wk 6 (nutrition, pee pee, fluids) -Cisco Flashcards
1
Q
what are 3 sources of energy, AKA “essential” “macronutrients”
A
carbs, fats, protein
2
Q
anorexia means?
A
lack of appetite
3
Q
what characteristics of the nails is important for assessing nutrition
A
spoon shaped (koilonychai), brittle, pale,ridged
4
Q
ROME means?
A
Respiratory Opposite Metabolic Equal
5
Q
the energy required to carry on involuntary activities of cells and tissue
A
Basal Metabolism
6
Q
BMI of ___ indicates obesity (plus bodyweight 20% above ideal weight)
BMI of ___ indicates extreme obesity
A
30
40
7
Q
BMI below ___ indicates being underweight
A
18.5
8
Q
of the 3 essential nutrients, ____ is digested more easily, and provides 4 calories per gram.
A
carbohydrates
9
Q
the __ stores glucose
A
liver
10
Q
___ is required for the formation of all body structures.
A
protein
11
Q
protein is broken down of ____ enzyme in the ___intestine and transported to the ___ .
A
pancreatic, small, liver
12
Q
fats provide __ calories per gram
A
9
13
Q
vitamins, minerals, water are ____ nutrients
A
regulatory
14
Q
the body stores excess of the fat-soluble _____ in the liver and adipose tissue.
A
vitamins
15
Q
phosphorus, sulfur, sodium, chloride, potassium, magnesium are considered
A
Macrominerals
16
Q
do older adults have more or less ECF than younger adults?
A
less
17
Q
normal water intake is ____ to _____
A
2200-3000
18
Q
when are nutritional needs per unit of body weight greater than at any other time in the life cycle?
A
Infancy
19
Q
older adults need more protein, vitamin B and calcium, but due to illness, limited income, isolation older adults are at risk for _____.
A
malnutrition
20
Q
ginkgo biloba and aspirin may increase risk of ____ _____ during Sx
A
excessive bleeding
21
Q
Economic factors, religion, Meaning of food, culture
A
factors affecting food choice
22
Q
MNA
A
Mini Nutritional Assessment
23
Q
anthropometric
A
measurements of the size and proportion of the human body
24
Q
which test can assess protein status?
A
serum albumin, total lymphocytes count
25
____ levels indicate short-term nutritional status and are excellent markers for malnutrition.
prealbumin
26
low creatinine level: ____
malnutrition
27
normal hemoglobin: 12- __ g/dL (anemia)
18
28
hematocrit: __- 50% (low = anemia/ high = dehydration)
40%
29
serum albumin: 3.5 - __g/dL (decreased = malnutrition
5.5
30
prealbumin: __-43 mg/dL (decreased= anemia, low protein)
23
31
Blood urea nitrogen: 17-__mg/dL (increased= starvation, dehydration)
18
32
creatinine: __- 1.5 mg/dL ( decreased= low muscle mass/ increased= dehydration)
0.4
33
a pt receiving a clear liquid diet for breakfast followed by a nurse assessing a pts ability to ingest is consistent with orders to ___ ____?
advance diet
34
```
the below are ways to ______ ______:
serve small and frequent portions
ensure plating is enticing
adequately schedule meds to not interfere with meals
encourage food oral hygiene
remove clutter
ensure pt is in a comfortable position
```
stimulate appetite
35
Diabetes, impaired glucose tolerance calls for what kind of diet?
consistent carb diet
36
chronic cholecystitis, cardiovascular disease calls for what kind of diet?
fat- restricted
37
constipated pts, diverticulosis calls for what kind of diet?
high fiber
38
crohns disease, before sx, ulcerative colitis, diverticulitis calls for what kind of diet?
low fiber
39
hypertension, heat failure, renal disease, liver disease calls for what kind of diet?
sodium-restricted
40
nephrotic syndrome, CKD, diabetic kidney disease calls for what kind of diet?
