Wk 5: neurosensory/ integumentary Flashcards

1
Q

layers of the skin

A

epidermis (outside layer)
dermis (middle layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the largest organ in the body?

A

the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the dermis and epidermis are separated by what?

A

the dermal/epidermal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

dermis

A

middle layer
provides strength and support for epidermis
protects layers underneath muscle, blood vessels and bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

epidermis

A

top outer layer
-basal layer=divides and proliferates, helping top cells slough off and die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

primary purpose of skin

A

protection and sensory perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

integumentary assessment

A

-know norms vs concerning findings
-color (pallor, cyanosis, jaundice)
-moisture (MMM, diaphoresis)
-temperature (warm nml, cold can indicate poor perfusion, warm can indicate infection)
-texture (smooth, rough, tight, supple, thick, thin, indurated, elevated, soft)
-turgor (fluid balance, decreases with age)
-vascularity (color around vascular areas of skin, can be red/pink/pale, veins can be more or less visible, capillaries can be fragile, petechia)
-edema
-lesions (wounds/rashes/ any unusual findings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pallor

A

pale, loss of color
in black skin tone can become grey
-look at palm of hands, lips or mucus membranes for people with darker skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pitting edema
1+
2+
3+
4+

A

1+: 2mm depression, barley detectable, immediate rebound
2+: 4mm deep, few seconds to rebound
3+: 6mm deep, 10-12 seconds to rebound
4+: 8mm, very deep pitting, >20 seconds o rebound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hard, non-pitting edema is usually related to what?

A

an injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

pitting edema is d/t what

A

fluid issues/ overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

indications of pallor

A

anemia, shock, lack of blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cyanosis

A

bluish discoloration
in darker skin tones pt can turn yellow-brown or grey
-check nail beds, lips, mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

indications of cyanosis

A

hypoxia, impaired venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Jaundice
characteristics/indications

A

yellow discoloration
look at sclera, mucus membranes
indicates liver dysfunction (RBC distruction)
-can look at palms of hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

erythema

A

redness
-in darker sin tones palpate skin as well to look for warmth and texture changes
-looks at face, skin pressure prone areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

indications for erythema

A

inflammation, vasodilation, sun exposure, elevated body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

risk factors for impaired skin integrity

A

impaired sensory perception
impaired mobility
ALOC
shearing
friction
moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

shearing of skin

A

affecting DEEPER levels of skin

sliding movement of skin and SQ tissue when muscle and bone are NOT MOVING

Ex: head of bed is elevated, patient slides down in bed, skin is stuck to where it was but underlying tissues move

-affects underlying tissue capillaries (stretched/damaged, leading to ischemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

friction

A

affecting OUTER layer of skin

two surfaces moving across one another

Ex: pulling a patient up in bed w/o draw sheet, or patient moves against draw sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how does moisture affect skin integrity?

A

it softens your skin making it more susceptible to damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what kind of patients are at risk for impaired skin integrity

A
  1. older adults with trauma
  2. spinal cord injuries
  3. nutritional deficits
  4. those in long term homes
  5. Acutely ill
  6. hospice
  7. DM
  8. ICU pt / critical care Pt
  9. incontinence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what areas are most prone to pressure ulcers

A

back of head, upper back/shoulders, elbows, inner knees, coccyx, heels

other considerations: pts with nasal cannulas on (inside nostrils/behind ears)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tissue ischemia

A

pressure applied over a capillary that exceeds normal capillary pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

three major factors involved in pressure injury development

A
  1. pressure intensity
  2. pressure duration
  3. tissue tolerance (depends on low blood pressure, poor nutrition, aging, hydration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

deep tissue injury

A

persistent non-blanchable deep red/maroon/purple discoloration
cannot tell what layers are involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

blanchable vs non-blanchable

A

blanchable: skin turns red when pressure is relieved
non-blanchable: redness does not occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

unstageable injury

A

obscured by infection or dying skin (sloughing/eschar), cannot determine involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

different types of MASD (moisture associated skin damage)

A
  1. incontinence associated dermatitis
  2. intertriginous dermatitis (moist skin rubbing against each other, monitor groin/axillary area)
  3. periwound moisture associated skin damage
  4. peristomal moisture associated skin damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

acute wound

A

-normal timely repair
-return to normal function/anatomical integrity

Ex: trauma/surgical incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

chronic wound

A

-wound fails to heal normally
-does not return to normal function/anatomical integrity

Ex: pressure ulcer, wound d/t vascular insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what affects skin and wound healing

A

-nutrition (protein, Vit A/C, zinc, copper critical for healing. along with adequate caloric intake)
-tissue perfusion
-infection
-age/ loss of skin tugor
-loss of collagen
-overall wellness
-decreased WBC
-medications (steroids/ chemo/antiinflamatory)
-low Hgb
-chronic dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what labs do you need to looks at for the nutritional status of a patient?

