatic cancer

1225
Q

What nerves travel in foramen rotundum?

A

CN V2

1226
Q

What nerves travel in foramen ovale?

A

CN V3

1227
Q

What travels in foramen spinosum?

A

Middle meningeal artery and vein

1228
Q

What travels in jugular foramen?

A

CN IX, X, XI, jugular vein

1229
Q
36 year old immigrant from Peru comes to the office due to swallowing liquids and difficulty belching. Eating slowly and extending his neck partially relieves his symptoms. He has been an active smoker for the last 18 years. BMI is 24 kg/m2.  On examination, the abdomen is soft, nondistended and nontender with no masses or organomegaly. Barium swallow shows dilated esophagus and manometry confirms absent peristalsis in the smooth muscle portion of the esophagus. 
Diagnosis?
Pathogen?
Cardiac manifestations?
GI manifestations?
A

Chagas disease

Protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi
Vector - triatomine bug
Endemic in Central and South America

Dilated cardiomyopathy with biventricular failure
Apical wall thinning with aneurysm +/- mural thrombus
Ventricular arrhythmias

Megaesophagus (secondary achalasia)
Megacolon

1230
Q

Cilostazol -
Pathogenesis?
Used for?

A

Reduces platelet activation by inhibitig platelet phosphodieserase
Direct arterial vasodilator

Decrease in claudication
Used in patients with peripheral artery disease

1231
Q

Where is the damage with nonreactive pupils to light stimulation following cardiac arrest? MRI indicates loss of grey-white matter differentiation with sulcal effacement

A

Upper midbrain

1232
Q

Sirolimus -
Mechanism of action?
Used for?

A

Proliferation signal inhibitor that targets mTOR (mammalian target of rapamycin) signalling pathway. Binds FK-506 binding protein to do that
Interruption of IL-2 signal transduction (Prevent G1->S phase progression)

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

1233
Q

35 year old man comes in with 3 months of progressive swelling under his left jaw. Swelling spontaneously opened and drained a month ago but has not improved. Tooth extracted prior. Examination shows indurated, nontender mass in the left submandibular area with a small opening on the overlying skin. Gentle pressure reveals thick pus with sand/grain-like particles.
Diagnosis?
Organism?
Pathophys?

A

Cervicofacial Actinomyces

Gram positive bacilli, branching and fiamentous growth

Inoculated in submucosa -> low O2 tension -> Growth withour regard

1234
Q

FIltration fraction formula

A

FF = GFR / RPF

1235
Q

75 year old man brought oto ED due to problems of vision and right-sided hemisensory loss that started one hour ago. While in the ED his symptoms worsen and he develops a headache. Head CT reveals multiple, small lobal haemorrhages of varying ages in the occipital and parietal area with a medium-szed acute bleed in the left pariietooccipital lobe. two years ago, patient had developed sudden right arm weakness and neuroimaging had showed a small left frotal lobe haemmorhage.
Diagnosis?
Pathogenesis?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

B amyloid deposition in the walls of small to medium sized cerebral arteries

1236
Q

Diphenoxylate -
Whhat is it?
What does it do?

A

Opioid anti-diarrheal

Binds to mu opiate receptors in the GI tract andslows motility

1237
Q

Cells in the brain most susceptible to ischemia

A

Hippocampus (pyramidal cells)

1238
Q

42 year old male treated for impaired vision develops rapidly progressive dementia and myoclonic jerks. apses into coma and dies 6 months later. Brain tissue shows gray matter changes with many uniform vacuoles between neuron cell bodies and in perikaryon of neurons. (spongiform encephalopathy)
Diagnosis?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

1239
Q

Terbinafine -
Mechanism?
Used for?

A

Inhibits synthesis of ergosterol by inhibiting the enzyme squalene epoxidase

Dermatophytosis

1240
Q

First line treatment for essential tumor

A

Propanolol

1241
Q

Function of ventromedial hypothalamic nuclei

A

Mediates satiety; destruction leads to hyperphagia

1242
Q

Function of lateral hypothalamic nuclei

A

Mediates; hunger destruction leads to anorexia

1243
Q

Function of anterior hypothalamic nuclei

A

Mediates heat dissipation; destruction leads to hyperthermia

1244
Q

Function of posterior hypothalamic nuclei

A

Mediates heat conservation; destruction leads to hypothermia

1245
Q

Function of arcuate hypothalamic nuclei

A

Secretion of dopamine (inhibits prolactin), growth hormone releasing hormone and gonadotropin releasing hormone
(Leptin acts here to inhibit neuropeptide Y and stimulates production of alpha-MSH)

1246
Q

Function of paraventricular hypothalamic nuclei

A

ADH, CRH, oxytocin and thyrotropin releasing hormone secretion

1247
Q

Function of supraoptic hypothalamic nuclei

A

Secretion of ADH hormone and oxytocin

1248
Q

Function of suprachiasmatic hypothalamic nsuclei

A

Circadian rhythm regulation and pineal gland function

1249
Q

What is synaptophysin?

