WOCS Test 2-1 Flashcards

1
Q

____________________ is an objective accurate descriptive and interpretive record of all activities of the armed forces in peace and war.

A

Military history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Three common preconditions for the full realization of a revolution in military affairs are_________________?

A

technological developments doctrine inovations and organizational adaptation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Revolution in military affairs (RMA)

A

A fundamental change in the nature of warfare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two threads of continuity?

A

internal and external.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Internal threads include__________________?

A

Military proffesionalism logistics/administration operations strategy tactics leadership military theory and doctrine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

External threads include_________________?

A

Political factors social factors economic factors technology and military geography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three goals of studying military history?

A
  1. Foster and maintain a historical mindedness. 2. To promote esprit and pride in the proffesional Army. 3. Most importantly to instill an appreciation of insights gained from lessons of the past understanding the lessons of the past cannot be blindly applied to any situation.”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Key food sources include_____________________?

A

Maize fish seasonal tubors/fruits game

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Many of the tibes were destroyed by _______________ and ___________________.

A

constant warfare and catastrophic diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The British brought the ___________________ with them to the New World because they felt war with the Native Americans would be inevitable.

A

Militia system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The first muster of the militia was in __________________ in ________________.

A

Salem Mass in 1636

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The wars between the French and British were fought where?

A

In Europe and Colonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What was the powerful British Navy suspectible to?

A

Guerrila attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What did John Eliot learn in 1677

A

Sulking way of war. European tatics were ineffective against Indians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_______________ was the first in a series of colonial conflicts between France and England for supremecy in North America.

A

King Williams War

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What was the major goal of the King Williams War?

A

controll of the fur trade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Queen Anne’s War ended with the ________________.

A

Treaty of Utrecht

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In 1764

A

the British passed the ____. The Sugar Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What Act barred the colonies from printing their own currency

A

The Currency Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which Act obligated the colonies to provide lodging and supplies for British Soldiers?

A

The Quartering Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The first direct levy on the colonies

A

passed to generate funds for the British was ________. The Stamp Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What Act did Parliment pass that decreased the tax on imported British tea and gave British merchants an inequitable edge in selling their tea in the Colonies?

A

The Tea Act (1773)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The Boston Tea Party occured on________.

A

Dec 16, 1773

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How did the Americans fight differently from the British?

A

The Americans hid behind trees and stone walls, firing on passing troops. The British used flanking manuevers and firing lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When did the United States declare independance?

A

Jul 4, 1776

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When did George Washington take 2400 of his troops across the Deleware River to conduct a surprise raid on 1500 British Hessians?

A

25–26 December 1776

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What Battle proved to the world that the American Army was an efffective fighting force capable of defeating the highly trained British Forces in a major confrontaiton? (Turning point of the war)

A

The Battle of Saratoga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When was the Battle of Saratoga fought?

A

Sep 19, 1777

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who did General Gates relieve as a result of disagreement in tactics and personality?

A

General Arnold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many died at Valley Forge during the harsh winter due to hunger

A

poorly clothed and badly housed troops? 2 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When did General Cornwallis send word of surrender?

A

Oct 19, 1781

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What was the first threat of civilian control of the government?

A

The Newburgh Conspiricy (1783)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In what act did a group of armed former PA Soldiers surround Independence Hall demanding back pay?

A

The Newburgh Conspiricy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Though the militia belonged to the states

A

the Continental Army was a creation of the ______. Continental Congress (14 June 1775)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who prescribed the Continental Army’s size and composition and chose its Generals and governed the system for its administration and supply?

A

Continental Congress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Under the __________ the states were responsible for raising troops for the Continental Army

A

organizing and equiping them and appointing Officers through the rank of COL. Articles of Confederation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What were the most important weapons in the American Revolutionary War?

A

The flintlock musket the rifle and artillery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Who trained the Army at Valley Forge?

A

Baron von Stuben

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

According to the handout

A

what were the four causes of the Civil War? States rights tariffs slavery and the Patrone factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What was the first battle of the Civil War?

A

The Battle of Ft. Sumter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What was the first state to secede from the Union?

A

South Carolina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

For every man killed in battle during the Civil War

A

how many died from sickness and disease? Two. For every 1 man killed in combat 2 died from sickness and disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

True or False: Most soldiers in the Civil War were under 21 years old?

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Approximately how man African American soldiers fought for the Union Army?

A

Approximately 180 000 black troops fought for the Union Army. This was about 10% of the Union Army strength. Known as Buffalo Soldiers (named by Indians)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Primary weapon during the Civil War

A

Springfield musket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Approximately how many soldiers fought in the Civil War?

