WOMEN'S HEALTH 1 - Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by baby blues? How long does it last for?

A

a period of low mood and irritability, which normally starts three to four days after birth, and lasts for 1-2 weeks.

Symptoms are usually mild, only last a few days and resolve within two weeks of delivery. No treatment is required.

Happens in over 50% of mothers

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2
Q

What is seen in Postnatal depression? How long must symptoms be going on before a diagnosis can be made?

A

a depressive episode within the first twelve months postpartum, peak incidence is 2 months after birth

Postnatal depression is similar to depression that occurs outside of pregnancy, with the classic triad of:

Low mood
Anhedonia (lack of pleasure in activities)
Low energy

Symptoms should last at least two weeks before postnatal depression is diagnosed.

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3
Q

What percentage of mothers experience post natal depression? What screening tools can be used to establish this?

A

Edinburgh Postnatal depression score - Score of 10 or more can indicate depression

Patient Health Questionnaire-9

Around 10% of mothers will experience post natal depression

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4
Q

What is some of the treatment for post natal depression? What would be the medication of choice

A

self-help strategies and non-directive counselling (‘listening visits’ by a health visitor).

Moderate to severe depression usually requires treatment with antidepressant medication and/or psychotherapy (CBT).

Breast-feeding is not a contraindication for antidepressant treatment, but drugs with low excretion in breastmilk, such as sertraline, are preferred.

High levels of Fluoxetine can transfer in breast milk

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5
Q

What is the problem with SSRIs in pregnancy?

A

Can lead to neonatal abstinence syndrome (also known as neonatal adaptation syndrome).

It presents in the first few days after birth with symptoms such as irritability and poor feeding.

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6
Q

What is seen in postpartum psychosis?

A

Postpartum psychosis – 1-2:1000
Depression
Mania
Psychosis

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7
Q

What is the treatment of puerperal psychosis?

A

Admission to the mother and baby unit
Cognitive behavioural therapy
Medications
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

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8
Q

What is the partogram

A

A partogram or partograph is a composite graphical record of key data (maternal and fetal) during labour entered against time on a single sheet of paper. Relevant measurements might include statistics such as cervical dilation, fetal heart rate, duration of labour and vital signs.

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9
Q

Outline what is meant by the terms - alert line and action line in reference to the partogram

A

ALERT Line:
Mean rate of the slowest progress of labour
ACTION Line:
Appropriate action should be taken
If a patient crossed this action line, they were referred into a tertiary unit.

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10
Q

outline some things seen in the partogram

A

The progress of labor:
cervical dilatation, descent of head (-5 to +5)** and uterine contractions
The fetal condition:
fetal heart rate, color of amniotic fluid and moulding of the fetal skull
Maternal condition:
pulse, BP, temperature, urine output and urine for protein
A separate space is given to enter drugs, IV fluids and oxytocin

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11
Q

According ot current guidelines above what dilation is active labour? What is the rate of dilation needed

A

Current UK guidelines based off partogram
Active phase≥4cm
Fixed 1cm/hour alert and action lines

WHO definition
Active phase≥5cm

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12
Q

Name some non pharmalogical pain relief options in labour

A

Water
May help relaxation and contractions feel less painful
Works immediately

TENS
Gentle electric current passes through pads on their back
Can control strength
Mild tingling feeling,reduce backache in early labour

Alternative
Hypotherapy, Acupunucture

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13
Q

Outline the where the pain is coming from in the first and second stages of laboour

A

First stage -
Pain from lower uterine and cervical change
Visceral afferent nerve fibres
T10-L1 Segments

Second stage -
Pain from distension of the pelvic floor, vagina and perineum
Somatic nerve fibres, pelvic splanchnic and pudendal nerve
S2-S4

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14
Q

Give some pharmacological therapies that can be used to help manage labour pain.

A
  1. Gas and air - entonox.
  2. Paracetamol.
  3. Opioids e.g. pethidine, diamorphine.
  4. Epidural.
  5. Spinal anaesthesia.

PCIA - Patient controlled analgesia

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15
Q

Give 3 potential side effects of opioids.

A
  1. Sedation.
  2. Respiratory depression.
  3. Nausea and vomiting.
  4. They cross the placenta readily.
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16
Q

What are some features/considerations for using entonox

A

Nitrous oxide and oxygen
Works immediately, affects stop immediately when you stop using

Spaced out, nauseas,tiring, mouth dry
Don’t use when pushing

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17
Q

Outline some features/considerations when using PCIA

What is the name of the drug used?

A

Patient controlled analgesia

Remifentanil

Requires the patient to press a button everytime they feel a contraction coming
Works within 30s and wears off after a few minutes
Often entonox used as well
Baby – may be slow to breath at first
Mum – sickness, sleepiness, slow breathing, O2 via nasal cannula (pulse ox monitoring)

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18
Q

Outline what an Epidural is.

A

An epidural involves inserting a small tube (catheter) into the epidural space in the lower back. This is outside the dura mater, separate from the spinal cord and CSF.

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19
Q

What level is an epidural normally administered in and what level does it need to be extended to to cover for an emergency CS?

A

T8-T10 for normal pain

Extended up to T4 for Emergency CS

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20
Q

What are some things that may point to epidurals needed to be given in childbirth? What are some things where an epidural is contraindicated?

A

Epidurals may be used to treat maternal conditions that could be worsened by labor and delivery, such as:
Pre-eclampsia
Previous C-section
Breech presentation
Multiple pregnancy
Morbid obesity (BMI ≥40)
Serious cardiovascular or respiratory disease

Epidurals are contraindicated in certain situations, including: Severe thrombocytopenia, Coagulopathy, Sepsis, Allergy to (levo)bupivacaine, and Allergy to fentanyl.

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21
Q

What are some drugs given as an epidural? What are some side effects are there of these

A

Anaesthetic options are levobupivacaine or bupivacaine, usually mixed with fentanyl.

Adverse effects:

Headache after insertion
Hypotension
Can take up to an hour to take an effect
Motor weakness in the legs
Nerve damage
Prolonged second stage
Increased probability of instrumental delivery

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22
Q

Until what week can a women legally have an abortion? What act relates to this

A

The legal framework for a termination of pregnancy is the 1967 Abortion Act. The 1990 Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act altered and expanded the criteria for an abortion, and reduced the latest gestational age where an abortion is legal from 28 weeks to 24 weeks.

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23
Q

What are the legal requirements for an abortion?

A

The legal requirements for an abortion are:

Two registered medical practitioners must sign to agree abortion is indicated
It must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or approved premise

There is a conscious clause for doctors in the abortion act

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24
Q

When can an abortion be performed at any time during pregnancy?

A

Continuing the pregnancy is likely to risk the life of the woman
Terminating the pregnancy will prevent “grave permanent injury” to the physical or mental health of the woman
There is “substantial risk” that the child would suffer physical or mental abnormalities making it seriously handicapped

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25
Q

Outline what would happen in a medical abortion - when do they most commonly happen?

A

most appropriate earlier in pregnancy, but can be used at any gestation.

It involves two treatments:

Mifepristone (anti-progestogen)
Misoprostol (prostaglandin analogue) 1 – 2 day later

Mifepristone is an anti-progestogen medication that blocks the action of progesterone, halting the pregnancy and relaxing the cervix.

Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analogue, meaning it binds to prostaglandin receptors and activates them. Prostaglandins soften the cervix and stimulate uterine contractions.

From 10 weeks gestation, additional misoprostol doses (e.g. every 3 hours) are required until expulsion.

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26
Q

Outline what happens in a surgical abortion?

A

Prime cervix with medciiens - same as the ones used in medical abortion - Misoprostal and mifepristone and osmotic dilators that absorb fluid and open cervical canal

There are two options for surgical abortion:

Cervical dilatation and suction of the contents of the uterus (usually up to 14 weeks)
Cervical dilatation and evacuation using forceps (between 14 and 24 weeks)

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27
Q

Define puerperium.

A

The period from placental delivery to 6w after birth - the post-natal period.

the period of about six weeks after childbirth during which the mother’s reproductive organs return to their original non-pregnant condition.

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28
Q

Give 2 endocrine changes that occur during puerperium.

A

Profound decrease in serum levels of placental hormones (human placental lactogen, hcg, oestrogen and progesterone)

Increase of prolactin - as placenta is delivered

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29
Q

Give 3 physiological changes that occur during puerperium.

A

Involution of the uterus. uterus returning to pre pregnant state
Decidua sheds as lochia. - decidua -maternal uterine tissue
Lactation.

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30
Q

Describe the physiology behind the involution of the uterus

A

There is muscle ischaemia, autolysis and phagocytosis -> involution of the uterus.

  • becomes fibrous tissue - more prone to rupture in future prengancies

If can still feel uterus above belly button after a couple of days, be concerned eg Endometrisus

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31
Q

The decidua sheds as lochia, what are the three stages of this process called?

How long does this take?

A
  1. Lochia rubra.
  2. Lochia serosa.
  3. Lochia alba.

RSA

Generally lasts 4-6 weeks

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32
Q

What is the name of the breast milk that is produced at birth?

A

Colostrum.

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33
Q

What does colostrum contain?

A
  • Protein rich.
  • Vitamin A.
  • NaCl.
  • GF’s.
  • Antibodies.
  • Lactoferrin.
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34
Q

Briefly describe the physiology of lactation.

A

Baby suckles -> nipples send impulses to brain -> prolactin is released from the ant.pituitary -> milk is produced by lactocytes -> oxytocin is released from the post.pituitary -> myoepithelial contraction -> milk ejection.

– Oxytocin –> stimulates milk ejection from the breast as well as uterine contractions

Anterior first (Prolactin), then posterior (Oxy)

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35
Q

Give some benefits for mother and baby of breastfeeding

A

Maternal:

– Faster uterine involution, bonding, contraception,

– Protection from breast/ovarian/endometrial cancer.

Infant:

– Lower incidence of diarrhoea, necrotising enterocolitis (NEC),

– Lower incidence of otitis media and respiratory tract infections

Milk contains all the nutrients the infant needs (except vitamin D and K) up till 6 months of age.

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36
Q

Name 3 minor things that women are at risk of during puerperium.

A
  1. Infection.
  2. Haemorrhage.
  3. Fatigue.
  4. Anaemia.
  5. Back pain.
  6. Haemorrhoids.
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37
Q

Name 3 major things that women are at risk of during puerperium.

A
  1. Sepsis.
  2. Sever haemorrhage.
  3. Pre-eclampsia.
  4. VTE.
  5. Prolapse.
  6. Incontinence.
  7. Depression.
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38
Q

Give 3 risk factors for sepsis in pregnancy.

A
  1. Obesity.
  2. Anaemia.
  3. Diabetes.
  4. Amniocentesis/invasive procedures
    .Impaired immunity/ immunosuppressant medication
  5. Prolonged spontaneous rupture of membranes
    Group A Strep infection inclose contacts / familymembers
    History of pelvic infection
    History of group B Strepinfection
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39
Q

What can infections can lead to sepsis in pregnancy?

A
  1. Endometritis.
  2. Skin infections.
  3. Pyelonephritis.
  4. Chorioamnionitis.
  5. Pneumonia.
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40
Q

Define PPH.

A

Post-partum haemorrhage: >500ml estimated blood loss after birth of baby.

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41
Q

Define major PPH.

A

> 1500ml blood loss and continuing to bleed/signs of shock.

For a woman of 70kg a blood loss of more than 40% of her total blood volume (2,800mls) is generally regarded as life threatening

Either primary - within first 24 hours (most often immediately after delivery) or secondary - After 24 hours and up to 12 weeks post delivery

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42
Q

What are some causes of a primary Post partum haemorrhage?

A

Tone (uterine atony most commonly)

Trauma (large baby)

Thrombus (clots)

Tissue (fibroids)

– In addition, it can be caused by abnormalities of the placenta (placenta previa/accrete)

Uterine atony = soft and weak uterus after childbirth. It happens when your uterine muscles don’t contract enough to clamp the placental blood vessels shut after childbirth

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43
Q

What is the management of a post partum haemorrhage?

