WK2 - Cytogenetics Part I & II Flashcards

1
Q

What is a chromosomal abnormality?

A

abnormality in:

  • number of chromosomes
  • deletion or duplication of part of a chromosome
  • rearrangement between two chromosomes resulting in imbalance - ie. an unbalanced rearrangement
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2
Q

What does a centromere do?

A

attaches the DNA molecule to the mitotic spindle

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3
Q

What is a telomere?

A

DNA sequence of repeats at each end of the chromosome

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4
Q

What is euchromatin?

A
  • relatively high frequency of coding regions or genes
  • bands define alternating partitions of euchromatin
  • transcriptionally active
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5
Q

What is heterochromatin?

A
  • area devoid of genes or containing inactive genes; ie. transcriptionaly inactive areas
  • these areas tend to remain highly condensed throughout cell cycle
  • contains highly repetitive elements
  • demonstrate with C banding or fluorescent staining
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6
Q

What is constitutive heterochromatin? And where are they found in chromosomes?

A
  • always in the inactive state
  • composed largely of certain repetitive DNA sequences
  • found in centromeres, Yq, p arms of acrocentric chromosomes
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7
Q

What is facultative heterochromatin? Give an example.

A
  • can be genetically active or inactive

- specialized case is mammalian X which may undergo chromosome inactivation

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8
Q

What is X inactivation?

A
  • most genes on the X chromosome do not have a counterpart on the Y chromosome
  • needs to be a mechanism for dosage compensation; ie. turn off the genes that have more than 1 copy
  • early in embryogenesis, one X chromosome in each cell randomly inactivates (some genes stay active)
  • the initial inactivation persists in all the subsequent mitotic divisions of that original cell
  • each normal female is then a mosaic for the active X chromosome
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9
Q

What is a Barr body?

A
  • the inactivated X chromosome is seen in the cell as a Barr body
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10
Q

What type of banding are there?

A
  • G (Giemsa) banding
  • R (reverse) banding
  • C banding (highlights centromere, long arm, etc.)
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11
Q

What is the order you get the least chromosome band to the most in the following harvesting time:

  • routine preparation
  • amniocentesis
  • prometaphase
A
  1. amniocentesis - 400-500 bands (can miss things because don’t get too much info)
  2. routine preparation - 550 bands
  3. prometaphase - 750 to 800 bands ( generally used to look at detail)
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12
Q

Define fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH), when it hybridize and what it help look for.

A
  • specific single-stranded DNA probes labelled to fluoresce
  • can be hybridized to metaphase chromosomes or to interphase nuclei
  • can paint or look for specific deletions (but cannot differentiate whether a mutation is a consequence of nondisjunction or translocation)
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13
Q

What is microarray comparative genomic hybridization and what does it look for?

A
  • compares normal to patient DNA analyzing multiple area on the chromosome
  • look for imbalances such as duplicates or deletions
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14
Q

What is copy number variants (CNVs)?

A
  • fewer or more than the expected number of copies of a genomic region
  • the molecular equivalent of aneuploidy
  • may contain few to many genes whose function may or may not be known
  • benign CNVs are frequent
  • most benign CNVs are inherited polymorphisms
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15
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

multiples of haploid set of chromosomes

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16
Q

What is triploidy and what does the phenotype look like?

A

3 sets of chromosomes - almost never seen in live births

17
Q

What is aneuploidy?

A
  • fewer or more chromosomes than the exact multiple of the haploid set
  • this includes trisomy and monosomy
  • trisomies are the most frequent; monosomies (other than monosomy X) are often lethal
18
Q

What is nondisjunction and when can it happen during cell division?

A
  • failure of a pair of chromosomes to disjoin in the normal way
  • may happen in MI or MII of meiosis or in mitosis
19
Q

What is the consequence of MI error?

A
  • gamete contains 24 chromosomes instead of 23

- contains both pat and mat members of the pair

20
Q

What is the consequence of MII error?

A
  • gamete contains 24 chromosomes instead of 23

- contains both copies of either mat or pat chromosomes

21
Q

At what maternal age does the risk of aneuploidy start to increase?

A

32 year old

22
Q

What is monosomy?

A
  • all of a chromosome missing
  • lethal unless 45, X
  • can be the consequence of anaphase lag, less often nondisjunction
  • NOT associated with advanced maternal age
23
Q

What is Turner syndrome?

A
  • about half of Turner syndrome is 45, X

- others have one normal X and one abnormal X (with deletions or other rearrangements)

24
Q

What is an isochromosome?

A
  • choromosome with one arm missing, one arm duplicated; sister chromatid exchange likely
  • individual is partially monosomic; partially trisomic
  • most commonly seen as subtype of Turner syndrome when X involved
  • karyotype: 46. X.i(X)(q10)
25
Q

What can result in deletion?

A
  1. chromosome breakage with loss of segment
  2. unequal crossing over
  3. abnormal segregation of translocation
26
Q

What are micro deletion syndromes? What methods can be used to detect them?

A
  • recognizable syndrome secondary to a specific microdeletion (not seen in metaphase chromosomes)
  • sometimes seen in high resolution banding, with FISH probes or Array CGH
27
Q

What are inversions? What are the two types?

A
  • single chromosome undergoes two breaks
  • reconstituted with segment between breaks inverted
  • paracentric - beside the centromere (2 breaks occur in one arm)
  • pericentric - around the centromere (2 breaks occur in both arms)
28
Q

What are translocations?

A
  • exchange of 2 chromosomal segments between two usually non-homologous chromosomes
29
Q

Define reciprocal translocation.

A
  • reciprocal exchange of the broken off segments between two chromosomes
  • the derivative chromsomes are the products of the exchange
30
Q

Define Robertsonian translocation.

A

Fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes near the centromere

31
Q

What are acrocentric chromosomes and which chromosomes are they?

A
  • chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22

- satellited short arms which carry genes for rRNA

32
Q

What are the age related risk for trisomy 13, 18 or 21 in any pregnancy?

A
  • 1 to 2 %

- or age related risk if over 35 years old

33
Q

What are the age related risk for trisomy 21 in a Robertsonian t(14;21) female carrier?

34
Q

What are the age related risk for trisomy 21 in a Robertsonian t(14;21) male carrier?

35
Q

What are the age related risk for trisomy 21 in a t(21;21) male carrier?

36
Q

What are the age related risk for trisomy 21 in a t(21;21) female carrier?

37
Q

What are the risk for trisomy in a carrier with reciprocal translocations?

A

30 to 40 %

38
Q

What are the indications for Karyotyping?

A
  1. Problems of early growth and development – failure to thrive, development delay, multiple malformations, short stature
  2. Stillbirth and Neonatal death
  3. Infertility or recurrent spontaneous abortions
  4. Family history of chromosome problem
  5. Tumors (the tumor itself)
  6. Advanced maternal age (the pregnancy)
38
Q

What are the risk for trisomy in a carrier with inversions?

A

up to 5 to 10 %