A

3.5 Million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How did the South tend to name battles?

A

The South named battles after the closest town or city.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How did the North name battles?

A

The North named battles after the closest stream or river.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The North called them the first and second battles of “Bull Run”

A

but what did the South call them? The South named the battles of Bull Run the first and second battles of “Manasses”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What was the number one resource of the South?

A

The number one resource of the South was agriculture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A ______ is a way of being

A

a way of thinking a way of behaving and a way of growing. Profession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the five characteristics that help define professionalism.

A

Expertise Controlled Admission Autonomy in Dicipline and Regulation Responsibility and Corperateness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What helps create central characteristics?

A

Education Training Experience

54
Q

What 3 components must be mastered to maintain the American Profession of Arms as identified in FM 1?

A

Physical Intellectual and Moral

55
Q

Which two cultural aspects does the intellectual component encompass?

A

Internal: pertains to knowlegde of the military’s values based culture External: pertains to the need to adapt to verifying environments with different cultural and political value

56
Q

When did the framers of the Constitution established the principle of civilian control over the armed forces of the United States.

A

1787

57
Q

What article specifies that Congress alone would have the power to raise and support armies (and provide and maintain a Navy)

A

to declare war to make rules concerning captures on land and water and to provide for organizing arming and disciplining the Militia. The Constitution (Article I Section 1)

58
Q

When did the President form the Joint Chiefs of Staff?

A

Feb–42

59
Q

What did Congress pass to formally establish the organizations that were created during World War II

A

to facilitate better control over the military? National Security Act of 1947

60
Q

What was the National Military Establishment changed to?

A

Department of Defense

61
Q

Who is the head of the DoD?

A

Secretary of Defense

62
Q

Who has authority

A

direction and control over the Departments of the Army Navy and Air Force? Secretary of Defense

63
Q

What Act was an attempt by Congress to rectify problems in joint operations that came to light after the attempted rescue of the American hostages in Iran (Operation Desert One)

A

and the invasion of Grenada (Operation Urgent Fury)? Goldwater–Nichols Act of 1986

64
Q

What did the Homeland Security Act of 2002 create?

A

The Department of Homeland Security

65
Q

Who does the Coast Guard operate under upon the declaration of war?

A

Department of the Navy

66
Q

Who heads the National Security Organization?

A

President of the United States

67
Q

When was the US Special Operations Command established?

A

1987

68
Q

What is the role of the Army? Role = purpose

A

prompt and sustained combat operations on land

69
Q

What is the role of the Navy? Role = purpose

A

prompt and sustained combat operations at sea

70
Q

What is the role of the marine Corps?

A

service with the fleet in the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases and the conduct of such land operations as may be essential to the prosecution of a naval campaign

71
Q

What is the role of the Air Force?

A

prompt and sustained offensive and defensive combat operations in the air and space

72
Q

What are ‘Functions’ ?

A

Functions are specific responsibilities assigned by the President and Secretary of Defense to enable the services to fulfill their legally established roles.

73
Q

What are ‘Missions’ ?

A

Missions are tasks assigned by the President or by the Secretary of Defense and the President to the commanders of Combatant Commands.

74
Q

Who is the nation’s decisive land warfare force?

A

The Army

75
Q

What is the primary function of the U.S. Marine Corps?

A

to be the United States initial response forces

76
Q

What is the US Navy’s primary function?

A

To provide forward presence

77
Q

What is the U.S. Air Force’s primary function?

A

To attain and sustain air and space superiority

78
Q

Where is the US Coast Guard located?

A

Within the Department of Homeland Security

79
Q

Which Service has statutory law enforcement authority?

A

US Coast Guard

80
Q

How does Joint Pub 1–02 define ‘Joint’ ?

A

“activities operations organizations etc. in which elements of two or more Military Departments participate.”

81
Q

What are the 3 Functional Commands?

A

US Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) US Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

82
Q

Which Campaign showed how Joint Doctrine principles applied even before unity of command was formalized by regulation?

A

The Federal Campaign against Vicksburg

83
Q

Who executed the Federal Campaign against Vicksburg?

A

General Ulysses S. Grant and Admiral David D. Porter

84
Q

When did the rescue attempt Operation Eagle Claw take place?

A

25–Apr–80

85
Q

Which Operation became the impetus for a new

A

stronger more integrated military and special operations force? Desert One – Operation Eagle Claw

86
Q

Which three basic emotions can nonverbal communications reveal?

A

Like or dislike submission or dominance the degree which others can arouse reactions.

87
Q

Clothes

A

hair jewlery or lack of cosmetics or makeup make of car and location of one’s house are examples of _____? Symbolic communications.

88
Q

What three basic elements are involved in each transfer of information?

