wolff Flashcards

1
Q

refers to the use of methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, and sulfasalazine together to treat rheumatoid arthritis

A

Triple Therapy

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2
Q

mammalian enzyme that converts uric acid to allantoin, mutated/nonfunctional in humans

A

Uricase

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3
Q

along with chondroitin, widely used in hope of treating osteoarthritis but little evidence of benefit beyond placebo effect

A

Glucosamine

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4
Q

increases the risk for developing gout

A

Hyperuricemia

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5
Q

expensive non-purine/noncompetitive xanthine oxidase inhibitor useful for reducing urate levels in those with allopurinol intolerance

A

Febuxostat

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6
Q

competitive xanthine oxidase inhibitor that lowers serum urate levels, preferred/standard-of-care therapy for treatment of recurrent gout if low GFR or past urate stone or urate overproduction

A

Allopurinol

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7
Q

a JAK3 antagonist used as a biologic DMARD, novel in that it is orally active

A

Tofacitinib

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8
Q

abundant evidence shows people can have this type of predisposition for gout

A

Genetic

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9
Q

never do this with biologic DMARDs

A

Combine them

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10
Q

prototypical bisphosphonate drug class of first choice for treating osteoporosis in both women and men, its incorporation into bone inhibits the number and activity of osteoclasts

A

Alendronate

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11
Q

important non-pharmacological component of rheumatoid arthritis management

A

Exercise

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12
Q

biologic DMARD, generally a later choice, that is humanized antihuman IL-6 receptor antibody; among its effects is to decrease the acute-phase response of liver

A

Tocilizumab

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13
Q

supplementation of this is recommended for people prescribed methotrexate and/or sulfasalazine for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Folate

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14
Q

ensuring adequate intake of this is a means of decreasing risk for osteoporosis

A

Vitamin D

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15
Q

dexamethasone, betamethasone, and triamcinolone are among _________ prednisolones, which have much greater potency and/or half-life than natural hydrocortisone

A

Fluorinated

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16
Q

biologic DMARD, generally not initial choice, a fusion protein blocks T cell CD80/86 co-stimulatory signal needed for activation

A

Abatacept

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17
Q

drugs that lower serum urate levels by increasing the fractional excretion by the kidneys

A

Uricosuric

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18
Q

SERM with agonist effects on bone but not breast or uterus that is used to treat osteoporosis

A

Raloxifene

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19
Q

gouty form of this is due to precipitation of uric acid in tubules if acute and, if chronic, interstitial accumulation of monosodium urate

A

Nephropathy

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20
Q

NSAID ingredient of topical gel that is perhaps the most effective topical pain remedy for osteoarthritis

A

Diclofenac

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21
Q

intense and historically feared during acute gout attack

A

Pain

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22
Q

fusion protein made from Fc portion of IgG and two TNF receptors, a biologic DMARD administered 2x/wk by sc injection; also used for psoriasis

A

Etanercept

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23
Q

uricosuric agent acting similar to probenecid, both require GFR > 60 ml/min

A

Sulfinpyrazone

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24
Q

dietary supplements for adolescents, postmenopausal women, and elderly to treat mild hypocalcemia (e.g., to facilitate bone growth or limit bone loss)

