wk 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three main functions of blood?

A

Transportation (oxygen, nutrients, waste)
Balance (pH, temperature, water)
Protection (immune defense, clotting).

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2
Q

What are the percentages of blood components?

A

55% plasma, 1% buffy coat (WBCs, PLTs), 45% RBCs.

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3
Q

What hormone stimulates RBC production? Where is it made?

A

Erythropoietin (EPO), made by the kidney; stimulates bone marrow stem cells.

Reduced in kidney failure, HIV/AIDS, cancers, RA.

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4
Q

What is the structure of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)?

A

HbF = 2 alpha, 2 gamma chains; higher oxygen affinity than adult hemoglobin (2 alpha, 2 beta chains).

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5
Q

What are the roles of WBC types?

A

Neutrophils = bacteria;
Eosinophils = parasites, allergies;
Lymphocytes = viruses + tumors;
Monocytes = macrophages;
Basophils = small %, hypersensitivity reaction with food or drugs, ATTRACT OTHER WBCS

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6
Q

What are atypical lymphocytes a key indicator of?

A

Infectious mononucleosis, often the first sign of EBV infection.

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7
Q

What is the CBC Rule of 3s?

A

RBC x 3 ≈ Hemoglobin x 3 ≈ Hematocrit.

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8
Q

What does MCV measure, and why is it important?

A

Measures RBC size; microcytic (<80), normocytic (80-100), macrocytic (>100).

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9
Q

What does RDW indicate?

A

Variation in RBC size (anisocytosis); high RDW = greater variation, often seen in anemia.

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10
Q

Who is the universal blood donor and recipient?

A

O- = universal donor; AB+ = universal recipient.

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11
Q

What happens if an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive baby?

A

Antibodies against Rh+ develop, leading to erythroblastosis fetalis in later pregnancies.

RH negative mother has Rh positive baby = antibodies can build against Rh + blood =
erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn) = problem for 2nd Rh + baby,
Rhogam is given after delivery to prevent development of these antibodies

Prevented with Rhogam postpartum or during pregnancy.

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12
Q

What is TRALI, and how is it managed?

A

Transfusion-related acute lung injury:
- transfused product has anti-HLA or anti-neutrophil antibodies

sx: FEVER, HYPOTENSION, dyspnea, hypoxemia, bilateral chest infiltrates

Stop transfusion immediately, manage airway, supplemental O2

MCC of death associated with transfusions

MCC of transfusion-related death.

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13
Q

What is TACO, and how does it differ from TRALI?

A

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload: dyspnea, edema, HYPERTENSION (volume overload signs, no immune reaction)
- Manage with slow transfusion, diuretics.
- often occurs in
elderly and chronically anemic
- TRALI= hypotension; FEVER

Common in elderly, chronically anemic.

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14
Q

What defines anemia?

A

Decreased RBC count, hemoglobin, or hematocrit, reducing oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.

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15
Q

What are reticulocytes, and what do they indicate?

A

precursor to RBC, have remnant genetic material. Retic counts measure
the rate of RBC production by the bone marrow, appear as polychromasia on a wright
stained blood smear

Appear as polychromasia on Wright stain.

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16
Q

How are platelets (PLTs) formed?

A

From megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.

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17
Q

What organ is at greatest risk in hemolytic anemia?

A

The kidney, due to hemoglobinuria.

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18
Q

What is the recommended hemoglobin level for transfusion?

A

<7 grams per deciliter in asymptomatic patients.

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19
Q

What are the lab findings in iron deficiency?

A

Serum Iron = low
Ferritin = Low *
Transferrin = High, TIBC = High,
*
Tsat = low,
UIBC = high,
RDW = high*
MCV < 80 -> microcytic hypochromic anemia.

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20
Q

What is iron deficiency anemia (IDA)? cause

A

MC type

causes: decreased intake, hemolysis, hemorrhage (most cases), increased utilization.

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21
Q

What are the symptoms of IDA?