A

Sender message and receiver.

89
Q

Anything which prevents an understanding of the exact concept or information intended by the sender is a _______.

A

Communications barrier.

90
Q

______ requires the deepest level of concentration

A

attention and mental as well as emotional proccessing of information. Active listening.

91
Q

What involves avoiding interuption and keeping mental or written notes of important points or items for clarification.

A

Active listening.

92
Q

How do you ensure the intent of the message is received.

A

Feedback.

93
Q

What kind of feedback can be used to clarify the message

A

give positive or negative remarks and determine how to structure communication that will be meaningful and effective? Verbal feedback.

94
Q

What kind of feedback lets you know someone is paying attention?

A

Nonverbal feedback.

95
Q

What is the birthday of the U.S. Army Warrant Officer Corps?

A

9–Jul–18

96
Q

How far back can the lineage of the warrant officer be traced?

A

1896

97
Q

The National Defense Act of 1920 authorized how many active duty warrant officers?

A

1120

98
Q

The original Army warrant officers (prior to 1918) served in what positions?

A

Headquarters Clerk (later designated the Army Field Clerk)

99
Q

The Act of July 9

A

1918 provided for the creation of what warrant officer position? Army Mine Planter Service

100
Q

In what four positions did warrant officers of the Mine Planter Service serve?

A

Masters mates chief engineers and assistant engineers.

101
Q

Who appointed the warrant officers of the Army Mine Planter Service?

A

The Secretary of War

102
Q

What was the original rank insignia of the warrant officer?

A

Bands of brown braid.

103
Q

What was the original official color of the warrant officer corps?

A

Brown

104
Q

The National Defense Act of 1920 excluded warrant officers from what?

A

Performing duties from which enlisted personnel were also excluded (summary court officer defense counsel O.O.D. & assistant adjutant)

105
Q

The National Defense Act of 1920 made appointment to warrant officer how?

A

As a reward for enlisted soldiers and as a haven” for commissioned officers who could no longer remain a commissioned officer.”

106
Q

When was the warrant officer insignia approved?

A

1921

107
Q

What is the warrant officer insignia?

A

The Eagle Rising””

108
Q

Who first wore the warrant officer insignia?

A

The Tank Corps

109
Q

In November 1942

A

what did the War Department do specific to the definition of the WO? Defined the position of the WO in the rank order as above all enlisted ranks and below all commissioned officer ranks.

110
Q

What was the Warrant Officer Personnel Act (WOPA)?

A

Established WO ranks W1 through W4 and officially eliminated the Mine Planter Service.
This is the close of the Early Period” of the development of the Warrant Officer Corps and the beginning of the “Modern Era” in WO history.”

111
Q

What is TWOS?

A

Total Warrant Officer Study Group

112
Q

When was TWOS?

A

Sep–84

113
Q

When did the first WOCS class direct appoint to WO1?

A

8–Oct–92

114
Q

Today

A

who appoints Warrant Officers? Secretary of the Army

115
Q

What is the minimum rated time for ARNG

A

120 days

116
Q

What is the minimum rated time for USAR?

A

120 days for OER 90 days for NCOER

117
Q

What is the minimum rated time for Active Army?

A

90 days (OER and NCOER)

118
Q

What is DA PAM 600–3 ?

A

Commissioned Officer Professional Development and Career Management

119
Q

What is DA PAM 600–25 ?

A

NCO Professional Development Guide

120
Q

NCOs

A

WO1s CW2s LTs and CPTs must recieve ______ counselings? Quarterly

121
Q

The initial counseling must occur within ______ days of the begining of the rating period.

A

30 days First drill for RC

122
Q

The support form for an NCO is initiated by the _____.

A

Rater

123
Q

What is DA form 67–9–1 ?

A

OER support form

124
Q

What is DA form 67–9–1a ?

A

Developmental Spport Form (DSF) (jointly prepared by rated and rater)

125
Q

What is DA form 67–9 ?

A

Officer Evaluation Report (OER) (rating chain prepares this form)

126
Q

What is DA form 2166–8–1 ?

A

NCO counseling and support form

127
Q

What is DA form 2166–8 ?

A

NCOER

128
Q

What is DA form 1059 ?

A

Service school academic evaluation report

129
Q

Who fills out support forms?

A

Officer – Rated Officer NCO – Rater w/Input

130
Q

What are the minimum days required as rater?

A

90 days (exception for USAR is 120 days for OERs)

131
Q

What are the minimum grades established for the senior rater of a Warrant Officer?

A

Military: MAJ / CPT promotable Civilian: GM / GS 13

132
Q

What are the minimum days required as senior rater?

A

60 days