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NUR2226 > WK 8: Musculoskeletal Disorders > Flashcards

WK 8: Musculoskeletal Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A type of metabolic bone disease characterised by abnormal bone structure

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2
Q

Identify the 3 characteristics of osteoporosis

A
  • Decreased bone density
  • Loss structural integrity of trabecular (spongy bone)
  • Cortical (compact) bone weakens thins and becomes porous
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3
Q

Identify the cause osteoporosis

A

Altered metabolism

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4
Q

Identify 3 risk factors of osteoporosis

A
  • Genetics (predisposed to decreased bone mass)
  • Ageing (65 years due to endocrine disorders inhibit bone loss)
  • Exercise (need stress for bone maintenance)
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5
Q

Identify the 2 types of osteoporosis

A

Generalised

Regional

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6
Q

Describe generalised osteoporosis

A

Involves major portions of the axial skeleton

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7
Q

Describe regional osteoporosis

A

Involves 1 segment of appendicular skeleton

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8
Q

Identify 2 of the associated diseases with osteoporosis

A

Inflammatory bowel disease

Diabetes mellitus

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9
Q

Identify 2 complications with osteoporosis

A

Disability

Pathological fractures

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10
Q

Identify the main form of prevention in osteoporosis

A

Lifestyle modification e..g balanced diet, regular weight baring exercise

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11
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of osteoporosis

A

Rate of resorption > Rate of bone formation = Bone loss and bone becomes weak, brittle, fragile, porous

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12
Q

Identify 2 common and 2 rare clinical manifestations associated with osteoporosis

A

Common: Pain, fractures, diminished height
Rare: Pneumonia, fat embolism

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13
Q

Identify 2 investigations in the diagnosis of osteoporosis

A

Dual energy X-Ray absorpiometry (DEXA scan)

Bone mineral density testing

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14
Q

Identify the 2 aims of treatment in osteoporosis

A

Slow the rate of calcium and bone loss

Prevent deterioration

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15
Q

Identify 2 nursing considerations associated with osteoporosis

A

Education about condition/treatment

Management of pain = increased quality of life

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16
Q

Describe the effects of back pain

A

Can be emotional, social and economical, leading cause of absence from activity limitation and work

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17
Q

Identity the 4 classifications of back pain

A

Upper
Lower
Acute
Chronic

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18
Q

Describe upper back pain and identify a cause

A

Pain/discomfort felt from neck base to thoracic region

Herniation of intervertebral discs

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19
Q

Identify 2 risks of back pain

A

Obesity, stress

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20
Q

Describe lower back pain and identify a cause

A

Most common, has many nerve roots at high risk of injury, Osteoarthrirtis, DDD

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21
Q

Describe acute Back pain

A

<4 weeks, caused by trauma activity, onset 24hrs after cause as aches, spasm, shooting pain

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22
Q

Describe chronic back pain

A

Lasts >3months, repeated incapacitating event, progressive. DDD is leading cause of lower back pain

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23
Q

What is DDD?

A

Degenerative Disc Disease: Occurs as a result of normal ageing processes combined with deterioration and herniation of intervertebral discs

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24
Q

Describe the 3 purposes of intervertebral discs

A

Seperate the vertebrae of the spine

  1. provide shock absorption
  2. Allow ROM
  3. Protect the joints
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25
Q

Identify the cause of DDD

A

Structural degeneration

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26
Q

Identify 2 risk factors of DDD

A

Ageing
Family history
Modifiable risk factors
Excessive strain

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27
Q

Identify 2 complications of DDD

A

Chronic Pain

Incontinence

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28
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of DDD

A

Nucleus pulposus starts to dry out and shrink, pressure transferred to annulus fibrosis, nucleus pulpous seeps (herniates through annulus) , herniated discs press against the spinal nerves = CM

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29
Q

What is a herniated disc

A

Occurs when spinal intervertebral disc bulges out between the vertebrae

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30
Q

Identify the main clinical manifestation associated with DDD

A

Radioculpathy: Constant pressure on nerve endings = altered sensation and motor responses. Increases with prolonged sitting, bending twisting etc.