A

Fatigue, pallor, poor concentration, syncope, weakness, dyspnea, angular cheilitis, koilonychia, pica, atrophic glossitis, aphthous ulcers, RLES.

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22
Q

What is the best treatment for iron replacement in IDA?

A

Oral ferrous sulfate is best for treating IDA.

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23
Q

What are the features of lead poisoning?

A

Mimics IDA; features Burton lines on gums, elevated ICP, learning/IQ issues, basophilic stippling; history of lead exposure critical.

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24
Q

What is hereditary hemochromatosis?

A

Autosomal recessive HFE mutation -> inc iron absorption, high ferritin, high Tsat.
Triad: hepatomegaly, skin hyperpigmentation, diabetes.

Managed with phlebotomy.

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25
Q

What defines macrocytic megaloblastic anemia? (b9 vs b12)

A

Folate (B9) deficiency: reduced intake of leafy greens and fortified veggies, absorption, metabolism, pregnancy utilization; risks: neural tube defects.

B12 deficiency: reduced intake of meats, absorption (needs intrinsic factor/terminal ileum), neurological symptoms (paresthesias); stored in liver. Intrisic factor important
for B12 absorption, done in terminal ileum, methylmalonic acid elevated, B12 stored in liver

26
Q

What are the lab findings in hemolytic anemia?

A

Inc reticulocytes, bilirubin, LDH; dec haptoglobin.

27
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant. ( membrane issue with spectrin and ankyrin)

Features: anemia, jaundice, dark colored urine, splenomegaly;

RBC shape: hyperchromic spherocytosis, reticulocytosis.
Increased MCHC (most reliable)

Osmotic fragility test positive.

negative coombs

tx: folic acid, splenectomy

28
Q

What is G6PD deficiency?

A

X-linked. Enzyme protects against oxidative stress. Hemolysis triggered by infections, medications, fava beans. Features: Heinz bodies, blister/bite cells.

new onset of fatigue, skin discoloaration, dark urine from starting sulfa drug

29
Q

What are the features of thalassemia? - name of ds based on number of deletions

A

○ If 1 gene missing = silent carrier
○ 2 genes missing = thalassemia trait
○ 3 genes missing/deleted (1 present) = Hemoglobin H disease (HbH inclusion
bodies, target cells) HbH is formed by beta globin tetramers (B4), tetramers precipitate as heinz bodies (golf ball looking) in RBCs and reduce lifespan of affected RBCs
○ 4 genes missing (0 present) = Hb BARTS (gamma globin tetrameres) Hydrops fetalis (alpha thal major)

Beta:
- minor = heterozygous, most are asymptomatic, mild anemia, increased Hb A2, Hb F

major = homozygous (severe anemia, skeletal deformities); increased Hb A2, Hb F

note:
- IDA: LOW HbF and HbA2

30
Q

What are the features of thalassemia? when to suspect

A

Autosomal recessive: decreased production of globin chains
- severe anemia if either major ds goes untreated
skeletal changes (ex. Chipmunk facies, pathological fx,
short stature)

suspect:
- microcytic hypochromic
- normal or increased serum iron
- normal or increased ferattin

31
Q

Thalassemia: how to differentiate Alpha vs beta

A

4 is normal # of alpha globin genes, differentiate from beta with Hb electrophoresis (normal levels of Hb A2 and F in A; B will have increased A2 and F)

Alpha:
- 1-2 genes: normal Hb ration = no tx
- 3 genes: Hb H (beta chain tetrameres); HEINZ BODIES
- 4: hb BART - GAMMA TETRAMERES (yyyy)

32
Q

What is sickle cell anemia?

A
  • Autosomal recessive disorder characterized by sickle-shaped cells.
  • Vaso-occlusion leads to tissue infarction and organ damage.
  • Normocytic with high reticulocytes (retics), RDW, and Howell-Jolly bodies present.
  • Caused by a point mutation in the B-globin chain of glutamic acid (glutamate) to valine.
  • Risks: Infection, dehydration, hypoxia, hemorrhage, and strenuous exercise.
33
Q

when do you see schistocytes?

