wk3-other_201-251 Flashcards

1
Q

The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling the
appropriate departments.
Which of the following describes this scenario?
A. Shadow IT
B. Insider threat
C. Data exfiltration
D. Service disruption

A

A. Shadow IT

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2
Q

QUESTION: 201
Which of the following would best explain why a security analyst is running daily vulnerability
scans on all corporate endpoints?
A. To track the status of patching installations
B. To find shadow IT cloud deployments
C. To continuously the monitor hardware inventory
D. To hunt for active attackers in the network

A

A. To track the status of patching installations

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3
Q

QUESTION: 202
Which of the following is classified as high availability in a cloud environment?
A. Access broker
B. Cloud HSM
C. WAF
D. Load balancer

A

D. Load balancer

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4
Q

QUESTION: 203
Which of the following security measures is required when using a cloud-based platform for IoT
management?
A. Encrypted connection
B. Federated identity
C. Firewall
D. Single sign-on

A

A. Encrypted connection

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5
Q

QUESTION: 204
Which of the following threat vectors is most commonly utilized by insider threat actors
attempting data exfiltration?
A. Unidentified removable devices
B. Default network device credentials
C. Spear phishing emails
D. Impersonation of business units through typosquatting

A

A. Unidentified removable devices

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6
Q

QUESTION: 205
Which of the following methods to secure credit card data is best to use when a requirement is
to see only the last four numbers on a credit card?
A. Encryption
B. Hashing
C. Masking
D. Tokenization

A

C. Masking

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7
Q

QUESTION: 206
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has determined the company is non-compliant
with local data privacy regulations. The CISO needs to justify the budget request for more
resources.
Which of the following should the CISO present to the board as the direct consequence of non-
compliance?
A. Fines
B. Reputational damage
C. Sanctions
D. Contractual implications

A

A. Fines

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8
Q

QUESTION: 207
Which of the following alert types is the most likely to be ignored over time?
A. True positive
B. True negative
C. False positive
D. False negative

A

C. False positive

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9
Q

QUESTION: 208
A security analyst is investigating an application server and discovers that software on the
server is behaving abnormally. The software normally runs batch jobs locally and does not
generate traffic, but the process is now generating outbound traffic over random high ports.
Which of the following vulnerabilities has likely been exploited in this software?
A. Memory injection
B. Race condition
C. Side loading
D. SQL injection

A

A. Memory injection

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10
Q

QUESTION: 209
An important patch for a critical application has just been released, and a systems administrator
is identifying all of the systems requiring the patch.
Which of the following must be maintained in order to ensure that all systems requiring the
patch are updated?
A. Asset inventory
B. Network enumeration
C. Data certification
D. Procurement process

A

A. Asset inventory

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11
Q

QUESTION: 210
Which of the following should a security operations center use to improve its incident response
procedure?
A. Playbooks
B. Frameworks
C. Baselines
D. Benchmarks

A

A. Playbooks

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12
Q

QUESTION: 211
Which of the following describes an executive team that is meeting in a board room and testing
the company’s incident response plan?
A. Continuity of operations
B. Capacity planning
C. Tabletop exercise
D. Parallel processing

A

C. Tabletop exercise

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13
Q

QUESTION: 212
A healthcare organization wants to provide a web application that allows individuals to digitally
report health emergencies.
Which of the following is the most important consideration during development?
A. Scalability
B. Availability
C. Cost
D. Ease of deployment

A

B. Availability

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14
Q

QUESTION: 213
Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to
respond?
A. SOW
B. SLA
C. MOA
D. MOU

A

B. SLA

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15
Q

QUESTION: 214
Which of the following is a feature of a next-generation SIEM system?
A. Virus signatures
B. Automated response actions
C. Security agent deployment
D. Vulnerability scanning

A

B. Automated response actions

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16
Q

QUESTION: 215
To improve the security at a data center, a security administrator implements a CCTV system
and posts several signs about the possibility of being filmed.
Which of the following best describe these types of controls? (Choose two.)
A. Preventive
B. Deterrent
C. Corrective
D. Directive
E. Compensating
F. Detective

A

B. Deterrent
F. Detective

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17
Q

QUESTION: 216
Which of the following examples would be best mitigated by input sanitization?

A.

alert("Warning!");

B. nmap - 10.11.1.130
C. Email message: “Click this link to get your free gift card.”
D. Browser message: “Your connection is not private.”
A

A.

alert("Warning!");
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18
Q

QUESTION: 217
An attacker posing as the Chief Executive Officer calls an employee and instructs the employee
to buy gift cards.
Which of the following techniques is the attacker using?
A. Smishing
B. Disinformation
C. Impersonating
D. Whaling

A

C. Impersonating

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19
Q

QUESTION: 218
After conducting a vulnerability scan, a systems administrator notices that one of the identified
vulnerabilities is not present on the systems that were scanned.
Which of the following describes this example?
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. True positive
D. True negative

A

A. False positive

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20
Q

QUESTION: 219
A recent penetration test identified that an attacker could flood the MAC address table of
network switches.
Which of the following would best mitigate this type of attack?
A. Load balancer
B. Port security
C. IPS
D. NGFW