renal diet
41
```
the following are reasons you would see an order for a pt to be _ _ _:
before sx to prevent aspiration
sever nasuea and vomitting
inability to chew or swallow
GI abnormalities
comatose
women in labor
```
NPO
42
pts that NPO for more than 2 days will need to receive _____ nutrition or _____ nutrition
enteral, parenteral
43
capnographs or colorimetric end-tidal detectors are used for
CO2 monitoring
44
in a prolonged state of comatose, a ____ or a____ are preferred to prevent aspiration
gastrostomy, jejunostomy
45
continuous feeding via enteral route creates the risk of ____ and ____
reflux, aspiration
46
regular intervals in equal portions, refers to _____ feeding
intermittent
47
continuous feeding administered for a portion of the day refers to _____ feeding
cyclical
48
when feeding enterally, bed should be positioned to how many degrees, during feedig and for an hour after?
30-45
49
drugs should administered through a feeding tube along with food how often?
never
50
```
steps below provide _____ for pts with NGT:
frequent oral hygiene
keep nares clean
provide analgesic throat lozenges
avoid tugging and tension of tube
```
comfort
51
PN solutions administered via peripheral venous access sites are ___ concentrated and have ___ osmolarity
less, lower
52
the body's total blood volume passes through the ___ for waste remval every 30 mins
kidney
53
the sympathetic system ___ pee
| the parasympathetic system ___ pee
holds, goes
54
micturition/voiding:
peeing
55
meds, an enlarged prostate, vaginal prolapse may all be associated with
urinary retention
56
foods high in salt: ___ urine
less
57
alchol: ____ urine
more
58
diaphoresis
profuse perspiration
59
anuria
24 hr urine output of 50mL
60
dysuria
painful pee
61
Oliguria
24 hr output less than 400mL
62
polyuria/diuresis
excessive pee
63
pyuria
puss in pee
64
measuring input and output is very important for indentifying alterations in ___ ___.
Fluid balance
65
the presence of red/white blood cells, bacteria and dischage would lead to a ___ appearance to urine.
cloudy
66
high protein diets lead to ____ urine
acidic
67
dairy, legumes, veggies, citrus fruits lead to ____ urine
alkaline
68
in case of incontinent pts, measuring output can be measured by weighing the ____ ____ or the _____.
absorbant pad, diapers
69
the preferred method for obtaining a urine sample from a pt with a urinary diversion is to use a ___.
catheter
70
blood, pus, albumin, glucose, ketone bodies, casts, gross bacteria, and bile are all _____ ______.
abnormal constituents
71
____- 2400mL (8-10 8oz glasses) is the recommended fluid intake
2000
72
A C&S is positive is it shows at least _____ organisms per mL of urine
100,000
73
____ incontinence appears suddenly and lasts up to 6 months
transient incontinence
74
____ incontinence is most related to spinal injury
functional incontinence
75
a PVR of less than __ mL indicates adequate emptying
50 (100mL is bad)
76
this catheter is for long-term conditions and is inserted surgically.
suprapubic catheter (better with infection that foleys)
77
the asymptomatic condition in which bacteria are present in the urine is known as?
bacteriuria
78
___-_____ catheters can increase erosion of the bladder nack and urethral mucosa, and can cause strictures
Large-size
79
5F-8F sized catheters are used for _____ and _____
infants, children
80
for catheter insertion, pt should be positioned in _____ recumbant, and be on a ____ flat surface
dorsal, hard (sims or lateral are alternate positions)
81
_____inflated balloons (of indwelling catheters) can cause irritation and erosion to bladder's mucosa
partially
82
for males, before inserting tube into urethra lidocaine jelly is used to ___ and ____
numb, lubricate
83
leg bags and catheter valves should be changed every _-_ days
5-7
84
how often should you irrigate a urologic stent?
never
85
involves a machine that filters harmful waste, electrolytes, and fluid from blood.
Hemodialysis
86
involves using blood vessels in the addominal lining to fill in for the kidneys, utilizes diffusion and osmosis.
Peritoneal dialysis
87
in older adults, resistence found when inserting a catheter may be due to enlargement of the ___ gland
prostate (may require coudé catheter)
88
what nutrient does the below?