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31
Q

Identify the 4 types of back pain (clinical manifestations)

A

Localised: Pain on area palpation
Diffuse: Spread over large area
Radicular: Irritation of nerve root, herniated disc
Referred: Pain felt in one area, radiating to another area

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32
Q

Identify 2 goals of treatment in DDD

A

Increase quality of life

Improve mobility

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33
Q

Identify two forms of assessment in diagnosis of DDD

A

Straight leg raising test = Pt unable to perform = Positive DDD)
On edge of beg straightening leg to flex = Pain = DDD

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34
Q

Identify 2 forms of nursing management in DDD

A 
Non pharmacological (Heat pack, ice pack, massage)
Education
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35
Q

What is arthritis?

A

Inflammatory joint disease

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36
Q

Identify 3 risk factors of arthritis

A

Low SES
Modifiable RF e.g. obesity, smoking, poor diet
Age
Genetics

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37
Q

Identify the 2 types of arthritis

A

Infectious

Non infectious

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38
Q

Describe infectious arthritis

A

Invasion of the joint by bacteria, mycoplasma, fungi leading to inflammation e.g. septic arthritis

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39
Q

Describe non infectious arthritis

A

Inappropriate immune response (Rheumatoid) or deposition of crystals in synovial fluid (Gout)

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40
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Chronic, slow progressive non inflammatory disorder of the synovial joint = cartilage destruction and joint degeneration

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41
Q

Identify the 6 classifications of osteoarthritis

A

Primary / secondary
Localised/Generalised
Early/moderate/advanced

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42
Q

Identify 2 causes of osteoarthritis

A

Usually by a known event/condition
Trauma
Mechanical stress

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43
Q

Identify 2 risk factors associated with osteoarthritis

A

Increasing age
Modifiable risk factors
Repetitive use

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44
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis

A

Articular cartilage degradation, bone stiffening, reactive inflammation of synovial fluid leading to contact of exposed bony joint surfaces and thickening of joint capsule by constant friction between two bone surfaces

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45
Q

Identify 3 clinical manifestations with osteoarthritis

A

Pain (mild discomfort - severe disability)
Joint stiffness
Functional inpairment/joint deformity

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46
Q

Describe inflammatory arthritis

A

A group of disease that result in joint inflammation swelling, stiffness, decrease ROM

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47
Q

Identify 2 types of inflammatory arthritis

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

Psoratic arthritis

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48
Q

Describe Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Inflammation of connective tissue in synovial joints, periods of remission and exacerbation

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49
Q

Identify the cause of Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Likely link with genetics and environmental triggers interacting with inflammatory mediators

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50
Q

Identify 2 risks factors of Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Increasing age
Smoking
Obesity
stress

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51
Q

Describe the classification of Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Classifed according to number of joints involved, serology inflammatory markers and duration of symptoms

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52
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Initial immune response to antigen triggers autoantibodies to develop (Rheumatoid factor). These cause an inflammatory response causing cartilage breakdown and thickening of synovial lining and membrane. This leads to tissue breakdown and erosion of a articular cartilage = immobilisation/joint stiffness

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53
Q

Identify 3 early clinical manifestations with Rheumatoid arthritis

A 
Fever 
Fatigue 
Rash 
Weight loss 
Malaise (discomfort)
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54
Q

Identify the late clinical manifestations with Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Localised CM e.g. joint pain/tenderness/stiffness

Disability

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55
Q

Identify 2 complications associated with Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Osteoporosis
Infections
Carpel tunnel

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56
Q

What is Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Chronic, immune mediated inflammatory joint disorder . Part of a group of disorders called seronegative spondyloarthropathy, can be oglioarthritis

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57
Q

What is oglioarthritis

A

Chronic, inflammatory arthritis of unknown origin affecting <5 joints, with an onset that occurs <6yrs of age and lasts for 6 weeks

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58
Q

Describe Psoriasis

A

Chronic autoimmune disorder characterised by the rapid build up of skin cells that form patches of scaly, itchy dry skin

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59
Q

Identify the cause of Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Strong genetic link combined with immune and environmental factors

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60
Q

Identify 2 risk factors associated with Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Psoriasis
Age
Obesity

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61
Q

Identify the 5 types of Psoriatic Arthritis

A 
Symmetric 
Asymmetric 
Distal 
Spondylitic 
Arthritis Mutilans
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62
Q

Describe symmetric Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Affects joints on both sides of the body at the same time