A
  • hemolysis and microangiopathic diseases: DIC, TTP/HUS
  • TTP: schistocytes and polychromasia
34
Q

What is warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

IgG-mediated (‘Gas = warm’).
- autoimmune hemolytic anemia caused by circulating IgG antibodies against red blood cells (Rh antigen) that are active at ≥ 37°C
- Causes: primary = idiopathic; secondary = lupus, CLL, methyldopa.
Features: jaundice, splenomegaly.
Positive Coombs test (IgG and C3+)
Tx: steroids, splenectomy.

35
Q

What is cold agglutinin disease?

A

IgM-mediated (‘Mittens = cold’).
- against I antigen

Causes: primary = idiopathic; secondary = lymph disorders, infections.
Features: Raynaud’s, no splenomegaly.
Positive Coombs test ( C3+)
Tx: immunosuppressants (NO STEROIDS OR SPLENECTOMY)

36
Q

What vaccinations are required pre-splenectomy? what happens post splenectomy and how does this relate to howell jolly

A

Pre-splenectomy: pneumococcal, meningococcal, Hib vaccines (2 weeks prior).

(this is bc you are more susceptible to strep pneumoniae, Hae influenzae, and neisseria meningitidis)

Post splenectomy (asplenism) = pt. Is found to have Howell-Jolly bodies (or if they’re hyposplenic = sickle cell)

Howell jolly bodies:
- small dense basophilic RBC includsions (usually removed by spleen)
- found in things with decreased splenic function: sickle cell ds, severe hemolytic anemia, megaloblastic anemia

Post-splenectomy: Howell-Jolly bodies.

37
Q

What is the relationship between IDA and PUD?

A

PUD increases likelihood of IDA.

38
Q

What does Hb electrophoresis differentiate?

A

Differentiates IDA (low RBC count) vs. thalassemia (high RBC count).

39
Q

What are the risks of a sickle cell crisis?

A

Infection, dehydration, hypoxia, hemorrhage, strenuous exercise.

40
Q

What precautions should be taken for sickle cell anemia if on hydroxyrurea?

A

For sickle cell: avoid sick people, maintain strict hygiene.

41
Q

What is dactylitis in sickle cell anemia?

A

Swelling in hands/feet in infants; aka hand-foot syndrome.

42
Q

What are the risks associated with thalassemia major and frequent transfusion?

A

Frequent transfusions -> iron overload.

43
Q

What does a positive Coombs test for IgG indicate?

A

Positive for IgG in warm antibody-induced hemolysis.

44
Q

What are Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

Nuclear remnants in RBCs, seen post-splenectomy or in hyposplenic conditions (e.g., sickle cell anemia).

45
Q

What increases the likelihood of IDA in PUD?

A

Chronic blood loss from ulcers.

46
Q

Why is Hb electrophoresis important? for IDA vs thalassemia

A

Differentiates IDA (low RBC count) from thalassemia (high RBC count).

47
Q

What are the features of sickle cell crisis risks?

A

Infection, dehydration, hypoxia, hemorrhage, strenuous exercise.

48
Q

What are the therapies for sickle cell anemia?

A
  • Chronic therapy: Hydroxyurea (Hydrea)
    -Blood transfusions are avoided due to hyperviscosity risk; exchange transfusions are reserved for severe cases (e.g., Acute Chest Syndrome).
49
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?

A
  • RBC breakdown leads to hemoglobin release in urine, causing dark-colored urine in the morning.
  • Acquired genetic mutation causing a membrane defect due to the absence of the PIG-A gene -> no cd55 or 59 - intravascular hemolysis
50
Q

What is aplastic anemia (AA)?

A
  • Can be caused by Parvovirus B19 during pregnancy, leading to severe complications for mother and fetus.
  • Bone marrow transplantation is the gold standard treatment for AA.
51
Q

What is myelodysplasia (MDS)?