A

Bloods for FBC, U&E and clotting screen
Group and cross match 4 units
Warmed IV fluid and blood resuscitation as required
Oxygen (regardless of saturations)
Fresh frozen plasma is used where there are clotting abnormalities or after 4 units of blood transfusion

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44
Q

Outline the treatment to help stop the bleeding in a post partum haemorrhage

A

1st line –> Apply bimanual compression (pressure aims to compress uterine arteries) with fundal massage

– 2nd line is medical management –> IV syntocinon (oxytocin) 10 units or IM ergometrine (strong vasoconstrictor)

– You can also use IM Carboprost (Haemobate)
(prostaglandin which aids uterine contraction)

Tranexamic acid (intravenous) is an antifibrinolytic that reduces bleeding

If still bleeding take to operating theatre for surgical approaches.

– 1st line is Bakri balloon tamponade (also called intra-uterine Bakri catheter)–> used if uterine atony is main cause

– If uncontrolled, B-lynch suture or uterine artery embolism

– If still not controlled –> ligate internal branch of the internal iliac artery

– Last resort is hysterectomy

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45
Q

What is secondary PPH? What can cause it?

A

Secondary postpartum haemorrhage is where bleeding occurs from 24 hours to 12 weeks postpartum. This is more likely to be due to retained products of conception (RPOC) or infection (i.e. endometritis).

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46
Q

What are some investigations for Secondary PPH and outline the management of it

A

Investigations involve:

Ultrasound for retained products of conception
Endocervical and high vaginal swabs for infection

Management depends on the cause:

Surgical evaluation of retained products of conception
Antibiotics for infection

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47
Q

Give 5 risk factors for VTE in pregnancy.

A
  1. Increasing gestational age.
  2. Obesity.
  3. Smoking.
  4. C-section.
  5. Family history.
  6. Immobility.
  7. Multiple pregnancy e.g. twins.
  8. Previous VTE.
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48
Q

When is a woman at the greatest risk of VTE?

A

The risk is greatest just after giving birth, in the post partum period.#

Pregnant woman with a previous VTE history: LMWH throughout pregnancy until 6 weeks postnatal

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49
Q

What medication can be given postnatally to reduce a woman’s risk of VTE?

A

LMWH. eg Enoxaparin or Dalteparin

TED stockings.

Pregnant woman with a previous VTE history: LMWH throughout pregnancy until 6 weeks postnatal

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50
Q

What is the investigations you would do in a pregant women with a suspected DVT?

A

Doppler ultrasound

TOM TIP: The Wells score is not validated for use in pregnant women. D-dimers are not helpful in pregnant patients, as pregnancy is a cause of a raised D-dimer.

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51
Q

What are the investigations you would do in a suspected PE in a pregnant women?

A

Women with suspected pulmonary embolism require:

Chest xray
ECG

CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) or ventilation-perfusion (VQ) scan.

VQ scan - inhale isotpes and compare the ventilation and perfusion of the lungs - In PE will be a deficit in perfusion, as the thrombus blocks blood flow to the lung tissue.

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52
Q

What is the management of a massive PE in a pregnant women

A

Women with a massive PE and haemodynamic compromise need immediate management by an experienced team of medical doctors, obstetricians, radiologists and others.

Unfractionated heparin
Thrombolysis
Surgical embolectomy

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53
Q

Describe the physiology behind a post dural puncture headache?

A

Accidental dural puncture -> CSF leakage and decreased pressure in fluid around the brain.

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54
Q

How would you treat a post dural puncture headache?

A

Lying flat!
Simple analgesia
Fluids and caffeine??
Epidural blood patch - injecting a bit of patients own blood into epidural sapce to stop leak of CSF

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55
Q

Define sepsis. Define septic shock

A

Sepsis is a condition where the body launches a large immune response to an infection, causing large systemic inflammation and affecting the functioning of the organs of the body

Septic shock is defined when arterial blood pressure drops and results in organ hypo-perfusion.

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56
Q

What are the two key causes of sepsis in pregnancy?

A

Chorioamnionitis
Urinary tract infections

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57
Q

What is chorioamnionitis?

What is its most common cause

A

Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the chorioamniotic membranes (what makes up the sac that surrounds the embryo) and amniotic fluid.

E coli is most common

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58
Q

What are some key features of sepsis?

A

(3Ts white with sugar)

Temperature <36 or >38 degrees
Tachycardia -Heart rate > 90bpm (PN)
Tachypnoea - Respiratory rate > 20bpm

WCC >12 or <4 x 109/l
Hyperglycaemia >7.7mmol

Low blood pressure
Altered consciousness
Reduced urine output

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59
Q

What is the some of the management steps for dealing with maternal sepsis?

A

Bloods cultures
Urine output
Fluid Resuscitation
Antibiotics
Lactate
Oxygen

piperacillin and tazobactam (tazocin) plus gentamicin, or amoxicillin, clindamycin and gentamicin.

Continuous maternal and fetal monitoring is required. Depending on the condition of the mother and fetus, early delivery may be needed. Emergency caesarean section may be indicated when there is fetal distress, guided by a senior obstetrician. General anaesthesia is usually required for women with sepsis, as spinal anaesthesia is avoided.

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60
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

Where does it most commonly occur?

A

Is when a pregnancy is is implanted outside the uterus, the most common site fallopian tube. (specifically the ampulla)

most dangerous if in the the isthmus
Can also occur at the entrance to the fallopian tube, ovary, cervix or abdomen

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61
Q

What are sime risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Previous ectopic pregnancy
Previous PID
Previous surgery to the fallopian tubes
Intrauterine devices!!
Older age
Smoking

in 1/3 of ectopic pregnancies, there will be no risk factors

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62
Q

How may an ectopic pregnancy present?

A

typically presents around 6 – 8 weeks gestation.

Have a low threshold for suspecting an ectopic pregnancy, even in atypical presentations.

can be asymptomatic

Missed period
Constant lower abdominal pain in the right or left iliac fossa
Shoulder tip pain (referred pain from the diaphragm)
Vaginal bleeding
Lower abdominal or pelvic tenderness
Cervical motion tenderness (pain when moving the cervix during a bimanual examination)

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63
Q

What is the investigation of choice for an ectopic pregnancy? What would you see on this?

A

Serum HCG - pregnancy test
FBC, clotting, - to see if haemodynamically stable

A transvaginal ultrasound scan - gestational sac containing a yolk sac or fetal pole may be seen in a fallopian tube.

When a mass containing an empty gestational sac is seen, this may be referred to as the “blob sign”, “bagel sign” or “tubal ring sign

A mass representing a tubal ectopic pregnancy moves separately to the ovary. (a corpus luteum will look similar to this, but will move with the ovary)

Fluid in the uterus, which may be mistaken as a gestational sac (“pseudogestational sac”) = so is not diagnostic of an ectopic

serum b-HCG can also be performed

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64
Q

What is a pregnancy of unknown location?

A

When a women has a positive pregnancy test and there is no evidence of pregnancy on an ultrasound scan

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65
Q

How do you monitor a PUL?

What does HCG levels do in an intrauterine pregnacy vs an ectopic or misscarriage?

A

Track hCG over time (every 48 hours)
In an intrauterine pregnancy hCG will double every 48 hours, it won’t in an miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy .

Once levels are above 1500 should be able to see on USS

A fall of more than 50% is likely to indicate a miscarriage

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66
Q

What is the management for an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Women with pelvic pain or tenderness and a positive pregnancy test need to be referred to an early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU) or gynaecology service.

All ectopic pregnancies need to be terminated. An ectopic pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy.

3 options
Expectant management (awaiting natural termination, conervative)
Medical management (methotrexate)
Surgical management (salpingectomy or salpingotomy)

(Methotrexate: must be stopped at least 6 months before conception in both men and women)

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67
Q

Ectopic pregnancies - What is the criteria for expectant management?

A

Follow up needs to be possible to ensure successful termination

Patient must be clincally stable and pain free

The ectopic needs to be unruptured

Adnexal mass < 35mm

No visible heartbeat

No significant pain

HCG level < 1000 IU / l

  • repeat hCG on day 2, 4, 7 - should fall my 15% within 7 days , repeat weekly unitl IUL is <20
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68
Q

What are some things to consider when giving methotrexate to manage an ectopic pregnancy?

(Methotrexate: must be stopped at least 6 months before conception in both men and women)

A

Methotrexate is highly teratogenic (harmful to pregnancy). It is given as an intramuscular injection into a buttock.

Women treated with methotrexate are advised not to get pregnant for 3 months following treatment.

Vaginal bleeding
Nausea and vomiting
Abdominal pain
Stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)

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69
Q

What are the indications for surgical management of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Pain
Adnexal mass > 35mm
Visible heartbeat
HCG levels > 5000 IU / l

Laparoscopic salpingectomy = remove affected fallopian tube

Laparoscopic salpingotomy - sed in women at increased risk of infertility due to damage to the other tube. The aim is to avoid removing the affected fallopian tube - just remove ectopic pregnancy

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70
Q

What is a miscarriage defined by? In what % of pregnacies does a miscarriage occur?

A

Miscarriage is the spontaneous termination of a pregnancy.

Early miscarriage is before 12 weeks gestation. Late miscarriage is between 12 and 24 weeks gestation.#

Occurs in 20% of pregnancies

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71
Q

Define what a missed miscarriage is

A

the fetus is no longer alive, but no symptoms have occurred

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72
Q

Define what a
Threatened
Inevitable miscarriage is

A

Threatened miscarriage – vaginal bleeding with a closed cervix and a fetus that is alive
Inevitable miscarriage – vaginal bleeding with an open cervix

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73
Q

Define what an
Incomplete
Complete
Miscarriage is

A

Incomplete miscarriage – retained products of conception remain in the uterus after the miscarriage
Complete miscarriage – a full miscarriage has occurred, and there are no products of conception left in the uterus

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74
Q

Give some potential causes of miscarriage

A

Abnormal foetal development.
Uterine abnormality.
Incompetent cervix.
Placental failure.
Multiple pregnancy.

Think structures (uterus, placenta, cervix not working properly)

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75
Q

Give some risk factors for miscarriage.

A

Age >30.
Smoking.
Excessive alcohol consumption.
Uterine surgery.
Poorly controlled diabetes.

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76
Q

What investigations might you do to determine whether someone has had a miscarriage?

A

Transvaginal USS.
Serum hCG.

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77
Q

Describe the management of a miscarriage.

A

Vaginal misoprostol. (helps stimulate uterine contractions, to make sure everything is delivered)
Manual vacuum aspiration.
Counseling and support.

Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analogue, also used in abortions

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78
Q

What are identical twins known as? What are non identical twins known as?

A

Monozygotic: identical twins (from a single zygote)
Dizygotic: non-identical (from two different zygotes)

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79
Q

What terms describe whether a placenta and amniotic sack are shared or separated for twins? What combination has the best outcome?

A

Monoamniotic: single amniotic sac
Diamniotic: two separate amniotic sacs
Monochorionic: share a single placenta
Dichorionic: two separate placentas

The best outcomes are with diamniotic, dichorionic twin pregnancies, as each fetus has their own nutrient supply.

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80
Q

How is multiple births diagnosed?

A

on the booking ultrasound scan. Ultrasound is also used to determine the:

Gestational age
Number of placentas (chorionicity) and amniotic sacs (amnionicity)
Risk of Down’s syndrome (as part of the combined test)

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81
Q

What are some maternal complications of having a multiple birth?

A

Anaemia
Polyhydramnios
Hypertension
Malpresentation
Spontaneous preterm birth
Instrumental delivery or caesarean
Postpartum haemorrhage

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82
Q

What are some foteal/neonatal complications of a multiple birth?