A

Calcium salts

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25
word applying to pain in joints that suggests a systemic disease such as rheumatoid arthritis
Bilateral
26
calcitonin from this species has a longer half-life and greater potency than human calcitonin
Salmon
27
should not be administered to rheumatoid arthritis patients due to the risk of infection
Live vaccines
28
type of therapy for prostate cancer that increases patient risk for developing osteoporosis
Androgen deprivation
29
type of bone that is broken in the atypical femoral fractures (i.e., shaft) seen with bisphosphonate treatment
Cortical
30
happens to methotrexate, appears to be responsible for its low-dose ability to treat rheumatoid arthritis and reason its beneficial effects persist for some time after drug discontinuation
Polyglutamation
31
disrupts pyrimidine synthesis, a second-choice traditional DMARD due to greater prevalence of more serious adverse effects
Leflunomide
32
refers to 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D, a hormone of calcium homeostasis that increase Ca2+ absorption from gut and resorption in kidney
Calcitriol
33
nonpegylated recombinant uricase administered for prevention of acute uric acid nephropathy due to tumor lysis syndrome
Rasburicase
34
often the dose-limiting adverse effect when colchicine is administered for gout prophylaxis
GI distress
35
non-aspirin NSAID with long half-life that can be useful for treating inflammation and/or pain of arthritis, a recommended drug of choice when benefits still outweigh concurrent cardiovascular risks
Naproxen
36
SNRI that is being used to treat osteoarthritis with some success, but increased risk for constipation is problematic
Duloxetine
37
osteoporosis monoclonal antibody therapy that binds RANKL to lower its bone microenvironment levels relative to OPG, and thereby decrease formation and function of osteoclasts
Denosumab
38
blocks urate reabsorption by URAT1 transporter in proximal tubule to increase fractional excretion of filtered urate in urine
Probenecid
39
abruptly doing this with exogenous glucocorticoids can be deadly
Stopping
40
most effective and fastest acting of the traditional DMARDs, monitor for myelosuppression but generally well tolerated at low doses, often added to biologic DMARDs
Methotrexate
41
refers to gout needing a management plan that lowers plasma urate levels
Recurrent
42
this of malignancy can be treated with bisphosphonates or furosemide
Hypercalcemia
43
refers to receptor activator of nuclear factor kappaB ligand, its ratio to OPG in the bone microenvironment governs the formation/activation of osteoclasts
RANKL
44
hormone that acts to increase free Ca2+ levels in the plasma, does this increasing bone breakdown, promoting reabsorption of Ca2+ in kidney, and promoting generation of calcitriol
PTH
45
1,34 PTH, only agent that forms bone but must be administered in PULSED manner… otherwise leads to bone resorption
Teriparatide
46
noteworthy because it suppresses fever and pain but not inflammation, presumably in part by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the CNS; no longer recommended as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis pain, used as adjunct for pain relief in RA
Acetaminophen
47
autoantibodies present in a majority of RA patients target arginine residues in proteins that have been converted to a cyclic form of this
Citrulline
48
antiTNF-biologic DMARD, this is humanized monoclonal antibody administered subcutaneously every 2 weeks; also used for psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn’s disease; top selling drug in the world
Adalimumab
49
refers to person with hyperuricemia due to excess synthesis, excess dietary intake, and/or excess cell turnover (e.g., tumor lysis syndrome)
Overproducer
50
not altered by use of NSAIDs or glucocorticoids in RA
Disease progression
51
can occur in people using bisphosphonates (or denosumab), jaw is common site where it can be triggered by dental work
Osteonecrosis
52
chimeric (human and mouse) monoclonal antibody directed against TNFalpha that can be administered IV every 6 weeks as a biologic DMARD
Infliximab
53
parenteral route for administration of calcitonin-salmon
Intranasal
54
methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, and sulfasalazine are examples of this type of DMARD
Traditional
55
poorly soluble end product of purine metabolism in humans, cause of kidney stones
Uric acid
56
calcium-receptor sensitizer, acts to lower PTH secretion in chronic kidney disease
Cinacalcet
57
patient population at greater risk for serious adverse effects of NSAIDs… and risk of osteoarthritis
Elderly
58
antimalarial that is also a traditional DMARD used alone or in combination, alters antigen presentation by disrupting lysosomal pH
Hydroxychloroquine
59
agent used as a traditional DMARD alone or in combination and also to treat IBD, GI side effects are a common reason for discontinuing
Sulfasalazine
60
a classic NSAID with COX1 selectivity, remains a drug of choice for treating acute gouty arthritis
Indomethacin
61
hormone that acts to lower free Ca2+ levels in the plasma, does this in part by suppressing bone breakdown
Calcitonin
62
drug class associated with atypical bone fractures
Bisphosphonates
63
glucocorticoid, prednisolone prodrug, short-term use is useful in therapy for rheumatoid arthritis until DMARD effects are seen
Prednisone
64
targets CD20 antigen of B cells to cause a B cell ‘do-over,’ used to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia, and can be effective in some antibody-dependent autoimmune diseases
Rituximab
65
person with hyperuricemia due to lower than normal fractional excretion of urate or low GFR necessitating higher urate plasma concentrations to adequately filter/eliminate urate production per minute
Underexcreter
66
general name referring to infections more commonly seen in patients using a biologic DMARD
Opportunistic
67
associated with high serum urate levels (and gluttony), exquisitely painful with big toe being a frequent site
Gout
68
refers to a response that can occur in people when foreign peptides or proteins are injected
Hypersensitivity
69
class of drugs widely used for the pain and inflammation, but significant cardiovascular/respiratory/renal/GI contraindications can cause hypersensitivity skin reactions
NSAIDs
70
late choice biologic DMARD due to limited efficacy, it is a recombinant version of endogenous human IL-1 receptor antagonist
Anakinra
71
bisphosphonate administered by IV injection once per year; also associated with high incidence of osteonecrosis of jaw
Zoledronic acid
72
allopurinol is among the widely used drugs that can cause this potentially fatal syndrome of epidermal necrolysis
Stephens Johnson
73
blocking the effects of this inflammatory mediator is a common target when treating RA and various other autoimmune diseases
TNF alpha
74
microscopic canals between the lacunae of ossified bones; large enough for bacteria but too small for white blood cells so healing with osteomyelitis requires either that efficacious antibiotics can reach bacteria or that infected bone is removed
Canaliculi
75
for gout, low-dose colchicine or low-dose NSAIDs can be administered with this as a goal
Prophylaxis
76
PEGylated version of recombinant mammalian uricase use to treat chronic gout in those refractory to conventional therapy
Pegloticase
77
very effective pain relievers that unfortunately have a high risk of abuse and misuse, so not used for pain of osteoarthritis, etc.
Opioids
78
route of administration required whenever administering peptides, antibodies, or fusion proteins
Parenteral
79
part of dietary intake (e.g., in DNA, RNA) that is abundant in, for example, organ meats; also synthesized and salvaged as necessary
Purines
80
patients with pain due to rheumatoid arthritis are often administered NSAIDs or glucocorticoids despite their lack of effect on disease progression while waiting for a drug from this broad class to begin exerting its effects
DMARD
81
damage to this is a serious side effect of hydroxychloroquine, but little risk from low doses now used to treat RA
Retina
82
COX-2 inhibitor that can be administered to treat pain and inflammation of rheumatoid arthritis if benefits \> risks (e.g., if patient has ulcers, bleeding risk); only member of its class still marketed in US
Celecoxib
83
needed to hasten the nevertheless slow-onset responses for DMARDs such as hydroxychloroquine and leflunomide because of their long half life
Loading dose
84
relieves inflammation from gout if administered within 12-24 hours of symptom onset by blocking the tubulin polymerization (microtubule formation) needed by leukocytes for migration and phagocytosis
Colchicine
85
accumulates outside of the cell as a consequence of AICAR accumulation inside cells due to the action of polyglutamated methotrexate; binds to purigenic GPCR on cell surface to exert anti-inflammatory response
Adenosine
86
absolute contraindication for treatment of RA with methotrexate, reason to choose hydroxychloroquine instead
Pregnancy
87
large aggregations of monosodium urate crystals surrounded by intense inflammatory reaction including large foreign-body giant cells; pathognomonic hallmark of gout
Tophi