A

Transmembrane protein found in presynaptic vesicles of neurons, neuroectodermal and neuroendocrine cells.

1250
Q

What are lichtenburg figures pathognomonic of?

A

Lightening

1251
Q

Formula for renal plasma flow?

A

RPF = Renal blood flow * (1-Hematocrit)

1252
Q

Sleep-walking, nightmares -
STage of sleep?
EEG pattern?

A

Non-REM stage 3

Deltawaves (<4Hz)

1253
Q

Risendronate, alendronate -
What is it?
Mechanism of action?

A

Biphosphanates

Attach to hydroxyapatite binding sites on bone surfaces
Inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption

1254
Q
Difference between of HIV-1 and HIV-2 -
Geographic location?
Viral load?
Progression to AIDS?
Intrinsic resistance?
A

Worldwide; West Africa

High; Low

7-10 yrs; 10-25 years

Limited; NNRTIs, fusion inhibitors

1255
Q

Dihydroergotamine -
What is it?
Mechanism?

A

Ergot alkaloid (used for acute migraine headache)

Constricts vascular smooth muscle via stimulation of alpha-adrenergic and serotonergic receptors.

1256
Q

Acute epididymitis -
Epidemiology?
Symptoms?
Testing?

A

Age <35: sexually transmitted
Age >35: bladder outlet obstruction

Unilateral testicular pain
Epididymal edema
Dysuria, frequence

NAAT for chlamydia and gonorrhea
Urinalysis

1257
Q

24 year old comes in with leg swelling after his fully vaccinated dog bit him last night. The patient irrigated the wound with water and soap and had acetaminophen. This morning the wound was warm, red and swollen. The distal puses are palpable. Wound cultures grow gram-negative coccobacilli; culture has mouse-like odor.
Pathogen?
Other animals?
Treatment??

A

Pasteurella multocida

Cats

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

1258
Q
24 year old man is hospitalised after a 3 days of fever, chills, m yalgias and a severe headache. The symptoms started on his last day camping on the Appalachian Mountains and they have rapidly progressed. He appears lethargic and confused. There is prominent erythematous maculopapular rash on the distal forearms.
Diagnosis?
Pathogen?
Gram stain?
Transmission?
Treatment?
A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Rickettsia rickettsii - weakly gram-negative obligate itracellular bacterium

Tick bite

Doxycycline - inhibits protein (30S ribosomal subunit)

1259
Q

Small cell carcinoma of the lung -
Clinical features?
Histology?
Associated paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

Risks - smoking, male

Sheets of small blue cells with scant cytoplasm
NCAM, neuron-specific elastase, chromogranin, synaptophysin

SIADH, Cushing, Lambert-Eaton

1260
Q

48 year old woman comes into the office due to difficulty swallowing dry food such as crackers. No pain while swallowing. She has to drink water frequently during lectures to keep her mouth moist, She reports a gritty sensation in her eyes which is worse in the evenings. She has hypothyroid and she takes levothyroxine. Physical exam shows mild conjunctival erythema and cracking of lips. There is diffuse, nontender thyroid enlargement.
Diagnosis?
Serologic markers?
Biopsy of salivary gllands?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

anti-Ro, anti-La

Periductal lymphocytic infiltrates

1261
Q

Globus sensation

A

Sensation of foreign body, tightness or fullness in the throat - functional disorder

1262
Q

Osteomalacia -
Pathophysiology?
Symptoms?
Causes?

A

Decreased mineralisation of osteoid

Bone pain and tenderness
Muscle weakness and impaired gait
Fractures

Vit D deficiency
Malabsorption
CKD
Renal tubular acidosis

1263
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome -
Etiology?
Clinical features?

A

Loss of paternally inherited allele from chromosome 15
Paternal microdeletion

Neonatal hypotonia
Hyperphagia/obesity
Short stature
Small hands and feet
Hypogonadism
Dysmorphic facies
Intellectual disability
1264
Q

Angelman syndrome -
Etiology?
Clinical features?

A

Loss of maternally inherited allele from chromosome 15
Maternal microdeletion

Epilepsy/seizures
Ataxic gait/tremors
Inapproproate laughter and smiling