A

Risks to the fetuses and neonates:

Miscarriage
Stillbirth
Fetal growth restriction
Prematurity
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence
Congenital abnormalities

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83
Q

Outline what happens in Twin-twin transfusion syndrome and Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence

A

occurs when the fetuses share a placenta.

one fetus (the recipient) may receive the majority of the blood from the placenta, while the other fetus (the donor) is starved of blood. The recipient gets the majority of the blood, and can become fluid overloaded, with heart failure and polyhydramnios. The donor has growth restriction, anaemia and oligohydramnios.

Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence is similar to twin-twin transfusion syndrome, but less acute. One twin becomes anaemic whilst the other develops polycythaemia (raised haemoglobin).

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84
Q

Name some obstetric conditions that obesity is a huge risk factor for

A

Pre-eclampsia
Sepsis
Shoulder Dystocia
Gestational diabetes

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85
Q

Name 3 reproductive disorders that are associated with obesity.

A

PCOS.
Miscarriage.
Infertility.

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86
Q

Outline some physiological changes that happen to glucose metabolism in pregnant women.

A

Glucose tolerance decreases with increasing gestation after the first trimester
Largely due to anti-insulin hormones secreted by the placenta in normal pregnancy (human placental lactogen, glucagon and cortisol)

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87
Q

What can an increased glucose tolerance seen in prengancy lead to?

A

Normal women show an approx. doubling of insulin production from the end of the first trimester to the third trimester

Likely to underlie the increased insulin requirements of women with existing diabetes
Lead to the development of abnormal glucose tolerance in gestational diabetes - where there is insufficient insulin secretion to compensate for the insulin resistance

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88
Q

What is Gestational diabetes, and what are some risk factors for getting it?

A

Gestational diabetes refers to diabetes triggered by pregnancy. It is caused by reduced insulin sensitivity during pregnancy, and resolves after birth.

Previous gestational diabetes
Previous macrosomic baby (≥ 4.5kg)
BMI > 30
Ethnic origin (black Caribbean, Middle Eastern and South Asian)
Family history of diabetes (first-degree relative)

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89
Q

What tests do you do to screen for gestational diabetes, if there are risk factors?

What week gestation do you do it?

A

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

An OGTT should be performed in the morning after a fast (they can drink plain water). The patient drinks a 75g glucose drink at the start of the test. The blood sugar level is measured before the sugar drink (fasting) and then at 2 hours.

screening is offered at 24-28 weeks,

Normal results are:

Fasting: < 5.6 mmol/l
At 2 hours: < 7.8 mmol/l

Results higher than this suggest gestational diabetes

remember the cutoff for gestational diabetes as simply 5 – 6 – 7 – 8.

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90
Q

What is the management of women with gestational diabetes?

A

The initial management suggested by the NICE guidelines (2015) is:

Fasting glucose less than 7 mmol/l (5.6-7): trial of diet and exercise for 1-2 weeks, followed by metformin, then insulin

Fasting glucose above 7 mmol/l: start insulin ± metformin

Fasting glucose above 6 mmol/l plus macrosomia (or other complications): start insulin ± metformin

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91
Q

What is some of the obstetric management seen in women with diabetes?

A

Monitoring for pre-eclampsia with regular BP and urine checks

Regular fetal growth scans (usually 28, 32 and 36 weeks) – to assess fetal size, growth velocity and enable delivery planning

Timing of delivery – induction of labour or planned caesarean section
For uncomplicated GDM – delivery by 40+6
For complicated GDM – 37 – 38+6

Intrapartum care
Fetal monitoring
Hourly monitoring of blood glucose
May need variable rate insulin infusion to maintain blood glucose

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92
Q

What is some medication that is given to woman with Diabetes 1 or 2 when they are pregnant? What key screening is offered?

A

Aspirin 150mg once daily from 12 weeks until delivery – to reduce risk of pre-eclampsia

Folic acid 5mg ideally from preconception (or as early as possible) until 14 weeks

Retinopathy screening should be performed shortly after booking and at 28 weeks gestation.

Diabetes carries a risk of rapid progression of retinopathy, and interventions may be required.

Aspirin should be stopped before delivery, as it is contraindicated in breast feeding

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93
Q

What are some complications of gestational diabetes?

A

macrosomia and neonatal hypoglycaemia.

macrosomia poses a risk of shoulder dystocia

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94
Q

What are some fetal problems assossciated with maternal diabetes?

A

congenital malformations
Intrauterine growth restriction
macrosomia =maternal hyperglycaemia
causes fetal hyperglycaemia as glucose crosses the
placenta, foetus secretes more insulin that promotes growth

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95
Q

What are some neonatal problems associated with maternal diabetses

A
  • hypoglycaemia
  • respiratory distress syndrome – more common as
    lung maturation is delayed
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy – hypertrophy of the
    cardiac septum occurs in some infants. It regresses
    over several weeks but may cause heart failure
    from reduced left ventricular function
  • polycythaemia (venous haematocrit >0.65)
    – makes the infant look plethoric. (plethora = polycythaemia of newborns)**
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96
Q

What are some causes of primary hypertension?

A

It has multifactorial aetiology

Genetic factors – can run in families 40%-60% have a genetic component
Foetal factors – low birth weight is associated with hypertension

Obesity
High alcohol Alcohol intake
Insulin intolerance
Lack of physical activity
Metabolic Syndrome X cluster of conditions, such as high insulin levels, glucose intolerance, low levels of HDLs, central obesity

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97
Q

What are some main causes of secondary hypertension?

A

○ Renal e.g. CKD
○ Endocrine e.g. Conn’s syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome
○ Coarctation of the aorta
○ Pre-eclampsia occurring during third trimester of pregnancy

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98
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind some of the issues that hypertension does to the body.

A

Hypertension - Causes arteries to common less compliant, and narrowing of the lumen
Can lead to Hyaline arteriosclerosis, which is protein deposition in the arterial wall,
Lead to atherosclerosis and aneurysms forming - stroke
Endothelial damage = CAD, ACS

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99
Q

Hypertension medication - what is the first line treatment for someone who is NOT black, and under 55 years

A

ACE-Inhibitor e.g. Ramipril (or angiotensin receptor blocker e.g. candesartan if contraindicated e.g. due to cough)

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100
Q

Hypertension medication - what is the first line treatment for someone who is black, or over 55 years

A

calcium channel blocker e.g. amlodipine

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101
Q

Hypertension medication - what is the second line treatment for hypertension?

A

ACE-inhibitor + CCB

Or if afro Caribbean - CCB and ARB/ACEi or Thiazide like Diuretic

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102
Q

What is the first line medication given to anyone with T2DM, regardless of age or race?

A

ACEi, eg Ramipril

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103
Q

Hypertension medicine - when would a Angiotensin receptor blocker be given? Give a example of one

A

eg Candesartan

It’s given instead of an ACE-inhibitor, if a ACE-i is contraindicated.

You give ACE-i to anyone who is younger than 55, or not Black afro Caribbean, or someone with Diabetes at any age .

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104
Q

Define chronic hypertension.

time frames!

A

A patient with high BP which is diagnosed prior to pregnancy or before week 20 of pregnancy

Their high BP is not resolved postpartum.

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105
Q

Define gestational hypertension.

time frames!

A

New high BP after 20w gestation and resolves after giving birth. There is no proteinuria or end organ damage

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106
Q

Define preeclampsia and eclampsia - what is the triad seen in preeclampsia?

A

Pre-eclampsia is defined as new-onset BP ≥ 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks AND ≥ 1 of proteinuria, organ dysfunction

Pre-eclampsia features a triad of:

Hypertension
Proteinuria
Oedema

Can also see
Severe headache, visual disturbance, clonus, liver tenderness, abnormal liver enzymes,. plate count low

Eclampsia is when seizures occur as a result of pre-eclampsia.

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107
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind pre eclampsia

A

Pre-eclampsia is caused by high vascular resistance in the spiral arteries and poor perfusion of the placenta. This causes oxidative stress in the placenta, and the release of inflammatory chemicals into the systemic circulation, leading to systemic inflammation and impaired endothelial function in the blood vessels.

Pre-eclampsia is defined as new-onset BP ≥ 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks AND ≥ 1 of proteinuria, organ dysfunction

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108
Q

HWhat are some risk factors for preeclampsia?

A

High-risk factors are:

Pre-existing hypertension
Previous hypertension in pregnancy
Existing autoimmune conditions (e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus)
Diabetes
Chronic kidney disease

Moderate-risk factors are:

Older than 40
BMI > 35
More than 10 years since previous pregnancy
Multiple pregnancy
First pregnancy
Family history of pre-eclampsia

GIve aspirin for either 1 high risk or 2 low risk factors

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109
Q

What are some symptoms of preeclampsia?

A

Headache
Visual disturbance or blurriness
Nausea and vomiting
Upper abdominal or epigastric pain (this is due to liver swelling)
Oedema
Reduced urine output
Brisk reflexes

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110
Q

How can a diagnosis of pre-eclampsia be made?

A

The NICE guidelines (2019) advise a diagnosis can be made with a:

Systolic blood pressure above 140 mmHg
Diastolic blood pressure above 90 mmHg
PLUS any of:

Proteinuria (1+ or more on urine dipstick)
Organ dysfunction (e.g. raised creatinine, elevated liver enzymes, seizures, thrombocytopenia or haemolytic anaemia)

Placental dysfunction (e.g. fetal growth restriction or abnormal Doppler studies)

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111
Q

What is the prophlyatic managment of pre eclampsia, and when would you give it?

A

Aspirin is used for prophylaxis against the development of pre-eclampsia. It is given from 12 weeks gestation until birth to women with:

A single high-risk factor
Two or more moderate-risk factors

aspirin is CI in breastfeeding btw

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112
Q

What is the management of pre-eclampsia?

A

Labetolol is first-line as an antihypertensive
Nifedipine (modified-release) is commonly used second-line (needs to be rapidly acting)

Treat coagulation defects,
Check bloods, eg platelet, renal and liver
magnesium sulphate if hyperreflexia (also prevents seizures in pregnant woman w eclampsia)

Planned early birth may be necessary if the blood pressure cannot be controlled, or decline in liver or renal function (monitor these closely)

^This should resolve the pre eclampsia
Corticosteroids should be given to women having a premature birth to help mature the fetal lungs.

Limit fluid intake as low protein, so extra fluids can cause oedema

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113
Q

What are some complicatons of pre eclampsia?

A

Fetal growth restriction. Preeclampsia affects the arteries carrying blood to the placenta
Preterm birth.
Placental abruption.
hemolysis elevated liver enzymes and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome.
Eclampsia.
Stroke
Renal Failure
oligohydramnos

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114
Q

How do you manage eclampsia?

A

Eclampsia refers to the seizures associated with pre-eclampsia. IV magnesium sulphate (4g vein over 15 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour maintained for 24 hours) is used to manage seizures associated with pre-eclampsia.

any seizure in a pregnant woman are always eclampsia until proven otherwise

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115
Q

What acronym syndrome can occur as a complication of preeclampsia and eclampsia?

A

HELLP syndrome is a combination of features that occurs as a complication of pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. It is an acronym for the key characteristics:

Haemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

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116
Q

How can pregnancy affect anaemia

A

2-fold increase in iron requirements -> micro-cytic aneamia.

B12/folate deficiency -> macrocytic anaemia.

During pregnancy, the plasma volume increases. This results in a reduction in the haemoglobin concentratio

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117
Q

What are the normal ranges for hemoglobin during pregnancy?

A

Booking bloods
> 110 g/l

28 weeks gestation
> 105 g/l

Post partum
> 100 g/l

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118
Q

What pregeancy related causes can be indicated in a normal/high/low MCV anaemia?

A

Low MCV may indicate iron deficiency
Normal MCV may indicate a physiological anaemia due to the increased plasma volume of pregnancy
Raised MCV may indicate B12 or folate deficiency

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119
Q

What is the management of anaemia in pregancy?

How much folate should pregnant woman take a day?

A

iron replacement (e.g. ferrous sulphate 200mg three times daily).

not anaemic but low ferritin - supplementary iron.