A

albumin
pr-albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what kind of patients are at risk for poor tissue perfusion, leading to poor wound healing?

A

diabetics
PVD pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which patient is most likely to experience delayed wound healing?
A. patient with high WBC
B. a 25 y/o male with no pertinent medical history
C. a 30 year old female who takes vitamin supplements everyday
D. A 85 year old male with DM

A

D. age can lead to slowed healing due to delayed inflammatory responses and delayed collagen synthesis. DM can cause poor perfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what does a low braden risk assessment scale indicate?

A

low score= higher risk for skin impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

integumentary interventions

A

nutrition
incontinence/moisture management
positioning /mobilization
pressure prevention pads
Z-flow pillow
heel protectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which patient will not have a high chance of impaired wound healing?
A. a patient with PVD
B. a patient that is dehydrated with tenting of the skin
C. a patient with T1 DM
D. a patient admitted for constipation but now has regular GI movements
E. a 95 year old patient with decreased mobility

A

D. would not have a a higher chance to impaired wound healing, if his GI track was impaired and he was not absorbing nutrients adequately then he could.

rationale:
A. decreased circulation
B. loss of skin turgor / dehydration / decreased nutrients
C. impaired immune function
E. age/ mobility (age also causes decreases collagen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

three key components of wound management

A
  1. assessment
  2. cleansing
  3. protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

wound assessment

A

-appearance: red/yellow/black
-length/width/depth
sinus tracts, tunnels, redness/swelling
-closed wounds: skin edges should be well approximated (staples/ sutures/adhesives)
-drains/tubes present
-pain around incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how to measure wounds

A

centimeters, chart in respect to a clock
first measure: head to toe
second: side to side
third: depth
note tunneling/undermining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what to document for wound drainage

A

amount of drainage
odor
consistency
color
integrity of surrounding skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

for accurate measurement, weight the dressing
1 g = __mL

A

1 mL

*or just state:s cant, moderate, large, copious amt of drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

exudate color

A

serous drainage: watery clear
sanguineous: serum w/ red blood cells, thick/appears reddish
serosanguinous: serum an blood, watery, looks pale/pink
purulent: result of infection. WBC/tissue debris/bacteria. can be yellow, tan, green or brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

nursing interventions for patients with wounds

A

-hydration and nutrition (2.5 L fluid a day, protein, carbs, vitamins)
-monitor albumin/ pre-albumin
-wound cleansing
-remove sutures/staples
-administer pain meds
-give Abx
-monitor for effectiveness
-document descriptively and thoroughly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

non-adherent wound dressing

A

to not breakdown skin integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

hydrogel wound dressing

A

mostly water, gels after contact with excudate, promotes autolytic debridment, rehydrates and fills dead space

-may need secondary occlusive dressing
-not for wounds that drain a lot
-prevents skin breakdown i high pressure areas
-for infected deep wounds or necrotic tissue

48
Q

hydrocolloid would dressing

A

occlusive dressing that swells in presence of exudate

49
Q

self-adhesive/transparent wound dressing

A

temporary second skin

50
Q

wet to dry wound dressing

A

used to mechanically debrid a wound until granulation tissue starts to form

51
Q

alginate wound dressing

A

nonadherent
conform to wound shape
absorb exudate

52
Q

collagen powders/pastes/gels are used for what?

A

to promote wound healing
-need an order for

53
Q

wound vacs

A

-foam with occlusive dressing to create negative pressure
-helps with tissue generation, decreases swelling, enhances healing in moist and protective environment
-good for excessive draining
-need an order with set pressure

54
Q

what are some different complications of surgical wounds that can occur?

A

adhesions, contractions, hemorrhage, dehiscence, evisceration, fistula formation, infection, excessive granulation tissue, keloid formation

55
Q

when is a patient at greatest risk for hemorrhaging ?

A

24-48 hours after injury or surgery

56
Q

what can cause a patient to hemorrhage (in regards to surgical wounds) ?

A

clot dislodgment, slipped suture, blood vessel damage

57
Q

how does internal bleeding present?