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63
Q

Describe asymmetric Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Affects one side of the body at a time

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64
Q

Describe distal Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Inflammation/stiffness to ends of toes and fingers including nails. Causes pitting and lifting from nail bed

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65
Q

Describe spondylitis Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Pain/stiffness of the spine and neck, affects men>women

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66
Q

Describe arthritis mutilans Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Most severe, deformities of small joints

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67
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Psoriatic Arthritis

A

“Not understood”

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68
Q

Identify 3 clinical manifestations associated with Psoriatic Arthritis

A 
Joint inflammation (stiffness/painful)
Swollen fingers/toes
Skin changes
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69
Q

Identify 3 complications of Psoriatic Arthritis

A

“Pencil in a cup”deformity of distal joints in fingers
Depression/anxiety
Chronic fatigue

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70
Q

Identify 2 associated comorbidities of Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Psoriasis

Depression

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71
Q

What is gout

A

Metabolic disorder characterised by an acute exacerbation with long period of remission. results in high levels of serum uric acid

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72
Q

Identify the 4 classifications of gout

A

Primary
Secondary
Acute
Chronic

73
Q

Describe primary gout

A

Herediatry, 90%

74
Q

Describe secondary gout

A

Related to other risk factors

75
Q

Describe acute gout

A

Sudden onset of symptoms, 1-4 joints involved, usually a peripheral joint with symptoms occurring at night, resolving in 2-10 days

76
Q

Describe chronic gout

A

Multiple joints involved, visible deposits of sodium urate crystals called “tophi” can be found in synovium etc.

77
Q

Identify the cause of gout

A

Caused by defects in uric acid metabolism attributed to one of the following:

  1. Increased uric acid production
  2. Decrese in uric acid secretion
  3. Increase in consumption of food/drinsk with high levels of purine e.g. seafood
78
Q

What are the 3 primary causes of gout

A
  1. Increased uric acid production
  2. Decrese in uric acid secretion
  3. Increase in consumption of food/drinsk with high levels of purine e.g. seafood
79
Q

Identify 3 risk factors associated with gout

A

Obesity
Trauma (surgery, injury)
Excessive alcohol consumption

80
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of gout

A

In conjunction with increased urate reabsorption and decreased secretion, monosodium crystals are deposited in renal tissues impairing urine flow and leading to accumulation of crystals in connective tissue. This causes an inflammatory response

81
Q

What is Purine

A

Natural chemical compounds found in food/roduced in the body. Uric acid is the major end product of purine metabolism therefore those with gout will have accelerated purine synthesis and poor breakdown/secretion of uric acid in kidneys

82
Q

Identify 2 aggravating mechanisms for crystal deposition

A

Decreased body temperature (decreased solubility)

Trauma (promotes crystal deposition)

83
Q

Identify the 3 stages of gout

A

Asymptomatic hyperuricaemia
Acute gouty arthritis
Tophaceous gout

84
Q

Describe Asymptomatic hyperuricaemia

A

Serum rate increased, arthritic symptoms not present

85
Q

Describe acute gouty arthritis

A

Exacerbation of symptoms with increased serum rate concentration, occurs with sudden , sustained increased in urate levels

86
Q

Describe tophacecous gout

A

Chronic stage, occurs as early as 3 years post initial episode or 40 years. progressive inability to excrete uric acid = tophi appearance in cartilage

87
Q

Identify 2 acute symptoms associated with gout

A

Difficulty weight bearing

Systemic inflammation signs (Fever)

88
Q

Identify 2 chronic symptoms associated with gout

A

Joint discomfort
Limited ROM
Chronic joint inflammation

89
Q

Identify 2 complications associated with gout

A

Kidney dysfunction

Tophi (visible crystals)

90
Q

Describe septic arthritis

A

Infectious arthritis caused by invasion of bacteria into a joint cavity. Bacteria can travel through the blood stream and deposit in any joint cavity

91
Q

Identify 2 causes of septic arthritis

A

Active infection in the body (bacteriacemia)

Surgical incision

92
Q

Identify the causative organism of septic arthritis

A

Any bacterial organism e.g. Staphlococcus

93
Q

Identify 2 risks associated with septic arthritis

A

Immunocompromised

Recent infections

94
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of septic arthritis

A

Bacterial colonisation leads to rapid bacterial proliferation, joint infection, increased colonisation of bacteria leads to an acute inflmmatory response