. Women with low B12 should be tested for pernicious anaemia (checking for intrinsic factor antibodies). -Intramuscular hydroxocobalamin injections

All women should already be taking folic acid 400mcg per day. Women with folate deficiency are started on folic acid 5mg daily

Women on antiepileptics, who try to conceive, should receive folic acid 5mg instead of 400mcg OD
.

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120
Q

What are the symptoms of gonorrhoeae?

A

Asymptomatic (50%)

Malodorous, purulent discharge from the urethra, cervix, vagina,3 to 5 days after exposure (40% to 60%)

Simultaneous urethral infection (70% to 90%)

Infection of the pharynx (10% to 20%)

Gonococcal conjunctivitis (can rapidly lead to
blindness)

Polyarthritis

Later on, can cause intermenstraul bleeding, pain when weeing, and lead to PID - which can lead to problems with fertililty

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121
Q

What test do you use to diagnose Gonorrhoea?

A

Near patient test
Microscopy of gram stained smears of genital secretions looking for gram negative diplococci within cytoplasm of polymorphs

Culture on Gonococcus agar

Male - urethra
Female - endocervix
Rectum

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122
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

A single dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone 1g if the sensitivities are NOT known
A single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg if the sensitivities ARE known

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123
Q

What prophylactic antibiotic do we give to women going into labour who have group B streptococcal colonisation, bacteriuria or infection during the current pregnancy, or a clinical diagnosis of chorioamnionitis

A

Women without chorioamnionitis
Use Benzylpenicillin.

Women with chorioamnionitis
Use Benzylpenicillin plus gentamicin plus metronidazole.

Gentamicin = Aminoglycoside (For gram neg)
Metronidazole = For anaearobic cover

124
Q

What are some consquences for mother and neonate of a chlamydia infection?

A

Mother -
Can be Asymptomatic
Preterm labor
Chorioamnionitis
PID

For neonate -
Conjunctivitis
Pneumonia

125
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

1-week oral doxycycline (a tetracycline)

Pregnant – oral erythromycin (14 days) or oral azithromycin - (macrolides)

126
Q

What bacteria causes syphillis?

A

Syphilis is caused by bacteria called Treponema pallidum. This bacteria is a spirochete, a type of spiral-shaped bacteria.

127
Q

What are the stages of Syphilis?

A

Primary syphilis involves a painless ulcer called a chancre at the original site of infection
Secondary syphilis
Latent syphilis symptoms disappear and the patient becomes asymptomatic despite still being infected.
Tertiary syphilis
Neurosyphilis occurs if the infection involves the central nervous system

128
Q

What would someone with primary syphilis present with?

A

A painless genital ulcer (chancre). This tends to resolve over 3 – 8 weeks.
Local lymphadenopathy

129
Q

What would someone with secondary syphilis present with?

A

ypically starts after the chancre has healed, with symptoms of:

Maculopapular rash
Condylomata lata (grey wart-like lesions around the genitals and anus)
Low-grade fever
Lymphadenopathy
Alopecia (localised hair loss)
Oral lesions

130
Q

What is the management for syphilis

A

. As with all sexually transmitted infections, patients need:

Full screening for other STIs
Advice about avoiding sexual activity until treated
Contact tracing
Prevention of future infections

A single deep intramuscular dose of benzathine benzylpenicillin (penicillin) is the standard treatment for syphilis. (in pregnancy, women who are allergic to penicillin should undergo penicillin desensitization
and then be treated with penicillin)

131
Q

What can syphillis do to newborn?

A
  • Stillbirth
  • Maculopapular rash
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Cardiovascular anomalies
  • Sensorineural deafness
132
Q

Define Puerperal

A

during or relating to the period of about six weeks after childbirth (known as the puerperium) during which the mother’s reproductive organs return to their original non-pregnant condition.

133
Q

Name some common complications of puerperium

A

Endometritis
C - Section infection
Mastitis
Breast engorgement
Necrotising fasicitis
Psychiatric issues

134
Q

Outline what Endometiris is and some risk factors for it.

A

infection of the endometrium that often
invades the underlying myometrium.

Risk factors
Miscarriage (when fetal tissue is left behind)
C - Section
Prolonged rupture of membranes,
multiple vaginal examinations,

135
Q

What is the common presentionation of endometritis? When does it most commonly occur?

A

Endometritis is a clinical diagnosis with fever, uterine tenderness, a foul purulent vaginal discharge, and/or increased vaginal bleeding.

It occurs most commonly 5–10 days after delivery.

136
Q

What is the treatment for post partum endometritis?

A

The first line is IV Clindamycin and Gentamicin

Clindamycin is a lincosamide , gentamicin an Aminoglycoside
.

137
Q

What is Mastitis, and what is the most common cause of it?

A

This is a condition that refers to inflammation of the breast

– It is associated with breastfeeding: milk stasis can cause an inflammatory response -> may then get secondary infection, most commonly with staphylococcus aureus

138
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of mastitis, and what is the management of it?

A

Erythematous, tender, swollen area of breast
– Systemic upset with fevers, chills and fatigue

– 1st line is to advise continue breastfeeding, ensuring the breast is fully emptied

– If symptoms do not improve after 24 hours of milk removal –> Flucloxacillin 10-14 days

139
Q

What is breast engorgement? When and why can it happen?

A

Caused by vascular
and lymphatic stasis

May occur on days 2–4 postpartum in women who are not nursing
or at any time if breastfeeding is interrupted.

Management conservatively with ice packs and painkillers

140
Q

What causes Trichomnoiasis? what type of pathogen is it?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis - its type of parasite classed as a protozoan, and is a single-celled organism with flagella

Trichomonas is spread through sexual activity and lives in the urethra of men and women and the vagina of women.

141
Q

What can be some consequences for women with Trichomoniasis

A

Trichomonas can increase the risk of:

Contracting HIV by damaging the vaginal mucosa
Bacterial vaginosis
Cervical cancer
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Pregnancy-related complications such as preterm delivery.
Premature rupture of
fetal membranes

Can lead to prem baby and low birthweight

142
Q

What is the presentation of Trichomoniasis? What is the management for it?

A

The typical description of the vaginal discharge is frothy and yellow-green, although this can vary significantly. It may have a fishy smell.
Itching
Dysuria (painful urination)
Dyspareunia (painful sex)
Balanitis (inflammation to the glans penis)

Examination of the cervix can reveal a characteristic “strawberry cervix” (also called colpitis macularis

143
Q

What are the investigations for trichomoniasis? What is the management?

A

Testing the vaginal pH will reveal a raised ph (above 4.5), similar to bacterial vaginosis.

The diagnosis can be confirmed with a standard charcoal swab with microscopy (examination under a microscope).

Swabs should be taken from the posterior fornix of the vagina (behind the cervix) in women. A self-taken low vaginal swab may be used as an alternative.

A urethral swab or first-catch urine is used in men.

Treatment is with metronidazole.

144
Q

What can UTIs in pregnant women increase the risk of?

A

pre-term premature rupture of membrane,
maternal chorioamnionitis,
intrauterine growth retardation
low birth weight baby
pre-eclampsia.

145
Q

What is the only group of women that testing for bacteria in asymptomatci patients is reccommened for? Why is this

A

Testing for bacteria in the urine of asymptomatic patients is not recommended as it may lead to unnecessary antibiotics. Pregnant women are an exception to this rule, due to the adverse outcomes associated with infection.

Pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria are at higher risk of developing lower urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis, and subsequently at risk of preterm birth.

Pregnant women are tested for asymptomatic bacteriuria at booking and routinely throughout pregnancy. This involves sending a urine sample to the lab for microscopy, culture and sensitivities (MC&S).

146
Q

What antibiotic would you tend to give pregnant women with a UTI ? When would you avoid the first line treatment

A

Urinary tract infection in pregnancy requires 7 days of antibiotics.

The antibiotic options are:

Nitrofurantoin (avoid in the third trimester)
Amoxicillin (only after sensitivities are known)
Cefalexin

147
Q

What test will determine whether a pregnant mother is safe against VZV?

A

Mothers that have previously had chickenpox are immune and safe. When in doubt, IgG levels for VZV can be tested. A positive IgG for VZV indicates immunity.

Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy - first step is to check antibodies

148
Q

What can you give to pregnant women exposed to VZV in pregnancy?

A

historically, exposure has been managed through the timely administration of varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). However, the guidance has changed due to a national/international VZIG shortage.

oral aciclovir (or valaciclovir) is now the first choice of PEP for pregnant women at any stage of pregnancy

antivirals should be given at day 7 to day 14 after exposure, not immediately

When the chickenpox rash starts in pregnancy, they may be treated with oral aciclovir if they present within 24 hours and are more than 20 weeks gestation.

149
Q

Name some pathogens that can be transferred from mother to fetus

A

Toxoplasma Gondii
Other -Parvovirus B19, VZV, Zika, Syphilis
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus, Chlamydia, Coxsackie Virus
Herpes Simplex 2, HIV, Hepatitis B

150
Q

What is Oligohydramnios?

A

This is the term used to describe an abnormally low level of amniotic fluid during pregnancy

– It is characterised by having less than <500ml at 32-36 weeks and amniotic fluid index (AFI) <5th percentile

Prevalence: Rare in early pregnancy, common in postterm pregnancies (12% to 25% at 41 weeks).

151
Q

What are some Causes of oligohydramnios?

A

Causes:

– Low production of foetal urine –> Renal agenesis (Potter’s syndrome), dysplastic kidney, obstructive uropathy

– Poor Placental diffusion –> Pre-eclampsia

– Leakage of amniotic fluid –> Premature rupture of membranes - Causes 50% or oligohydramnios

Other causes include congenital infection, fetal cardiac defects, neural tube defects, twin–twin transfusion syndrome, and non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs

152
Q

What are some complications that Oligohydrosis can lead to?

A

– Abnormal lie and development

Poor respiratory development –> amniotic fluid is needed for maturation of the alveoli, so infants are born with severe respiratory distress

– Foetal muscle contractures (as amniotic fluid allows the fetus to move its limbs in utero)

Amniotic band syndrome (adhesions between the
amnion and fetus causing serious deformities, including limb amputation) or musculoskeletal deformities due to uterine compression (such
as clubfoot) may develop in some cases.

153
Q

What is the investigation of choice and treatment for oligohydramnios?

A

Diagnosis:

– Ultrasound is investigation of choice (shows level <5th centile)

Management:

– Increase maternal hydration
- amniofusion (the introduction of normal saline via an intrauterine catheter placed through the partially dilated cervix during labour to stop cord compression)

154
Q

What is Polyhydramnios?

A

This is the term used to describe an abnormally high level of amniotic fluid during pregnancy

– It is used when the amniotic fluid index is above the 95th centile for gestational age

– It causes over-distension of the uterus which can lead to preterm labour and other complications

155
Q

What are some cause of Polyhydramnios?

A

– It is idiopathic in the majority of cases

Maternal Diabetes, as amniotic fluid is dependent on
degree of glycemic control, and macrosomia (big babies produce more urine)

– Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome –> leads to oligohydramnios for one and polyhydramnios for the other

– Decreased swallowing of fluid –> foetal oesophageal/duodenal atresia or CNS abnormalities
_ hydrops fetalis (foetal heart failure)

156
Q

What are some signs of Polyhydramnios, and how would you investigate it?

A

Signs and Symptoms
* Uterine size larger than normal for stage of
pregnancy
* Dyspnea (especially when lying on back (supine))
* Premature labor
* Difficulty palpating fetal parts or hearing fetal heart
tones
refractory edema of the lower extremities and vulva.

  • Diagnosis. Polyhydramnios should be suspected if the fundal height is significantly more than expected for gestational age. Diagnose wit It is defined via US as a total amniotic fluid volume >2L
157
Q

What is the treatment for Polyhydramnios?

A

Antacids to relieve heartburn and nausea for the mother

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (indomethacin) can decrease fetal urine production, but may cause premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus.

Removal of fluid by amniocentesis is only transiently effective.

158
Q

Regarding Malpresentations of a foetus, what are the three definitions that you need to know?