Transport nutrients to cells and wastes from cells
Transport hormones, enzymes, blood platelets, and red and white blood
cells
Facilitate cellular metabolism and proper cellular chemical functioning
Act as a solvent for electrolytes and nonelectrolytes
Help maintain normal body temperature
Facilitate digestion and promote elimination
Act as a tissue lubricant
water
89
water is what % of body weight in a healthy person?
50%-60%
90
the more obese a person is, the smaller the person’s
| percentage of total body ____ is when compared with body weight.
water
91
the thirst mechanism is located where?
hypothalamus
92
cations have ____ charge
| cats are ____!
positive (sodium, potassium, calcium, hydrogen, and
| magnesium)
93
chloride, bicarbonate, and phosphate are the major ____ in body fluid.
anions
94
```
The total cations in the body are normally ____ to the total anions,
maintaining homeostasis (balanced state).
```
equal
95
organs and body systems,
| osmosis, diffusion, active transport, and capillary filtration, are all used to _______ _____.
regulate fluids (electrolyte balance)
96
a process that requires energy for the movement of
substances through a cell membrane, against the concentration gradient,
from an area of lesser solute concentration to an area of higher solute
concentration.
active transport
97
these pressures are important to process of fluids leaving arterioles, and entering interstitial compartments.
hydrostatic pressure and colliod osmotic pressure.
98
normal blood is slightly alkaline and has a normal pH range of ___ to ____.
7.35 to 7.45 (7.4 being the optimal blood pH)
99
_____ < 6.8pH - 7.8pH > _____
Death
100
theses are ways ________ is ________ :
(1) chemical buffer systems, (2) respiratory
mechanisms, and (3) renal mechanisms.
homeostatis, regulated
101
what the body's 3 buffer systems?
(1) the carbonic
acid–sodium bicarbonate buffer system, (2) the phosphate buffer system,
and (3) the protein buffer system.
102
As more CO2 is exhaled, the ____ level in the
| blood decreases, and the pH of the blood becomes more alkaline
H2CO3 (carbonic acid)
103
the ___ are
| the primary controller of the body’s carbonic acid supply.
lungs
104
a loss of both water and solutes in
| the same proportion from the ECF space.
Hypovolemia
105
a sodium deficit in ECF (serum
| sodium <135 mEq/L) caused by a loss of sodium or a gain of water.
Hyponatremia
106
a surplus of sodium in ECF (serum sodium
| >145 mEq/L) caused by excess water loss or an overall excess of sodium
Hypernatremia
107
Hypokalemia refers to a potassium deficit in ECF (serum
| potassium
3.5
108
_______ may result from renal failure,
hypoaldosteronism, or the use of certain medications such as potassium
chloride, heparin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors,
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and potassium-sparing
diuretics.
hyperkalemia (>5mEq/L)
109
8.9 mg/dL (4.5 mg/dL) - 10.1 mg/dL (5.1 mg/dL).
normal range for calcium
110
a proportionate deficit
| of bicarbonate in ECF.
Metabolic acidosis or nonrespiratory acidosis = low pH
111
an excess of HCO3, a decrease in H+ ions, or both, in the ECF.
Metabolic alkalosis or nonrespiratory alkalosis = high pH
112
a primary excess of carbonic acid in the ECF
respiratory acidosis (holding breath)
113
a primary deficit of carbonic acid in the ECF
Respiratory alkalosis (hyperventilation)
114
Increased ______values: found in severe fluid volume deficit and
shock
hematocrit
115
when bicarbonate level more closely corresponds
| with the pH, the primary cause of the problem is ______.
metabolic
116
When ______ occurs, the PaCO2 and the HCO3− will always point
in the same direction.
compensation
117
1.005 to 1.030 is normal range for what?
urine specific gravity
118
IV
potassium is never administered via IV ____ and the infusion rate for IV
potassium chloride solutions requires careful monitoring
bolus
119
_____ are helpful in treating patients with FVE, they increase the risk for fluid volume deficit and serious electrolyte
deficiencies.
Diuretics
120
___ =7.35-7.45
___= 35-45
___= 22-26
pH
CO₂
HCO₃