A

swelling, distention, sanguineous drainage, increased HR, lower BP

58
Q

hematoma

A

red/blue bruise
local area of blood collection
can be hard/firm or soft

59
Q

wound hemorrhaging emergency protocol

A

apply pressure dressing
notify HCP
monitor VS

60
Q

dehiscence

A

partial/ total separation of suture wound

-can include separation of underlying skin
-RF: obesity, infection
**dont re-suture, pack area with gauze usually

61
Q

evisceration

A

visceral organs come out of wound opening

-normally d/t traumatic event

62
Q

eviscerations manifestations

A

-increase flow of serosanguinous fluid
-h/o sudden straining
-sudden change in “popping or giving way” of wound area
-visualization on viscera

63
Q

RF for dehiscence and evisceration

A

chronic Dz
advanced age
obesity
invasive abdominal cancer
vomiting
excessive straining, coughing, sneezing
dehydration
malnourished
ineffective suturing
abdominal surgery
infection

64
Q

nursing management for dehiscence and evisceration

A

notify provider immediately (surgical intervention needed)
stay with patient
cover wound/organs with sterile towels or sterile dressings soaked in normal saline
DO NOT ATTEMPT to reinsert organs
supine position
stay calm
keep patient NPO

65
Q

which method wound be correct when caring for a patient with a severe dehiscence or evisceration?
A. covering the area with a dry sterile towel
B. covering area with a sterile dressing soaked in NS
C. re-inserting the organs to prevent further damage to them
D. leave the viscera where it is, do not intervene, it can cause further harm. keep them hydrated with PO water until physician arrives

A

B. use sterile dressings soaked in NS

66
Q

RF for infection with surgical wounds

A

age extremes, immune suppression, impaired circulation/oxygenation, wound condition & nature, malnutrition, chronic Dz, poor wound care

67
Q

first step of a neurological assessment?

A

ABC’s
is the patient neurologically intact enough to breath on their own

68
Q

three main components of a basic euro exam

A
  1. general survey
  2. LOC
  3. orientation (person, place, time, situation)
69
Q

what kind of patients need neuro assessment?

A

h/o neuro disorder/Dz
neurological change
neuro abnormal finding
trauma
drug-induced states
neurological complaints

70
Q

whenever there is a neurological issue we always want to rule out the four H’s (that are the most common causes of neuro changes), what are they?

A

hypoxia
hypoglycemia
hypotension
hypoventilation

71
Q

what are some elements that need to be reviewed in a focused neuro assessment

A

subjective data, mental status, mood, memory, behavior, LOC, reflexes, sensations, coordination, proprioception, GCS, pupils, visual fields, muscle strength, speech, swallowing, gag

72
Q

lethargic/ somnolent

A

not fully awake
drift off to sleep when not stimulated
drowsy
awakens to name
slow to respond but respond appropriately

73
Q

obtunded

A

sleeps most of the time
difficult to arouse
confused when aroused
mumbled speech or incoherent
requires constant stimulation

74
Q

stupor/ semi-comatose

A

spontaneously unconscious
responds only to vigorous shake or pain
groans
mumbles
do not stay awake

75
Q

comatose

A

no meaningful response to stimuli
no purposeful movement

76
Q

GCS/EMV

A

eye (4)
motor (6)
verbal (5)
possible score: 3-15

77
Q

brain injury classification for GCS scale

A

severe: GCS of 8 or less
moderate: 9-12
mild : 13-15

78
Q

proprioception

A

recognizing where your limbs are in space
-rubbing heel on opposite leg

79
Q

coordination

A

rapid alternating movement
-touching thumb to each finger on the same hand quickly

80
Q

what is the main goal for the plan of care with a patient who has neurological deficits

A

protect status and maintain safety

secondary: assist patient in gaining independence

81
Q

care issues with neurologically complicated patient

A

elimination
moving
skin complications
sensory function (hearing/vision)
pain management
controlled environment (limit disturbances)
incorporate pt and family in care

82
Q

know seizure precautions

A

suction
O2
rail protectors / pads
IV placed

83
Q

why would a skull XR be ordered

A

look at bones of skull
mainly in children
not ordered often anymore

84
Q

why would a spinal XR be ordered

A

first step in evaluating back/neck pain
traumatic injuries
usually done before CT or MRI

85
Q

if a patient is in C-spine precautions and has a C-collar on, can it stay on when getting an XR of the head/neck?

A

yes, it has to stay on

86
Q

CT scan

A

3D
info about organs, bones and tissues

87
Q

when would contract be used/needed in a CT?