A

Acquired bone marrow disorders with abnormalities in all three myeloid lines. characterized by
- abnormal maturation of cells
- clonal hematopoeisis
- over 1 cytopenia
- precursure to AML

Symptoms include anemia, infection, and bleeding from pancytopenia
- Auer rods within blasts are uncommon but diagnostic of MDS with excess blasts
- Differs from AA with normal/increased marrow cellularity, often increased blasts, and positive megakaryocytes. but Blast percentage <20%.

think this in elderly with unexplained pancytopenia with hx of chemotherapy

52
Q

What are the features of myeloproliferative disorders?

A
  • Disorders involving one or more bone marrow cell lines, often associated with JAK2 mutation. (Polycythemia vera, essential thrombocytopenia, myelofibrosis).
53
Q

What are the features of polycythemia vera (PV)?

A

Over 95% have acquired mutations of JAK2, inc in all blood cells, can lead to strokes and organ damage, caused by a genetic mutation.
- Secondary can be caused by high altitude, pulm/cardio ds, etc.

  • pt can present with tiredness, depression, vertigo, tinnitus, visual disturbnce, HTN, angina, intermittent claud, bleeding, Itching after showers is common. -Thrombosis and hemorrhage are the main complications.
  • Phlebotomy and Hydrea are used to keep Hct below 45% and PLT count under 400k, Aspirin also important in Mx.
54
Q

What are the features of essential thrombocythemia (ET)?

A

PLT elevated, get thromboembolic issues
- JAK 2 mutation tests are useful but is present in much lower % of cases that PV.
- A person who has a very high PLT count (> 1 mil microL), who is clinically normal and in good health probably has ET.
- > 450k is the criteria for ET tho, itchiness is very uncommon unlike PV, can see livedo reticularis, atypical chest pain.
- Tx is with hydroxyurea to control PLT count to less than 400k.

55
Q

What are the features of myelofibrosis?

A

Increased fibrosis in bone marrow, fullness in upper abdomen, can see massive splenomegaly, tear drop shaped RBCs (dacrocytes), anemia with leukoerythroblastic features.
- JAK mutation present, splenectomy can be helpful.
- Overall = enlarged liver/spleen, impaired blood cell production from build up of fibrosis, and constitutional symptoms.

56
Q

What are the features of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?

A

Acquired d/o immune related destruction of PLT, children = acute, adults = chronic.

  • Characterized by mucocutaneous bleeding (ex. Oral mucosa) and a very low PLT count, otherwise normal peripheral smear.
  • Pt.’s present with bruising and petechiae.
  • Tx starts under 30k PLT = can use prednisone.
57
Q

What are the features of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

A

TTP = FAT RN”

Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.
- Primarily in Adults
- Presents with classic pentad = anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neuro findings, fever.

  • Related to deficiency of ADAMTS13 which cleaves VWF, levels < 10% more clearly assosc with idiopathic TTP.
  • ADAMTS13 deficiency -> increase in von Willebrand factor (like sticky paper) -> more platelet adhesion -> microthrombosis in vessels
  • ADAMTS13 tests are required for confirming dx,
  • < 10% is diagnostic of TTP, peripheral smear can have schistocytes and polychromasia.
  • Plasma exchange therapy is Tx of choice, Rituximab if that fails.
58
Q

What are the features of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

A
  • Acute renal failure, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia.
  • E.COLI O157:H7,
  • cytotoxic effect of shiga toxins.
  • Primarily in children,
  • Diarrhea is a common finding, hematuria, thrombosis, significant purpura,
  • Tx primarily supportive.
59
Q

What are the features of HIT1 and HIT2?

A

HIT 1 - non immune related, 1-4 days after, resolves spontaneously when heparin is stopped.

HIT 2 - Immune mediated, 5-14 days after, may cause serious thromboembolic consequences, heparin MUST be discontinued.

60
Q

What defines myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A

Bone marrow 15% blasts reduced erythropoesis

Bone marrow with <20% blasts, reduced erythropoiesis, and abnormal blood cell production.