A

Lie - the relationship between the long axis of the fetus and the mother.
Presentation - the fetal part that first enters the maternal pelvis.
Position – the position of the fetal head as it exits the birth canal.

159
Q

What are some risk factors for an abnormal fetal lie/malpresentation/malpostion

A

Prematurity
Multiple pregnancy
Uterine abnormalities (e.g fibroids, partial septate uterus)
Fetal abnormalities
Placenta praevia - the placenta partially or wholly blocks the neck of the uterus
Primiparity (first child)

160
Q

What are the different types of malpresentation you may see

A

Cephalic vertex presentation is the most common and is considered the safest
Other presentations include breech, shoulder, face and brow

161
Q

What are the different types of abnormal lie you may see?

A

Longitudinal, transverse or oblique

162
Q

How would you manage abnormal lie?

A

external cephalic version (ECV) is the manipulation of the fetus to a cephalic presentation through the maternal abdomen.

C section delivery if unsuccessful

It has an approximate success rate of 50% in primiparous women and 60% in multiparous women.

163
Q

How do you manage the different types of malposition?

A

Breech – attempt ECV before labour, vaginal breech delivery or C-section
Brow – a C-section is necessary

Face - chin is anterior (mento-anterior) a try normal labour then C section

chin is posterior (mento-posterior) then a C-section is necessary
Shoulder – a C-section is necessary

164
Q

What are the 3 main types of breach postion? What is the most dangerous?

A

– Complete –> this is where the complete caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment

  • Frank –> this is the most common where buttocks occupy the lower segment

– Footling –> this is the most dangerous form where the foot is in the pelvis

165
Q

What are some risk factors for a breach delivery?

A

– Mother –> Malformations of the uterus, large fibroids, previous uterine surgery

– Pregnancy –> Placenta Praevia, poly/oligohydramnios, prematurity

166
Q

What is the management for a breach presentation

A

If <36 weeks:

– No action is required yet as many foetuses will turn spontaneously to cephalic presentation

If >36 weeks:

– 1st line is external cephalic version (ECV) to turn baby into cephalic presentation

– It is offered at 36 weeks for 1st time mothers and 37 weeks for multiparous women

– However, this cannot be offered if there are multiple pregnancies or ruptured membranes

If unsuccessful:

– Offer elective Caesarean section or vaginal breech delivery

167
Q

What is the most common cause of failure to progress in
a) Primigravida
b) Multigravida

A

a) insufficient uterine contractions (so can just give syntocinon)

b) Cephalopelvic disproportion (so givng syntoncinon isnt gonna help, need C section)

168
Q

why do we not give syntoncinon in multigravida failure to progress

A
  • because after birth - uteris becomes fibrous tissue - more prone to rupture in future prengancies
169
Q

What is Cephalopelvic disproportion?

A

When the size of pelvis cant allow the foetus to pass through the birth canal.

This may be due to a small pelvis, a nongynecoid pelvic formation, a large fetus, an unfavorable orientation of the fetus, or a combination of these factors

170
Q

How do you treat cephalopelvic disproportion?

A

In the case of a fetus being too large, some obstetricians recommend induction of labour for earlier delivery. Diagnosis of CPD in active labour will usually result in a Caesarian section

171
Q

What is a Uterine ruputre? What are the two types

A

Uterine rupture refers to a full-thickness disruption of the uterine muscle and overlying serosa. It typically occurs during labour, and can extend to affect the bladder or broad ligament.

There are two main types:

Incomplete – uterine serosa (perimetrium) surrounding the uterus remains intact.. In this case, the uterine contents remain within the uterus.

Complete – complete rupture, the serosa ruptures along with the myometrium, and the contents of the uterus are released into the peritoneal cavity.

172
Q

What are some risk factors of a uterine ruputre?

A

Vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC)
Previous uterine surgery
Increased BMI
High parity
Increased age
Induction of labour
Use of oxytocin to stimulate contractions

173
Q

What is the presentation of a uterine rupture?

A

Abdominal pain
Vaginal bleeding
Ceasing of uterine contractions
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Collapse

174
Q

What is the management of a uterine rupture?

A

Uterine rupture is an obstetric emergency. Resuscitation and transfusion may be required. Emergency caesarean section is necessary to remove the baby, stop any bleeding and repair or remove the uterus (hysterectomy).

175
Q

How many stages of labour are there? What 2 things can trigger the onset of labour?

A

There are 3 stages.

in the third trimester, before Labor starts , a woman might have a plug of mucus and blood fall out of the opening to the cervix sometimes called the bloody shell

other times the amniotic sac might rupture sometimes called water breaking either of these can trigger the onset of Labor - this releases loads of prostaglandins which stimulate labour

176
Q

Outline what happens in the first stage of labour.

A

The first stage of labour is from the onset of labour (true contractions) until the cervix is fully dilated to 10cm. It involves cervical dilation (opening up) and effacement (getting thinner from front to back).

Latent phase: From 0 to 3cm dilation of the cervix. This progresses at around 0.5cm per hour. There are irregular contractions. (can take 24 hours in primgravida)
Active phase: From 3cm to 7cm dilation of the cervix. This progresses at around 1cm per hour, and there are regular contractions. (can take 4-6 hours in primigravida) (examination every 4 hours)
Transition phase: From 7cm to 10cm dilation of the cervix. This progresses at around 1cm per hour, and there are strong and regular contractions.

177
Q

What does the second stage of labour consist of, and what does this stage depend on?

A

The second stage of labour lasts from 10cm dilatation of the cervix to delivery of the baby

The success of the second stage depends on “the three Ps”: power, passenger and passage.

178
Q

What descriptive qualities are outline in “passenger” in the second stage of labour?

A

Size: particularly the size of the head as this is the largest part.

Attitude: the posture of the fetus. For example, how the back is rounded and how the head and limbs are flexed.

Lie: the position of the fetus in relation to the mother’s body:

Presentation: the part of the fetus closest to the cervix:

179
Q

What happens in the third stage of labour?

A

The third stage of labour is from the completed birth of the baby to the delivery of the placenta.

Can be done naturally/physiologically

or Active management from Dr or Midwife
==>involves giving a dose of intramuscular oxytocin to help the uterus contract and expel the placenta.

Careful traction is applied to the umbilical cord to guide the placenta out of the uterus and vagina.

180
Q

outline what is meant by descent, in the progression of labour

A

Descent
Obstetricians describe the position of the baby’s head in relation to the mother’s ischial spines during the descent phase. Descent is measured in centimetres, from:

-5: when the baby is high up at around the pelvic inlet
0: when the head is at the ischial spines (this is when the head is “engaged”)
+5: when the fetal head has descended further out

181
Q

What are the measures done for failure to progress

A

Amniotomy, also known as artificial rupture of membranes (ARM) for women with intact membranes
Oxytocin infusion
Instrumental delivery
Caesarean section

182
Q

What are your aiming for with giving oxytocin for failure to progress?

A

. It is started at a low rate and titrated up at intervals of at least 30 minutes as required. The aim is for 4 – 5 contractions per 10 minutes. Too few contractions will mean that labour does not progress. Too many contractions can result in fetal compromise, as the fetus does not have the opportunity to recover between contractions.

183
Q

Define premmaturity. Before how many weeks is a baby considered non viable?

A

Prematurity is defined as birth before 37 weeks gestation

Babies are considered non-viable below 23 weeks gestation. Generally, from 23 to 24 weeks, resuscitation is not considered in babies that do not show signs of life. Babies born at 23 weeks have around a 10% chance of survival.

184
Q

What test can indicate whether a pregnant woman is in preterm labour?

A

Fetal fibronectin is the “glue” between the chorion and the uterus, and is found in the vagina during labour. A result of less than 50 ng/ml is considered negative, and indicates that preterm labour is unlikely

If the fetal fibronectin test result is positive (concentration more than 50 ng/ml), preterm labour should be diagnosed and treatment offered.

185
Q

Define what preterm premmature rupture of membranes is, and how to manage it

A

Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes is where the amniotic sac ruptures, releasing amniotic fluid, before the onset of labour and in a preterm pregnancy (under 37 weeks gestation)

Prophylactic antibiotics should be given to prevent the development of chorioamnionitis==> Erythromycin

Induction of labour may be offered from 34 weeks to initiate the onset of labour.

186
Q

define what preterm labour with intact membranes is. How can it be diagnosed?

A

Preterm labour with intact membranes involves regular painful contraction and cervical dilatation, without rupture of the amniotic sac

Clinical assessment includes a speculum examination to assess for cervical dilatation.

Less than 30 weeks gestation, clinical assessment alone is enough to offer management of preterm labour.
More than 30 weeks gestation, a transvaginal ultrasound can be used to assess the cervical length

187
Q

Outline some management for preterm labour

A

Fetal monitoring (CTG or intermittent auscultation)
Tocolysis with nifedipine: nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that suppresses labour
Maternal corticosteroids: can be offered before 35 weeks gestation to reduce neonatal morbidity and mortality
IV magnesium sulphate: can be given before 34 weeks gestation and helps protect the baby’s brain
Delayed cord clamping or cord milking: can increase the circulating blood volume and haemoglobin in the baby at birth

188
Q

How does the Tocolysis drugs work?

A

Tocolysis involves using medications to stop uterine contractions. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is the medication of choice for tocolysis. - Inhibits myometrium contractions

Atosiban is an oxytocin receptor antagonist that can be used as an alternative when nifedipine is contraindicated.

It is only used as a short term measure (i.e. less than 48 hours).

189
Q

What organs are most likely to be affected in babies that are born premature and why?

A

The lungs and brain are most likely to be affected as these develop in the 3rd trimester.

190
Q

Give some risk factors for having a premature baby.

A

Intra-amniotic infection 50
Multiple gestation 40
Placental abruption 35
Third trimester vaginal bleeding 10
Second trimester vaginal bleeding 2
Prior preterm delivery 2–5

numbers are relative risk

191
Q

Define what premmature rupture of the membranes is. (PROM)

A

Premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) refers to rupture of
the fetal membranes before the onset of labor.

192
Q

What dies Pre term PROM and Prolonged PROM refer to

A

Preterm PROM (PPROM) refers to PROM at <37 weeks.

Prolonged PROM refers to PROM >24 hours and is associated with
an increased risk of intra-amniotic infection

193
Q

What things are seen in the clinical picture of Premmature rupture of the membranes?

A

A history of Gush of fluid causing a woman to be constantly wet

Confirming a diminished amniotic fluid volume
Do abdo and sterile speculum examination

PROM diagnosis is clincial, has three elements

1 A pool of vaginal fluid
2 Fluid turns nitrazine paper blue (pH of amniotic fluid
is 7.0–7.7 compared with vaginal pH of 4.5)
3 Microscopic ‘ferning’ of vaginal fluid (refers to crystallization of amniotic fluid on drying)

Note: bimanual examinations
should be avoided (because
they promote ascending intraamniotic infection)

194
Q

What other investigations woudl you do in a patient who has undergone PROM?

A
  • Urine analysis and culture for UTI/asymptomatic bacteriuroia
  • Cervical test or culture for C. trachomatis/N. gonorrhoea
  • Vaginal tests for bacterial vaginosis (BV) and trichomoniasis
  • Introital/rectal culture for group B streptococcus (GBS)

Basically just loads of tests for microbes!

195
Q

How do you treat premmature/prelabour ruputre of membranes at >37 weeks, and 34-36 weeks

A

For both

Both expectant management (watchful waiting) and an induction of labor (artificially stimulating labor) are considered in this case. 90% of women start labor on their own within 24 hours, and therefore it is reasonable to wait for 12–24 hours as long as there is no risk of infection

Antibiotics if needed to prevent group B streptococcus (GBS) transmission.

196
Q

What is hte management for PROM at preterm 24–33 weeks?

A

Watchful waiting (expectant management) -
Tocolytics to prevent the beginning of labor
Magnesium sulfate infusion for 24–48 hours to allow maximum efficacy of corticosteroids for fetal lungs and also confer benefit to fetal brain and gut before delivery
One time dose of corticosteroids (two separate administrations, 12–24 hours apart) before 34 weeks
Antibiotics if needed to prevent GBS transmission

197
Q

What is an umbiliical cord prolapse?