A

to check circulation, IV contrast
PO contrast can be used to check GI

88
Q

nursing considerations for CT scan

A

informed consent (CTA)
allergies to iodine (CTA)
diet orders (possible NPO)
claustrophobic
removing metal

89
Q

contrast

A

PO/rectal/IV
helps distinguish selected parts of the body from surrounding tissue
can be iodine based
CTA=CT angiogram (force fluids, monitor for allergic reactions, monitor kidneys)

90
Q

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

A

3D imaging fron a 2D slice
more detailed
no exposure to radiation
expensive, last resort
remove all metal, screen for metal
remove medicated patches

91
Q

EEG (electroencephalogram)

A

primarily used to Dx seizures
monitors brains electrical activity
can confirm brain death
use special conduction paste to stick to skull

92
Q

factors influencing sensory function

A

age
meaningful stimuli
amount of stimuli
social interactions
environmental factors
cultural factors

93
Q

what are the three main sensory alterations we need to know?

A

sensory deficits
sensory deprivation
sensory overload

94
Q

common visual sensory deficits

A

presbyopia
cataracts
computer vision syndrome
dry eyes
glaucoma
diabetic retinopathy
macular degeneration

95
Q

what are some hearing deficits ?

A

presbycusis
cerumen accumulation

96
Q

balance deficits

A

dizziness
disequilibrium

97
Q

taste deficits

A

xerostomia (thicker mucus, dry mouth)

98
Q

tactile deficits

A

peripheral neuropathy
CNS injury
extremity injuries

99
Q

expressive aphasia

A

inability to name common objects or express ideas

100
Q

receptive aphasia

A

inability to understand written or spoken language

101
Q

when caring for a patient with vision deficits, what are some nursing considerations?

A

announce presence
stay in field of vision
speak in warm, pleasant tones
explain care prior to staring care
orient to room
keep paths clear
put items in reach
assist with ambulation
encourage use of corrective devices
teaching material in large red/orange print

102
Q

caring for a patient with auditory deficits

A

check cerumen impaction
amplify sounds
ad flashing lights for safety
slow speech in normal tones
communication boards
short sentences
augment teaching with written material
educate and ensure proper use of hearing aids

103
Q

nursing considerations for taste and smell deficits

A

well seasoned food
separate textured foods
secure most appealing foods
stimulate smells when appropriate
limit strong odors/flavors
have them eat slowly
dont blend foods

104
Q

patients with reduced olfaction (no smell) teaching points

A

check smoke detectors
check food dates and appearance before eating
danger of cleaning with chemicals
gas appliances

105
Q

caring for patients with tactile deficits

A

touch therapy
turning/ repositioning
Pt can have hyperesthesia (minimize irritation stimuli)
adaptions for tactile sensations (water temp./ ice and heat therapy should be avoided/ shoes well fitted, check feet daily)

106
Q

caring for pt with communication deficits

A

patience
normal tone
simple short questions/gestures (receptive aphasia)
yes/now questions or communication board (expressive aphasia)
sign language

107
Q

sensory deprivation causes

A

isolation
loss/impairment of senses
confinement
emotional disorders
brain injury

108
Q

effects of sensory deprivation (3)

A
  1. cognitive: reduced capacity to learn, inability to problem solve, confused, disoriented, decreased attention span
  2. affective: emotions and mood
  3. perceptual : changes in vision and coordination, less tactile accuracy, changes in spaces and time judgement
109
Q

nursing care for sensory deprivation

A

opportunity for stimuli
meaningful interactions, well timed
tactile stimulation
reorientation
encourage visitors/ social stimulation
environment changes
assistive devices

110
Q

what are some causes of sensory overload?

A

pain
lack of sleep
ICU care
visitors / staff

111
Q

sensory overload can often be confused with what?

A

mood swings or disorientation

112
Q

sensory overload symptoms

A

fatigue/ sleepiness
disorientation
scattered. restlessness/ anxiety

113
Q

care for a patient going through sensory overload

A

orient
control stimuli (ear plugs, dark glasses)
uninterrupted periods
schedule (routine of care)
visitor control
provide new info gradually

114
Q

migraines

A

recurring HA characterized by UNILATERAL throbbing pain
-common in females
-usually has premonitory Sx (aura)

115
Q

caring for a patients with headaches

A

r/o intracranial or extracranial Dz (injury, tumor etc..)
meds: NSAIDS, Tylenol, aspirin, combo drugs
-triptan for migraines
high flow O2 for pts with cluster HA