95
Q

Identify 3 clinical manifestations associated with septic arthritis

A

Single joint severe pain, worse with movement
Poor ROM
Symptoms of inflammation/infection

96
Q

Identify 2 complications of septic arthritis

A

Irreversible cartilage damage if not treated in 8 hours
Unstable VS
osteoarthritis

97
Q

Identify a diagnostic for osteoarthritis

A

Imaging to identify joint damage e.g. loss of space

98
Q

Identify a diagnostic for rheumatoid arthritis

A

Blood pathology (for rheumatoid factor), imaging, specific criteria for >6weeks

99
Q

Identify a diagnostic for gout

A

Presence of tophi, blood pathology for serum uric acid levels

100
Q

Identify a diagnostic for septic arthritis

A

Blood pathology for aerobic/anaerobic organisms, Xray

101
Q

Identify a diagnostic for psoriatic arthritis

A

Diagnosis made on clinical presentation and history of CM

102
Q

Identify 3 treatment forms for arthritis

A

Improve functional capacity
Symptom management
Limit exacerbations

103
Q

Identify a treatment for rheumatoid arthritis

A

Early commencement of disease modifying anti rheumatic drugs (DMARD)

104
Q

Identify a treatment for gout

A

Allouprinol

105
Q

Identify a treatment for Septic arthritis

A

Antibiotics, prompt treatment to prevent joint breakdown

106
Q

Identify a treatment for psoriatic arthritis

A

Cytokine inhibitors

107
Q

Identify 2 forms of surgical management for arthritis

A

Total joint replacement

Arthroplasty (repair joints)

108
Q

Identify 2 nursing considerations of arthritis

A

Assist with ADL’s
Pharmacology
Non pharmacological management
lifestyle modifications

109
Q

What is a fracture?

A

A break in the continuity of a bone. Occur when force exceeded on a bone is too much

110
Q

Identify 2 potential causes of a fracture

A

Trauma
Overuse
Pathological (disease processes)

111
Q

Identify 3 risks factors associated with fractures

A 
Ages factors (young and older at increased risk)
Comorbidities Lifestyle (smoking, increased alcohol)
112
Q

Identify 2 complications associated with fractures

A

Permanent disability

Comaprtment syndrome

113
Q

Identify 2 ways to prevent fractures

A

Adequate calcium/vitmain D intake
Lifestyle modifications e.g. smoking
avoid falls

114
Q

Describe a displaced fracture

A

Bone breaks into two or more parts, ends do not align

115
Q

Describe a non displaced fracture

A

Bone breaks into two or more parts, ends do align

116
Q

Describe an open fracture

A

Bone breaks through the skin

117
Q

Describe a closed fracture

A

No break/puncture wound on skin

118
Q

Describe a greenstick fracture

A

Bone is bent but does not seperate into two pieces

119
Q

Describe a buckle fracture

A

Two bones drive into each other

120
Q

Describe a growth plate fracture

A

Fracture through joint impacts the growth plate, shortening the bone

121
Q

Describe a comminuted fracture

A

Bone breaks 3 or more fragments

122
Q

Describe an oblique fracture

A

Bone breaks on an angle through the bone

123
Q

Describe a spiral fracture

A

spiral break around the bone caused by twisting injury

124
Q

Describe a transverse fracture

A

Also known as a linear fracture, fracture line perpendicular to the bone shaft

125
Q

Describe a compression fracture

A

Bones are crushed resulting in flatter, wider bones

126
Q

Describe an impacted fracture

A

Broken ends of a bone are driven together by the force of the injury

127
Q

Describe a pathological fracture

A

Caused by disease that weakens the bone

128
Q

Describe a stress fracture

A

fatigue and insufficiency causes a hairline crack, results from repetitive motion

129
Q

Describe an avulsion fracture

A

bone fragment is pulled off the bone by a tendon or ligament

130
Q

Describe a hip fracture

A

Called a #NOF, a break occurring at the upper third of the femur

131
Q

Identify the 2 classifications of a hip fracture

A

Extracapsular (Of trocahnteric region)

Intracapsular (Of NOF)