A

Cord prolapse is when the umbilical cord descends below the presenting part of the fetus and through the cervix into the vagina,

Happens after rupture of the fetal membranes

Causes foetal hypoxia in 2 ways = can get compressed, or when exposed to the outside temperature, can lead to vasospasm and subsequent hypoxia

198
Q

What are some risk factors for cord prolapse?

A

Malpresentation (breech, transverse lie), polyhydramnios, small fetus, prematurity.

50% of patients with an umbilical cord prolapse will have undergone artificial rupture of membranes.

199
Q

What things suggested a diagnosis of cord prolapse

A

Umbilical cord prolapse should be suspected where there are signs of fetal distress on the CTG. A prolapsed umbilical cord can be diagnosed by vaginal examination. Speculum examination can be used to confirm the diagnosis.

50% of patients with an umbilical cord prolapse will have undergone artificial rupture of membranes.

200
Q

What uis the management of a cord prolapse?

A

Emergency caesarean section is indicated where cord prolapse occurs. A normal vaginal delivery has a high risk of cord compression and significant hypoxia to the baby. Pushing the cord back in is not recommended. The cord should be kept warm and wet and have minimal handling whilst waiting for delivery (handling causes vasospasm).

201
Q

What manouvers can be done to prevent damage caused by a cord prolapse?

A

When the baby is compressing a prolapsed cord, the presenting part can be pushed upwards to prevent it compressing the cord. The woman can lie in the left lateral position (with a pillow under the hip) or the knee-chest position (on all fours), using gravity to draw the fetus away from the pelvis and reduce compression on the cord.

Tocolytic medication (e.g. terbutaline) can be used to minimise contractions whilst waiting for delivery by caesarean section.

Can insert fluid into baldder via catheriter if at home

202
Q

What are the two main things used in an instrumental delivery?

What is recommended to be given after an instrumental delivery

A

ventouse suction cup or forceps. Tools are used to help deliver the baby’s head. About 10% of births in the UK are assisted by an instrumental delivery

A single dose of co-amoxiclav is recommended after instrumental delivery to reduce the risk of maternal infection.

203
Q

What are some indications for an instrumental delivery? What can things can increase the likelihood of it?

A

The decision to perform an instrumental delivery is based on the clinical judgement of the midwife or obstetrician. Some key indications are:

Failure to progress
Fetal distress
Maternal exhaustion
Control of the head in various fetal positions

there is an increased risk of requiring an instrumental delivery when an epidural is in place for analgesia.

204
Q

What things need to be satisfied before you can use forceps?

A

only use forceps at full dilatation (10cm) (or you’ll be pulling on the cervix ==> uterine rupture)

Only when station is 0 or +1

Has to be occipital anterior position (determine the position by feeling for the suture lines)

You must empty the bladder

Membranes need to be ruptured

Need to give lots of pain relief

And make sure there are no signs of Cephalopelvic disproportion

205
Q

What things is there an increased risk of with instrumental delivery? (to mother)

A

Postpartum haemorrhage
Episiotomy
Perineal tears
Injury to the anal sphincter
Incontinence of the bladder or bowel
Nerve injury (obturator or femoral nerve)

206
Q

Nerve damage seen in instrumental labour - damage to
a) Femoral nerve
b) obturator nerve

will cause what symptoms?

A

Injury to the femoral nerve causes weakness of knee extension, loss of the patella reflex and numbness of the anterior thigh and medial lower leg.

The obturator nerve may be compressed by forceps during instrumental delivery or by the fetal head during normal delivery. Injury causes weakness of hip adduction and rotation, and numbness of the medial thigh.

207
Q

What is an episiotomy? Why do doctors do it?

A

a cut in the area between the vagina and anus (perineum) during childbirth, to make the opening of the vagina a bit wider, allowing the baby to come through it more easily.

Sometimes a woman’s perineum may tear as their baby comes out. In some births, an episiotomy can help to prevent a severe tear or speed up delivery if the baby needs to be born quickly.

Episiotomy is equivalent to a second-degree perineal laceration

208
Q

What is the main complication for the baby following
a) Ventouse
b) Forceps

*only use forceps whem mum is fully dilated at 10cm, or youll attach and pull the cervix

A

Cephalohaematoma with ventouse
Facial nerve palsy with forceps

The main complication for the baby is cephalohaematoma. This involves a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum.

The main complication for the baby is facial nerve palsy, with facial paralysis on one side.

Forceps delivery can leave bruises on the baby’s face. Rarely the baby can develop fat necrosis, leading to hardened lumps of fat on their cheeks

*only use forceps whem mum is fully dilated at 10cm, or youll attach and pull the cervix

209
Q

Describe a first degree vaginal tear.

A

First degree - tear within vaginal mucosa only.

210
Q

Describe a second degree vaginal tear.

A

Second degree - tear into sub-cutaneous tissue.

211
Q

Describe a third degree vaginal tear.

A

Third degree - laceration extends into external anal sphincter.

212
Q

Describe a fourth degree vaginal tear.

A

Fourth degree - laceration extends through external anal sphincter into rectal mucosa.

213
Q

Give 3 risk factor’s for vaginal tears.

What is the management for perianal tears?

A
  1. Primigravida.
  2. Macrosomia and shoulder dystocia.
  3. Forceps delivery.

1st degree - repair on own ]

2nd degree - suture on ward by midwife or suitably experieinced clinician

3rd and 4th degree - require repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician

214
Q

What are the main causes of obstructed labor?

A

a large or abnormally positioned baby - eg shoulder dystocia, or macrosomia

small pelvis - if a girl is a teenager/young, malnutrition or lack of vit D exposure

problems with the birth canal - FGM, tumors

215
Q

What is shoulder dystocia?

A

When anterior shoulder of the baby becomes stuck behind the pubic symphysis of the pelvis, after the head has been delivered

It requires specific maneuvers to facilitate delivery.

With babies head out, uterus will still be contracting, but baby will want to breathe - but it can’t, because chest is compressed

216
Q

Give 3 risk factors for shoulder dystocia.

A
  1. Macrosomia. (secondary to gestational diabetes, is most common cause)
  2. Maternal diabetes.
  3. Post-maturity.
  4. Obesity.
  5. Prolonged labour.
217
Q

How should shoulder dystocia be managed?

A

HELPERR:

H - call for Help.
E - evaluate for Episiotomy. **(often large one)**
L - Legs in McRoberts.
P - suprapubic Pressure.
E - Enter pelvis. -  Rubin’s maneuver or Wood’s Maneuver
R - Rotational manoeuvres.
R - Remove and deliver posterior arm.
218
Q

Outline what happens in mcRoberts Manoeuvre, and what happens in Woodscrew Manoeuvre.

A

McRoberts manoeuvre involves hyperflexion of the mother at the hip (bringing her knees to her abdomen). This provides a posterior pelvic tilt, lifting the pubic symphysis up and out of the way.

Wood’s screw manoeuvre is performed during a Rubins manoeuvre. (pressure on posterior aspect of babys anterior shoulder), while The other hand puts pressure on the anterior aspect of the posterior shoulder.

The top shoulder is pushed forwards, and the bottom shoulder is pushed backwards, rotating the baby and helping delivery

219
Q

Shoulder dystocia: give 3 potential complications that the mother is at risk of.

A
  1. Vaginal tear.
  2. PPH.
  3. PTSD.
  4. Bladder/uterine rupture.
220
Q

Shoulder dystocia: give 3 potential complications that the baby is at risk of.

A
  1. Cerebral palsy.
  2. Hypoxia.
  3. Brachial plexus injury.
  4. Fractured humerus/clavicle.

Fits

221
Q

Normal physiology - what are the 3 layers of the uterine wall? Where does the placenta normally attatch?

A

Endometrium, the inner layer that contains connective tissue (stroma), epithelial cells and blood vessels
Myometrium, the middle layer that contains smooth muscle
Perimetrium, the outer layer, which is a serous membrane similar to the peritoneum (also known as serosa)

Usually the placenta attaches to the endometrium. This allows the placenta to separate cleanly during the third stage of labour, after delivery of the baby.

222
Q

What happens in placenta accreta?

A

With placenta accreta, the placenta embeds past the endometrium, into the myometrium and beyond

There are three further definitions, depending on the depth of the insertion

223
Q

What are some risk factors for placenta accreta?

A

Risk Factors
Previous placenta accreta
Previous endometrial curettage procedures (e.g. for miscarriage or abortion)
Previous caesarean section
Multigravida
Increased maternal age
Low-lying placenta or placenta praevia

224
Q

Outline the 3 definitions along the specturem of placenta accreata

A

Superficial placenta accreta is where the placenta implants in the surface of the myometrium, but not beyond
Placenta increta is where the placenta attaches deeply into the myometrium
Placenta percreta is where the placenta invades past the myometrium and perimetrium, potentially reaching other organs such as the bladder

225
Q

What is the management of placenta accreata?

A

Ideally, placenta accreta is diagnosed antenatally by ultrasound

Patients may require additional management at birth due to the risk of bleeding and difficulty separating the placenta. This may include:

Complex uterine surgery
Blood transfusions
Intensive care for the mother
Neonatal intensive care

The options during caesarean are:

Hysterectomy with the placenta remaining in the uterus (recommended)

Expectant management, leaving the placenta in place to be reabsorbed over time

If placenta accreta is discovered after delivery of the baby, a hysterectomy is recommended.

226
Q

Give some reasons why doctors may want to bring about an induced labour

A

Prolonged Gestation
Women with uncomplicated pregnancies should be offered IOL between 40+0 to 40+14 weeks’ gestation

Premature Rupture of Membranes

Maternal Health Problems eg hypertension, pre-eclampsia, diabetes and obstetric cholestasis.

Fetal Growth Restriction the second most common indication for induction of labour

Intrauterine Fetal Death

227
Q

Give some contraindications for Induction of labour (they are generally rhe same as for normal vaginal delivery)

A

Cephalopelvic disproportion
Major placenta praevia

Vasa praevia

Cord prolapse

Breech presentation
Triplet or higher order pregnancy

Transverse lie

Previous classical Caesarean section - Increased risk of emergency C section and uterine rupture

228
Q

What are the three main methods of induction of labour

A

Vaginal Prostaglandins- act to prepare the cervix for labour by ripening it, and also have a role in the contraction of the smooth muscle of the uterus - mainstay

Amniotomy where the membranes are ruptured artificially using an instrument called an amnihook. Give artificial oxytocin (Syntocinon) alongside will be to increase the strength and frequency of contractions.

Membrane sweep - It is classified as an adjunct of IOL. Performing it increases the likelihood of spontaneous delivery. Done by inserting a gloved finger through cervix and rotating it against the fetal membranes, aiming to separate the chorionic membrane from the decidua.

With amniotomy and membrane sweep, this process releases prostaglandins in an attempt to expedite labour

229
Q

What is a Bishop score? What does it entail, and when is it done

A

It’s an assessment of ‘cervical ripeness‘ based on measurements taken during vaginal examination.

Score of ≥ 7 – suggests the cervix is ripe or ‘favourable’ – this means that there is a high chance of a response to interventions made to induce labour (i.e. induction of labour is possible).
Amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion is the preferred method of induction of labour if the Bishop score is > 6

Score of <4 – suggests that labour is unlikely to progress naturally and prostaglandin tablet/gel/pessary will be required

It is checked prior to induction, and during induction to assess progress (6 hours post-table/gel, 24 hours post-pessary):

230
Q

What are some things seen on the Bishop score? and what happens if score is still low 6 hours post-table/gel, or 24 hours post-pessary?

A

Dilation of cervix
Length of Cervix
Station (Position of top of head in relation to ischial spines)
Consistency of cervix
Position of cervix

Failure of a cervix to ripen despite use of prostaglandins may result in the need for a caesarean section.

231
Q

What are some absolute indications for a C section?