A

B. Port security

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21
Q

QUESTION: 220
A user would like to install software and features that are not available with a smartphone’s
default software.
Which of the following would allow the user to install unauthorized software and enable new
features?
A. SQLi
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Jailbreaking
D. Side loading

A

C. Jailbreaking

22
Q

QUESTION: 221
Which of the following phases of an incident response involves generating reports?
A. Recovery
B. Preparation
C. Lessons learned
D. Containment

A

C. Lessons learned

23
Q

QUESTION: 222
Which of the following methods would most likely be used to identify legacy systems?
A. Bug bounty program
B. Vulnerability scan
C. Package monitoring
D. Dynamic analysis

A

B. Vulnerability scan

24
Q

QUESTION: 223
Employees located off-site must have access to company resources in order to complete their
assigned tasks. These employees utilize a solution that allows remote access without
interception concerns.
Which of the following best describes this solution?
A. Proxy server
B. NGFW
C. VPN
D. Security zone

A

C. VPN

25
Q

QUESTION: 224
A company allows customers to upload PDF documents to its public e-commerce website.
Which of the following would a security analyst most likely recommend?
A. Utilizing attack signatures in an IDS
B. Enabling malware detection through a UTM
C. Limiting the affected servers with a load balancer
D. Blocking command injections via a WAF

A

D. Blocking command injections via a WAF

26
Q

QUESTION: 225
A security analyst developed a script to automate a trivial and repeatable task.
Which of the following best describes the benefits of ensuring other team members understand
how the script works?
A. To reduce implementation cost
B. To identify complexity
C. To remediate technical debt
D. To prevent a single point of failure

A

D. To prevent a single point of failure

27
Q

QUESTION: 226
A company is decommissioning its physical servers and replacing them with an architecture that
will reduce the number of individual operating systems.
Which of the following strategies should the company use to achieve this security requirement?
A. Microservices
B. Containerization
C. Virtualization
D. Infrastructure as code

A

B. Containerization

28
Q

QUESTION: 227
An administrator needs to perform server hardening before deployment.
Which of the following steps should the administrator take? (Choose two.)
A. Disable default accounts.
B. Add the server to the asset inventory.
C. Remove unnecessary services.
D. Document default passwords.
E. Send server logs to the SIEM.
F. Join the server to the corporate domain.

A

A. Disable default accounts.
C. Remove unnecessary services.

29
Q

QUESTION: 228
A Chief Information Security Officer would like to conduct frequent, detailed reviews of systems
and procedures to track compliance objectives.
Which of the following will be the best method to achieve this objective?
A. Third-party attestation
B. Penetration testing
C. Internal auditing
D. Vulnerability scans

A

C. Internal auditing

30
Q

QUESTION: 229
Which of the following security concepts is accomplished with the installation of a RADIUS
server?
A. CIA
B. AAA
C. ACL
D. PEM

A

B. AAA

31
Q

QUESTION: 230
After creating a contract for IT contractors, the human resources department changed several
clauses. The contract has gone through three revisions.
Which of the following processes should the human resources department follow to track
revisions?
A. Version validation
B. Version changes
C. Version updates
D. Version control

A

D. Version control

32
Q

QUESTION: 231
The executive management team is mandating the company develop a disaster recovery plan.
The cost must be kept to a minimum, and the money to fund additional internet connections is
not available.
Which of the following would be the best option?
A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Failover site
D. Warm site

A

B. Cold site

33
Q

QUESTION: 232
An administrator at a small business notices an increase in support calls from employees who
receive a blocked page message after trying to navigate to a spoofed website.
Which of the following should the administrator do?
A. Deploy multifactor authentication.
B. Decrease the level of the web filter settings.
C. Implement security awareness training.
D. Update the acceptable use policy.

A

C. Implement security awareness training.

34
Q

QUESTION: 233
Which of the following teams is best suited to determine whether a company has systems that
can be exploited by a potential, identified vulnerability?
A. Purple team
B. Blue team
C. Red team
D. White team

A

C. Red team

35
Q

QUESTION: 234
A company is reviewing options to enforce user logins after several account takeovers. The
following conditions must be met as part of the solution:
* Allow employees to work remotely or from assigned offices around the world.
* Provide a seamless login experience.
* Limit the amount of equipment required.
Which of the following best meets these conditions?
A. Trusted devices
B. Geotagging
C. Smart cards
D. Time-based logins

A

A. Trusted devices

36
Q

QUESTION: 235
Which of the following methods can be used to detect attackers who have successfully
infiltrated a network? (Choose two.)
A. Tokenization
B. CI/CD
C. Honeypots
D. Threat modeling
E. DNS sinkhole
F. Data obfuscation

A

C. Honeypots
E. DNS sinkhole

37
Q

QUESTION: 236
A company wants to ensure that the software it develops will not be tampered with after the final
version is completed.
Which of the following should the company most likely use?
A. Hashing
B. Encryption
C. Baselines
D. Tokenization