132
Q

Identify a complications of hip fractures

A

Delirium due to shock/hypovolaemia and pain

133
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of a fracture

A

Force exceeds what the bone can absorb due to imperfect bones, weakened bones, fatigued bones( due to repetition)

134
Q

Identify the 3 stages of fracture healing and the corresponding time frames

A
  1. Inflammatory phase: 0-2 weeks
  2. Reparative phase: 2-6 weeks
  3. Remodelling phase: 6 weeks - several months
135
Q

Describe the inflammatory phase

A
  1. Bleeding occurs due to damage
  2. Fracture haematoma forms between medullary canal/periosteum
  3. Decreased o2 supply
  4. Inflammatory response
  5. Pro callus formation
136
Q

Describe the reparative phase

A
  1. Capillary network forms at haematoma
  2. Increased blood flow
  3. Phagocytes engulf debris
  4. Granulation tissue forms
  5. Bone callus is formed
137
Q

Describe the remodelling phase

A
  1. Gradual spread of callus
  2. Creation of compact/cancellous bone
  3. Osteoclasts absorb dead fragments and clean up
  4. Structure formed
138
Q

Identify the 3 components of the fracture timeline

A

48 hours: angiogenesis occurs, new blood vessels formed
3 weeks: new bone splinted, not strong enough yet to withhold prior force
6 weeks: new bone supports movement/normal function

139
Q

Identify 3 factors which affect healing of fractures

A

Genetics
increasing age
Complexity/type of fracture

140
Q

Identify 3 clinical manifestations associated with fractures

A

Immediate localised pain
Swelling
Bruising

141
Q

Identify 3 forms of initial management in fractures

A

RICE
Open fractures, saturate gauze with saline and apply over wound
Do not attempt to reduce fractures

142
Q

Describe RICE

A

Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation

143
Q

What is ORIF

A

Open reduction and Internal fixation (surgery in fracture)

144
Q

Describe the process of reduction

A

Performed to reestablish alignment

145
Q

Describe immobilisation

A

Casting

146
Q

Describe traction

A 
Application of pulling force to obtain realignment. 
Short term (Tape, boots, splint ) 
Long Term (pins, wires)
147
Q

Outline the 6 P’s in a NVA assessment for fractures

A 
Pain 
Paraestheisa 
Pallor
Polar
Paralysis 
Pulses
148
Q

Identify 3 nursing interventions in fracture management

A
  1. Symptom/pain management
  2. IDC inserted in #NOF
  3. Log roll (To prevent rotation of hip) in #NOF
  4. Education: post surgery care
149
Q

Describe the function of a muscle

A

Attached to a bone by tendons, made up of fibres that shorten/lengthen to produce movement

150
Q

Describe the function of a tendon

A

Tough band of slightly elastic connective tissue connects muscle to bone

151
Q

Describe the function of a ligament

A

Strong band of inelastic connective tissue that connects bone to bone

152
Q

Describe a sprain

A

Occur in response to a tear or the stretching of a ligament surrounding a joint usually from a traumatic event e.g. inversion/eversion of ankle

153
Q

Describe a strain

A

Occur in reaction to a twist, tear or excessive stretch of a muscle, it’s muscle sheath or tendon usually from overexertion trauma or repetitive movement

154
Q

Identify 2 risk factors of sprains/strains

A

Increasing age
Obesity
Poor physical fitness

155
Q

Identify 2 clinical manifestations associated with sprains/strains

A

Severe sprains can lead to fractures
Dislocation
Loss of function/strength

156
Q

Identify 2 ways to prevent sprains/strains

A

Balanced nutrition

Healthy weight

157
Q

Identify the 3 classifications of sprains/strains

A

Grade 1
Grade 2
Grade 3

158
Q

Describe Grade 1 sprains/strains

A

Mild stretching of a ligament (Only few fibres torn) without joint instability

159
Q

Describe Grade 2 sprains/strains

A

Partial tear (rupture) of ligament without joint instability or mild instability

160
Q

Describe Grade 3 sprains/strains

A

Severe sprain: complete rupture of ligament with instability of joint

161
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of sprains/strains

A

Torn tendon/ligament causes the inflammatory process to begin, fluids accumulate at ends of damaged tissue, inflammatory cells e.g. macrophages grow inwards from surrounding tissue to commence repair, new collagen formed, 4-5 weeks post injury new ligament/tendon will withhold pier strength