A

Maternal
* Failed induction of labor
* Failure to progress (labor dystocia)
* Cephalopelvic disproportion

Uteroplacental
* Previous uterine surgery (classical cesarean)
* Prior uterine rupture
* Outlet obstruction (fibroids)
* Placenta previa, large placental abruption

Fetal
* “Fetal distress”/non-reassuring fetal testing
* Cord prolapse
* Fetal malpresentation (transverse lie)

232
Q

What is placenta praevia

A

Placenta praevia is where the placenta is attached in the lower portion of the uterus, lower than the presenting part of the fetus.

Low-lying placenta is used when the placenta is within 20mm of the internal cervical os
Placenta praevia is used only when the placenta is over the internal cervical os

Praevia directly translates from Latin as “going before”

233
Q

What are some risk factors for placenta praevia?

A

Previous caesarean sections
Previous placenta praevia
Older maternal age
Maternal smoking
Structural uterine abnormalities (e.g. fibroids)
Assisted reproduction (e.g. IVF)

indeed, In a large Norwegian study in 2006 it was found that there was a six-fold higher risk of placenta praevia in singleton pregnancies conceived by assisted fertilisation compared with naturally conceived pregnancies.

234
Q

How is placenta praevia diagnosed, and what is its presentation?

A

The 20-week anomaly scan is used to assess the position of the placenta and diagnose placenta praevia.

Many women with placenta praevia are asymptomatic. It may present with painless vaginal bleeding in pregnancy - usually bright red (antepartum haemorrhage). Bleeding usually occurs later in pregnancy (around or after 36 weeks).

placental abruption presents with pain, and dark red blood

can do a speculum, don’t do a digital exam

235
Q

What is the management for placenta praevia?

A

repeat transvaginal ultrasound scan at 32 and 36 weeks

Corticosteroids are given between 34 and 35 + 6 weeks gestation to mature the fetal lungs

Planned cesarean section is required with placenta praevia and low-lying placenta (<20mm from the internal os).

As main complicaton is bleeding, may need

Emergency caesarean section
Blood transfusions
Intrauterine balloon tamponade
Uterine artery occlusion
Emergency hysterectomy

If mother is Rh negative and foeus is Rh postive, then give Anti D - to prevent mother sensitisation

236
Q

What is placental abruption ?

A

when the placenta separates from the wall of the uterus during pregnancy. The site of attachment can bleed extensively after the placenta separates.

237
Q

Give 5 risk factors for placental abruption.

A
  1. Increasing BMI.
  2. Smoking.
  3. Previous abruption.
  4. Hypertension.
  5. Uterine overdistension e.g. multiple pregnancy.
  6. Trauma e.g. RTA.
  7. Domestic abuse.
  8. Cocaine Use
238
Q

What is the typical presentation of a placental abruption? What may be felt on examination

A

Sudden onset severe abdominal pain that is continuous
in third trimester

O/E - extreme pain and cold to touch
Vaginal bleeding (antepartum haemorrhage)
Shock (hypotension and tachycardia)
Abnormalities on the CTG indicating fetal distress
Characteristic “woody” abdomen on palpation, suggesting a large haemorrhage

239
Q

What are the types of placental abruption?

A

Concealed abruption is where the cervical os remains closed, and any bleeding that occurs remains within the uterine cavity. The severity of bleeding can be significantly underestimated with concealed haemorrhage.

Concealed abruption is opposed to revealed abruption, where the Fblood loss is observed via the vagina.

240
Q

how can you go diagnosing placental abruption

A

There are no reliable tests for diagnosing placental abruption. It is a clinical diagnosis!! - Ultrasound can be useful in excluding placenta praevia, nut not that helpful (only 2% seen on USS)
Avoid doing Digital vaginal exam, as can worise bleeidng

look for risk factors and hvae high index of suspicion

241
Q

What is the management of placenta abruption?

A

2 x grey cannula
Bloods include FBC, UE, LFT and coagulation studies
Crossmatch 4-6 units of blood
Fluid and blood resuscitation as required
CTG monitoring of the fetus
Close monitoring of the mother

Fetus alive and < 36 weeks
fetal distress: immediate caesarean
no fetal distress: observe closely, steroids, no tocolysis, threshold to deliver depends on gestation

Fetus alive and > 36 weeks
fetal distress: immediate caesarean
no fetal distress: deliver vaginally

There is an increased risk of stillbirth so it’s recommended to deliver at 37-38 weeks.

Active management of the third stage is recommended.

where the foetus is viable, under 36 weeks of gestation, and not exhibiting distress, it is recommended that corticosteroids be administered to enhance foetal lung maturation.

As per the RCOG guidelines: In women presenting with APH before 37+0 weeks of gestation, where there is no maternal or foetal compromise and bleeding has settled, there is no evidence to support elective premature delivery of the foetus.

242
Q

What is Vasa Praevia? What can it lead to

A

Vasa praevia is a condition in which the fetal vessels are exposed, outside the protection of the umbilical cord or the placenta. The fetal vessels travel through the chorioamniotic membranes, and pass across the internal cervical os (the inner opening of the cervix). These exposed vessels are prone to bleeding, particularly when the membranes are ruptured during labour and at birth. This can lead to dramatic fetal blood loss and death.

No major maternal risk , but major fetal risk

243
Q

What are some causes/risk factors of vasa praevia?

A

Velamentous umbilical cord is where the umbilical cord inserts into the chorioamniotic membranes, and the fetal vessels travel unprotected through the membranes before joining the placenta.

An accessory lobe of the placenta (also known as a succenturiate lobe) is connected by fetal vessels that travel through the chorioamniotic membranes between the placental lobes.

Risk factors

Low lying placenta
IVF pregnancy
Multiple pregnancy

244
Q

How may vasa praevia presnent?

A

Ideally picked up on ultrasound during pregancy

  • when membranes rupture - Present as an antepartum haemorrhage, Painless!!

It may be detected by vaginal examination during labour, when pulsating fetal vessels are seen in the membranes through the dilated cervix.

Finally, it may be detected during labour when fetal distress and dark-red bleeding occur following rupture of the membranes

245
Q

What is the management for vasa praevia

A

For asymptomatic women with vasa praevia, the RCOG guidelines (2018) recommend:

Corticosteroids, given from 32 weeks gestation to mature the fetal lungs
Elective caesarean section, planned for 34 – 36 weeks gestation

Where antepartum haemorrhage occurs, emergency caesarean section is required to deliver the fetus before death occurs.

246
Q

Define antepartum haemorrhage.

A

Bleeding from anywhere in the genital tract after 24w gestation.

247
Q

Give 3 causes of serious antepartum haemorrhage.

A

placenta praevia, placental abruption and vasa praevia. These are serious causes with high morbidity and mortality.

Can also be unexplained

248
Q

Give 3 causes of minor antepartum haemhorrage

A

cervical ectropion, infection and vaginal abrasions from intercourse or procedures.

249
Q

Outline the 4 classifiaction grades of antepartum haemhorrage

A

Spotting = Stains, streaking, or spotting of blood

Minor Haemorrhage = Less than 50mL

Major Haemorrhage = 50-1000mL without signs of circulatory shock

Massive Haemorrhage = Greater than 1000mL with or without signs of circulatory shock

250
Q

What are some complications of APH

A

Premature labour/delivery
Bloodtransfusion (formation of antibodies)
Acute tubular necrosis (+/- renal failure)
DIC
PPH!
ITUadmission
ARDS (secondary to transfusion)
Fetalmorbidity (hypoxia) andmortality

Foetal growth restriction

251
Q

Outline what happens in hemolytic disease of the newborn (also known as Erythroblastosis fetalis)

A

Happens when rhesus anitgens on surface of mother and foetus RBC aren’t compatabile

If mother is rhesus D negative, and fetus is Rhesus D postive, foetal blood can cross placenta and enter mothers bloodstream
==> Mother will recognise the rhesus D antigen as foreign and produce antibodies to it ==> (mother becomes sensitised to rhesus D antigens)

Usually not a problem in inital pregnacy
If pregnant again, mothers anti-D antibodies can cross the placenta.

If that fetus is rhesus positive, these antibodies attach themselves to the red blood cells of the fetus and causes the immune system of the fetus to attack its own red blood cells

252
Q

What is an important special test for haemolytic disease of the nweborn?

A

Keilhauer test - blood test used to measure the amount of fetal hemoglobin transferred from a fetus to a mother’s bloodstream. to see if mum has been sensitised

253
Q

What is the treatment for haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Phototherapy – Expose to ultraviolet light, converts unconjugated bilirubin to a conjugated form that is easier for the infant to clear.

Immunoglobulin therapy

254
Q

What is the only antibody that can cross the placenta?

A

IgG.

255
Q

How can foetal RBC lysis be prevented in rhesus negative mothers?

A

Anti-D prophylaxis can be given. This destroys Rh+ IgG and so no RBC are attacked.

256
Q

Rhesus disease: name 3 events during pregnancy when sensitisation may occur.

A
  1. Miscarriage.
  2. Abortion.
  3. Amniocentesis.
  4. Placental abruption.
  5. During delivery.
257
Q

A rhesus negative mum is having an amniocentesis. What must you give her prior to this procedure?

A

Anti-D!

There is a risk of sensitisation.

258
Q

What proportion of couples will conceive naturally, after a year of trying?

A

85% will conceive within a year of regular unprotected sex.

1 in 7 couples will struggle to conceive naturally.

259
Q

After how long should you investigate and refer a couple for infertility?

A

Investigation and referral for infertility should be initiated after the couple has been trying to conceive without success for 12 months. This can be reduced to 6 months if the woman is older than 35, as her ovarian stores are likely to be already reduced and time is more precious.

260
Q

Give scenarios when referrals for infertility should be made earlier than a year.

A

Female
Age > 35
Menstrual disorder
Previous abdominal / pelvic surgery
Previous PID / STD
Abnormal pelvic examination

Male
Previous genital pathology
Previous urogenital surgery
Previous STD
Systemic Illness
Abnormal genital examination

261
Q

What are the causes of infertility, as a percentage?

A

Sperm problems (30%)
Ovulation problems (25%)
Tubal problems (20%)
Uterine problems (10%)
Unexplained (25%)

40% of infertile couples have a mix of male and female causes.

262
Q

What is some general advice you’d give to a couple struggling with fertility?

A

There is some general lifestyle advice for couples trying to get pregnant:

The woman should be taking 400mcg folic acid daily
Aim for a healthy BMI
Avoid smoking and drinking excessive alcohol
Reduce stress as this may negatively affect libido and the relationship
Ensure smears are up to date
Aim for intercourse every 2 – 3 days
Avoid timing intercourse

263
Q

What are some initial investigations for infertility offered in primary care?

A

Body mass index (BMI) (low could indicate anovulation, high could indicate PCOS)
Chlamydia screening
Semen analysis
Female hormonal testing (see below)
Rubella immunity in the mother

264
Q

Name 4 reproductive disorders that are associated with obesity.

A
  1. PCOS.
  2. Miscarriage.
  3. Infertility.
  4. Obstetric complications.
    Lower ART success
265
Q

What things do you investigate in a couple struggling to conceive?

A

Ovulation / ovarian function / ovarian reserve
Semen Quality
Tubal Patency (+ Uterus)

266
Q

What female hormones are tested in primary care?

A

Serum LH and FSH on day 2 to 5 of the cycle
Serum progesterone on day 21 of the cycle (or 7 days before the end of the cycle if not a 28-day cycle).
Anti-Mullerian hormone
Thyroid function tests when symptoms are suggestive
Prolactin (hyperprolactinaemia is a cause of anovulation) when symptoms of galactorrhea or amenorrhoea

267
Q

Hormone testing in infertility treatment - what does levels of FSH and LH indicate?

A

High FSH suggests poor ovarian reserve (the number of follicles that the woman has left in her ovaries). The pituitary gland is producing extra FSH in an attempt to stimulate follicular development.

High LH may suggest polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).