A

A. Hashing

38
Q

QUESTION: 237
An organization completed a project to deploy SSO across all business applications last year.
Recently, the finance department selected a new cloud-based accounting software vendor.
Which of the following should most likely be configured during the new software deployment?
A. RADIUS
B. SAML
C. EAP
D. OpenID

A

B. SAML

39
Q

QUESTION: 238
A user, who is waiting for a flight at an airport, logs in to the airline website using the public Wi-Fi, ignores a security warning and purchases an upgraded seat.
When the flight lands, the user finds unauthorized credit card charges.
Which of the following attacks most likely occurred?
A. Replay attack
B. Memory leak
C. Buffer overflow attack
D. On-path attack

A

D. On-path attack

40
Q

QUESTION: 239
A network engineer deployed a redundant switch stack to increase system availability. However,
the budget can only cover the cost of one ISP connection.
Which of the following best describes the potential risk factor?
A. The equipment MTBF is unknown.
B. The ISP has no SLA.
C. An RPO has not been determined.
D. There is a single point of failure.

A

D. There is a single point of failure.

41
Q

QUESTION: 240
A network team segmented a critical, end-of-life server to a VLAN that can only be reached by
specific devices but cannot be reached by the perimeter network.
Which of the following best describe the controls the team implemented? (Choose two.)
A. Managerial
B. Physical
C. Corrective
D. Detective
E. Compensating
F. Technical
G. Deterrent

A

E. Compensating
F. Technical

42
Q

QUESTION: 241
A threat actor was able to use a username and password to log in to a stolen company mobile
device.
Which of the following provides the best solution to increase mobile data security on all
employees’ company mobile devices?
A. Application management
B. Full disk encryption
C. Remote wipe
D. Containerization

A

C. Remote wipe

43
Q

QUESTION: 242
Which of the following best describes the risk present after controls and mitigating factors have
been applied?
A. Residual
B. Avoided
C. Inherent
D. Operational

A

A. Residual

44
Q

QUESTION: 243
A software development team asked a security administrator to recommend techniques that
should be used to reduce the chances of the software being reverse engineered.
Which of the following should the security administrator recommend?
A. Digitally signing the software
B. Performing code obfuscation
C. Limiting the use of third-party libraries
D. Using compile flags

A

B. Performing code obfuscation

45
Q

QUESTION: 244
Which of the following is a possible factor for MFA?
A. Something you exhibit
B. Something you have
C. Somewhere you are
D. Someone you know

A

B. Something you have

46
Q

QUESTION: 245
Easy-to-guess passwords led to an account compromise. The current password policy requires
at least 12 alphanumeric characters, one uppercase character, one lowercase character, a
password history of two passwords, a minimum password age of one day, and a maximum
password age of 90 days.
Which of the following would reduce the risk of this incident from happening again? (Choose
two.)
A. Increasing the minimum password length to 14 characters.
B. Upgrading the password hashing algorithm from MD5 to SHA-512.
C. Increasing the maximum password age to 120 days.
D. Reducing the minimum password length to ten characters.
E. Reducing the minimum password age to zero days.
F. Including a requirement for at least one special character.

A

A. Increasing the minimum password length to 14 characters.
F. Including a requirement for at least one special character.

47
Q

QUESTION: 246
A user downloaded software from an online forum. After the user installed the software, the
security team observed external network traffic connecting to the user’s computer on an
uncommon port.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of this unauthorized connection?
A. The software had a hidden keylogger.
B. The software was ransomware.
C. The user’s computer had a fileless virus.
D. The software contained a backdoor.

A

D. The software contained a backdoor.

48
Q

QUESTION: 247
A utility company is designing a new platform that will host all the virtual machines used by
business applications. The requirements include:
* A starting baseline of 50% memory utilization
* Storage scalability
* Single circuit failure resilience
Which of the following best meets all of these requirements?
A. Connecting dual PDUs to redundant power supplies
B. Transitioning the platform to an IaaS provider
C. Configuring network load balancing for multiple paths
D. Deploying multiple large NAS devices for each host

A

B. Transitioning the platform to an IaaS provider

49
Q

QUESTION: 248
Which of the following best describes a use case for a DNS sinkhole?
A. Attackers can see a DNS sinkhole as a highly valuable resource to identify a company’s
domain structure.
B. A DNS sinkhole can be used to draw employees away from known-good websites to
malicious ones owned by the attacker.
C. A DNS sinkhole can be used to capture traffic to known-malicious domains used by attackers.
D. A DNS sinkhole can be set up to attract potential attackers away from a company’s network
resources.

A

C. A DNS sinkhole can be used to capture traffic to known-malicious domains used by attackers.

50
Q

QUESTION: 249
An incident analyst finds several image files on a hard disk. The image files may contain
geolocation coordinates.
Which of the following best describes the type of information the analyst is trying to extract from
the image files?
A. Log data
B. Metadata
C. Encrypted data
D. Sensitive data

A

B. Metadata

51
Q

QUESTION: 250
Which of the following most likely describes why a security engineer would configure all
outbound emails to use S/MIME digital signatures?
A. To meet compliance standards
B. To increase delivery rates
C. To block phishing attacks
D. To ensure non-repudiation

A

D. To ensure non-repudiation