162
Q

Identify 3 clinical manifestations associated with sprains/strains

A

Pain/tenderness
Swelling
Difficulty weight baring

163
Q

Identify 3 forms of nursing management in sprains/strains

A 
RICE
simple analgesia (multimodal approach)
Education 
NSAIDS 
Surgical intervention 
Avoid HARM
164
Q

What does HARM stand for

A

Avoid heat alcohol running and massage for 72 hours

165
Q

Identify the aim of joint surgery

A

Manage/relieve pain
Improve function/mobility
Correct deformity/malalignment

166
Q

Identify 2 types of joint surgery

A

Osteotomy
Arthoplasty
Arthrodesis

167
Q

Identify 2 indications for joint surgery

A

Arthritis, failed prior procedures, sepsis, connective tissue disease

168
Q

Identify 2 complications of joint surgery

A

Surgical site infection

Thromboembolsim

169
Q

Tramadol

  • Class
  • Indication
  • Action
  • Adverse effects
  • Nursing consideration
A
  • Analgesia
  • Moderate-severe pain
  • Centrally acting synthetic analgesic, blocks reuptake of noradrenaline and serotonin without causing histamine release
  • Dyspepsia, drowsiness
  • Do not chew/break/divide tablet
170
Q

Indomethicin

  • Class
  • Indication
  • Action
  • Adverse effects
  • Nursing consideration
A
  • NSAID
  • RA, Gout, OA, Sprains Strains, Lower BP, Fractures
  • Inhibit COX-1 non selectively and selectively binds to COX-2 decreasing inflammation
  • Dizziness, headache
  • Should be taken with food
171
Q

Celecoxib

  • Class
  • Indication
  • Action
  • Adverse effects
  • Nursing consideration
A
  • NSAID
  • RA, OA, post op pain management, pain with dysmenorrhea
  • COX-2 inhibitor which prevents prostaglandin synthesis decreasing pain and inflammation
  • Dizziness, headache
  • Should be taken with food
172
Q

Meloxicam

  • Class
  • Indication
  • Action
  • Adverse effects
  • Nursing consideration
A
  • NSAID
  • RA and OA
  • COX-2 inhibitor which prevents prostaglandin synthesis decreasing inflammation and pain
  • Dizziness, headache
  • Should be taken with food
173
Q

Naproxen

  • Class
  • Indication
  • Action
  • Adverse effects
  • Nursing consideration
A
  • NSAID
  • RA, OA, Gout, Generalised acute/chronic inflammatory pain
  • COX-2 inhibitor which prevents prostaglandin synthesis decreasing inflammation and pain
  • Dizziness, headache
  • Should be taken with food
174
Q

Allopurinol

  • Class
  • Indication
  • Action
  • Adverse effects
  • Nursing consideration
A
  • Anti uricaemic agent
  • Chronic gout
  • Reduces uric acid levels in body fluid and urine by inhibiting xanthine oxidase which promotes the conversion of xanthine to urate
  • Diarrhoea, Headache
  • Should be taken with or after food
175
Q

Colchicine

  • Class
  • Indication
  • Action
  • Adverse effects
  • Nursing consideration
A
  • Anti-gout
  • Acute gout (When NSAIDS will not be effective or can’t be used)
  • Inhibits leucocyte migration in gouty joints thereby decreasing inflammatory response to urate crystals, decreases deposition of rate crystals
  • Diarrhoea, muscle weakness
  • Increased risk of bleeding with NSAIDS
176
Q

Identify the 4 examples of NSAIDS used in musculoskeletal disorders

A
  • Indometacin
  • Celecoxib
  • Meloxicam
  • Naproxen
177
Q

Identify the two examples of anti-gout medication

A

Allopurinol

Colchicine

178
Q

Identify an example of a biphosphonate

A

Zoledronic acid

179
Q

Zoledronic Acid

  • Class
  • Indication
  • Action
  • Adverse effects
  • Nursing consideration
A
  • Biphosphonates
  • Osteoporosis, can be used to prevent fractures
  • Increases total bone mass, inhibits bone resorption by impairing osteoclast function and osteoclast numbers without inhibiting bone formation
  • headache, myalgia
  • Ensure vitamin D and calcium status are adequate

NUR2226 (8 decks)

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