268
Q

Hormone testing in infertility treatment - what does levels of progesterone and anti mullerian hormone indicate?

A

A rise in progesterone on day 21 indicates that ovulation has occurred, and the corpus luteum has formed and started secreting progesterone.
Ideally, “Day 21” peak luteal progesterone levels should be 10ng/ml or higher

Anti-Mullerian hormone can be measured at any time during the cycle and is the most accurate marker of ovarian reserve. It is released by the granulosa cells in the follicles and falls as the eggs are depleted. A high level indicates a good ovarian reserve.

269
Q

A sperm count less than what will indicate the need for clinical examination and further tests?

A

<5m/ml.

Further testing may include endocrine tests and karyotyping e.g. klinefelters.

270
Q

Infertility investigations: how can tubal patency be investigated?

A
  1. HSG (hysterosalpingogram) imaging.
  2. HyCoSy (Hysterosalpingo-contrast-sonography).
  3. Laparoscopy.
271
Q

infertility treatment - outline the management of anovulation

A

The options when anovulation is the cause of infertility include:

Weight loss for overweight patients with PCOS can restore ovulation
Clomifene may be used to stimulate ovulation
Letrozole may be used instead of clomifene to stimulate ovulation (aromatase inhibitor with anti-oestrogen effects)
Gonadotropins may be used to stimulate ovulation in women resistant to clomifene
Ovarian drilling may be used in polycystic ovarian syndrome
Metformin may be used when there is insulin insensitivity and obesity (usually associated with PCOS)

272
Q

treatment of anovulaton - how does Clomifene and Ovarian drilling work?

A

Clomifene is an anti-oestrogen (a selective oestrogen receptor modulator). It is given on days 2 to 6 of the menstrual cycle. It stops the negative feedback of oestrogen on the hypothalamus, resulting in a greater release of GnRH and subsequently FSH and LH.

Ovarian drilling involves laparoscopic surgery. The surgeon punctures multiple holes in the ovaries using diathermy or laser therapy. This can improve the woman’s hormonal profile and result in regular ovulation and fertility.

273
Q

Infertility management - outline some ways to manage infertilty due to issues with the sperm.

A

Mild - Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) -
Moderate abnormality - IVF
Severe – Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)

For Azoospermia :
Surgical Sperm Recovery
Donor Insemination

274
Q

What are some treatment options for tubal disease in infertility?

A

The options for women with alterations to the fallopian tubes that prevent the ovum from reaching the sperm and uterus include:

Tubal cannulation during a hysterosalpingogram
Laparoscopy to remove adhesions or endometriosis
In vitro fertilisation (IVF)

275
Q

Outline some options for assisted conception

A

Stimulated Intrauterine Insemination (SIUI)

In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF)
- Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
- Surgical Sperm Recovery (PESA/TESE)
- Embryo Freezing

Donor insemination
- Donor Egg
- Donor Embryo
- Host Surrogacy

276
Q

Briefly describe the process of IVF.

A

Ovarian stimulation -> egg collection -> insemination -> fertilisation check -> embryo culture -> embryo transfer -> luteal support.

277
Q

Why is only 1 egg transferred in IVF?

A

To avoid multiple pregnancy.

278
Q

Give 4 risks associated with IVF.

A
  1. Multiple pregnancy.
  2. Miscarriage.
  3. Ectopic pregnancy.
  4. Foetal abnormality.
279
Q

Give 4 factors that can affect the likelihood of IVF being successful.

A
  1. Increasing age -> reduced egg quality.
  2. Successive cycles/longer duration infertility.
  3. Obesity.
  4. Environmental factors e.g. smoking, alcohol, caffeine.
280
Q

Give 3 examples of uterine abnormalities that can affect fertility.

A
  1. Endometrial polyps.
  2. Fibroids e.g. sub-mucous will significantly affect pregnancy rates.
  3. Adhesions.
281
Q

Give 2 methods used for monitoring the foetal heart rate.

A
  1. Intermittent auscultation using a pinard stethoscope or a hand held doppler.
  2. Continuous monitoring: cardiotocography (CTG).

Doppler Scanner is first line to establsih a babys heart beat as is v quick and easy to use

282
Q

What is a CTG? How should it be operate?

A

Operation
Two transducers are placed on the abdomen to get the CTG readout:

One above the fetal heart to monitor the fetal heartbeat
One near the fundus of the uterus to monitor the uterine contractions

The transducer above the fetal heart monitors the heartbeat using Doppler ultrasound. The transducer above the fundus uses ultrasound to assess the tension in the uterine wall, indicating uterine contraction.

283
Q

CTG - what are some key features to look at on a CTG

A

Contractions – the number of uterine contractions per 10 minutes
Baseline rate – the baseline fetal heart rate
Variability – how the fetal heart rate varies up and down around the baseline
Accelerations – periods where the fetal heart rate spikes
Decelerations – periods where the fetal heart rate drops

284
Q

What are some indiciations for CTG monitoring

A

Sepsis
Maternal tachycardia (> 120)
Significant meconium
Pre-eclampsia (particularly blood pressure > 160 / 110)
Fresh antepartum haemorrhage
Delay in labour
Use of oxytocin
Disproportionate maternal pain

285
Q

What are the 3 ways baseline rate and variabilty can be described

A

reassuring, non-reassuring and abnormal

>180 bpm.

286
Q

CTG: outline reassuring, non-reassuring and abnormal values for baseline rate.

A

Reassuring
110 – 160

Non-reassuring
100 – 109 or 161 – 180

Abnormal
Below 100 or above 180

287
Q

CTG: outline reassuring, non-reassuring and abnormal values for variability

A

Reassuring 5 – 25

Non-reassuring Less than 5 for 30 – 50 minutes or More than 25 for 15 – 25 minutes

Abnormal Less than 5 for over 50 minutes or More than 25 for over 25 minutes

288
Q

CTG: what is an acceleration?

A

An increase in the baseline HR by 10-15 bpm.

289
Q

CTG: are accelerations reassuring or non-reassuring?

A

The presence of accelerations is reassuring.

290
Q

CTG: are decelerations reassuring or non-reassuring? Why do decelerations happen?

A

Decelerations are non-reassuring.

Foetal hypoxia causes them

due to a lack of oxygen to the unborn baby, causes the foetal heart rate to decelerate because the baby’s body recognizes the low oxygen levels and tries to compensate by slowing down the heart rate in an attempt to conserve oxygen and maintain vital functions.

291
Q

CTG: what are early decelerations?

A

Early decelerations are seen just before a uterine contraction. They may be due to foetal head compression.

292
Q

CTG: what are late decelerations?

A

Late decelerations are seen just after uterine contraction. They may be due to placental insufficiency and are often more sinister.

293
Q

CTG: what are variable decelerations?

A

When there is a mixture of early and late decelerations.

294
Q

CTG: how would you determine if a CTG was overall normal, suspicious, pathological or need for urgent intervention?

A
  • Normal: everything is normal and accelerations are present.
    Suspicious: a single non-reassuring feature
    Pathological: two non-reassuring features or a single abnormal feature
    Need for urgent intervention: acute bradycardia or prolonged deceleration of more than 3 minutes
295
Q

What are the parameters used in determining whether a CTG is normal or abnormal? What mneomic is used?

A

DR – Define Risk (define the risk based on the individual woman and pregnancy before assessing the CTG)
C – Contractions
BRa – Baseline Rate
V – Variability
A – Accelerations
D – Decelerations
O – Overall impression (given an overall impression of the CTG and clinical picture)

296
Q

What is obstetric cholestasis? Why is it thought to happen?

A

. Obstetric cholestasis is characterised by the reduced outflow of bile acids from the liver.

thought to be caused by increased oestrogen and progesterone levels

The condition resolves after delivery of the baby.

it’s relatively common (1% pregnant women)

Happens in the 3rd trimester

297
Q

What is the presentation of Obstetric Cholestasis?

A

Obstetric cholestasis typically present later in pregnancy, particularly in the third trimester.

Itching (pruritis) is the main symptom, particularly affecting the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

Fatigue
Dark urine
Pale, greasy stools
Jaundice

^Post Hepatic symptoms, as blockage of outflow

Importantly, there is no rash associated with obstetric cholestasis. If a rash is present, an alternative diagnosis should be considered, such as polymorphic eruption of pregnancy or pemphigoid gestationis.

298
Q

What are some differentials of obstetric cholestasis? Aka what else can cause puritis and deranged LFTs?

A

Gallstones
Acute fatty liver
Autoimmune hepatitis
Viral hepatitis

Importantly, there is no rash associated with obstetric cholestasis. If a rash is present, an alternative diagnosis should be considered, such as polymorphic eruption of pregnancy or pemphigoid gestationis.

299
Q

What are the investigations of Obstetric Cholstasis?

What liver enzyme can be normally raised in pregnancy, and why?

A

Obstetric cholestasis will cause:

Abnormal liver function tests (LFTs), mainly ALT, AST and GGT
Raised bile acids

It is normal for alkaline phosphatase (ALP) to increase in pregnancy. This is because the placenta produces ALP. A rise in ALP without other abnormal LFT results is usually due to placental production of ALP, rather than liver pathology.

300
Q

What is the management of obstetric cholestasis?

A

Emollients (i.e. calamine lotion) to soothe the skin
Antihistamines (e.g. chlorphenamine) can help sleeping (but does not improve itching)

Ursodeoxycholic acid, (Ursodiol) to lower toxic bile acids

Vitamin K can be given if doctors are worried about low Vit and PT time, as is a Fat solubale vitiman so needs bile in the gut to be absorbed

Planned delivery may be considered, particularly when the LFTs and bile acids are severely deranged.

301
Q

When can should obstetricains think about a planned IOL in patients with obstetric cholestasis?

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy increases the risk of stillbirth; therefore induction of labour is generally offered at 37-38 weeks gestation

According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG), a discussion should take place with women regarding induction of labour after 37+0 weeks of gestation. However, in most cases, IOL is best avoided unless there are significantly deranged LFT’s/bile acid levels. Women should be informed that the case for intervention (after 37+0 weeks of gestation) may be stronger in those with more severe biochemical abnormality (transaminases and bile acids).

Induction of labour is not advised nor recommended at earlier gestation periods (prior to 37 weeks) hence, 34, 35, and 36 weeks is the incorrect answer.

302
Q

What do you do for reduced movements in pregnancy?
What are some priciples around feotal movements

A

after 28 weeks - do CTG, and can think about IOL

Before then - Just have a listen for foetal heart sounds

Babies sleep for no more than 90 mins
should have established patterns of mveoments by 28 weeks

Need to compare with whats normal for that individual mum and baby
reduced moements -= baby is tired

303
Q

outline the 4 different categories of C section

A

Category 1: An immediate threat to the life of the mother or baby. This includes conditions like suspected uterine rupture, major placental abruption, cord prolapse, fetal hypoxia, or persistent fetal bradycardia. Category 1 C-sections are considered emergencies and should be performed within 30 minutes.
Category 2: A maternal or fetal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening.
Category 3: An early birth is needed, but there is no immediate risk to the mother or baby.
Category 4: A birth that is scheduled to suit the mother or healthcare provide

304
Q

Define SFGA - what are some of the main causes?

A

having an estimated foetal weight (EFW) or birth weight below the 10th percentile for gestational age.

maternal
- smoking, poor nutrition, conditions like hypertension, diabetes, CKD, torch infections, very young mother

Placental insufficines
- Preeclampsia, placenta praevia

Foetal factors
- Trisomy 21, 18 and 13
- Turners syndrome
- Intraauterine infections, like TORCH

305
Q

What is the best measurement for gauging small for gestational age?

A

A) Abdominal circumference less than the 10th centile for gestation

Abdominal circumference (AC) is the most sensitive ultrasound parameter for detecting fetal growth restriction or SGA.

It reflects fetal size, particularly the liver and abdominal fat stores, which are most affected by reduced nutrient supply or placental insufficiency.

A fetal abdominal circumference below the 10th centile is a strong indicator of SGA, and it is commonly used to define and diagnose SGA.