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1
Q

True or false - cats can develop perianal adenoma/perianal adenocarcinoma

A

False - don’t have perianal sebaceous glands

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2
Q

Development and progression of perianal adenomas is _____ with growth stimulated by ______ and suppressed by _____

A

Sex hormone-dependent androgens estrogens

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3
Q

Perianal adenomas in female dogs occur almost exclusively in ______

A

spayed animals - have low estrogen = no tumor suppression

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4
Q

T/F: Perianal adenocarcinomas are hormonally dependent?

A

False

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5
Q

Rate of metastasis for perianal adenocarcinomas

A

Low, <15%

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6
Q

Most frequent sites of mets from perianal adenocarcinomas? Less frequent?

A

Regional LN and lungs; liver, kidney, bone

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7
Q

What five things are increased histologically/molecularly in perianal adenocarcinomas compared to adenomas?

A

Increased proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PNCA), apoptotic corpuscles, Ki67, VEGF, serum magnesium levels

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8
Q

What is needed to definitively tell perianal adenoma from adenocarcinoma?

A

Incisional bx

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9
Q

What IHC can help differentiate perianal adenoma from adenocarcinoma?

A

Monoclonal Ab against carcinoma-associated Ags 4A9, 1A10; PCNA, Ki67

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10
Q

What can help differentiate a perianal adenocarcinoma from AGASACA?

A

cytokeratin expression patterns

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11
Q

What margins can perianal adenomas be removed with?

A

Minimal margins, <1cm

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12
Q

Other than surgical removal of the primary tumor, what else is recommended for treatment in dogs with perianal adenomas?

A

Castration

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13
Q

What if a perianal adenoma is diffuse or too large to be removed? Treatment?

A

Surgical staging - castration first, may shrink tumor Cryosurgery CO2 laser ablation Hyperthermia RT ECT

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14
Q

What is the repoarted response rate for perianal adenomas treated with ECT

A

>90%, 65% CR

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15
Q

Do perianal adenocarcinomas respond to castration?

A

Nope

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16
Q

What has a significant influence of DFI and OSTs for dogs with perianal adenocarcinoma?

A

Stage of tumor - T2 tumors (<5cm) do better

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17
Q

2-year control rate for T2 perianal adenocarcinoma treated with surgery? Also, what is a T2 tumor?

A

<5cm >60%

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18
Q

MST for dogs with LN or distant mets from perianal adenocarcinoma

A

7mo (but aggressive therapy not pursed for most dogs)

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19
Q

What breeds have an increased risk of AGASACA?

A

Spaniels (particularly English cocker spaniels) German Shepherds Alaskan malamutes Dachshunds

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20
Q

Gender/neuter status assoc. with risk of AGASACA?

A

Neutering may be associated with increased risk for males

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21
Q

What are the three histologic patterns of AGASACA?

A

Solid Tubules/Rosettes/Pseudorosettes Papillary

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22
Q

Which are the most common histologic patterns of AGASACA

A

solid and tubules/rosettes/pseeudorosettes in 95%

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23
Q

What is the rate of bilateral AGASACA (simultaneously or temporally separated)

A

up to 14%

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24
Q

Rate of paraneoplastic hypercalcemia in dogs with AGASACA?

A

16-53%

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25
Q

Mediator of hypercalcemia in canine AGASACA?

A

PTHrp from neoplastic tissue

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26
Q

Overall rate of mets for dogs with AGASACA? LN? Distant?

A

Overall: 26-96% LN 26-89% Distant 0-42%

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27
Q

What are the less common sites of AGASACA mets?

A

heart, omentum, stomach, adrenal glands, panc, kindeys, Ubladder, mediastinum

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28
Q

What has been associated histologically with risk of metastasis at diagnosis for canine AGASACA?

A

Marked peripheral infiltration into surrounding tissue, LV invasion, solid pattern

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29
Q

Does high or low levels of E-cadherin expression in AGASACA correlate with a better survival time?

A

Higher

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30
Q

Rate of mets from AG melanoma in dogs?

A

4/8 sublumbar LN, 1/11 pulmonary

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31
Q

Rate of mets from regional LN for feline AGASACA?

A

20%

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32
Q

Have bilateral AGASACA been reported in cats?

A

Nope

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33
Q

What percentage of dogs have an AGASACA be an incidental finding?

A

up to 47%

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34
Q

What is the most common clinical sign for cats with AGASACA?

A

Perineal ulceration or discharge

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35
Q

What IHC staining can confirm AGASACA dx if needed?

A

Cytokeratin pattern CK7+/CK14-

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36
Q

What was shown to be the only consistently abnormal feature of abdominal malignant LNs?

A

Size

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37
Q

What three LN centers can be involved in AGASACA

A

medial and internal iliac, sacral

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38
Q

What is the complication rate after local surgery for AGASACA and what is the most common complication?

A

5-24% wound dehisence, rectal perforation, rectocutaneous fistulation, incisional infection, transient fecal incontinence

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39
Q

What can help limit the complications of surgical removal of AGASACA

A

Smaller anoplasty - previous studies showed 40-60% rate of fecal incontinence when 120-270 degree anoplasties performed

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40
Q

Complication rate of LN extirpation for dogs with AGASACA?

A

0-12% - hemorrhage, uncresectable LN, LN rupture and abdominal wall dehisence

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41
Q

T/F: treatment of recurrent AGASACA or progressive nodal mets is not recommended for dogs as it does not improved survival

A

False

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42
Q

When can you pursue splenectomy for AGASACA?

A

If confirmed mets to spleen + context of slowly progressive dz and no other mets

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43
Q

What drugs have demonstrated antitumor activity in gross disease setting for AGASACA in dogs

A

carbo, cisplat, actinomycin D

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44
Q

Measurable response rates for dogs with AGASACA with bulky disease treated with RT (hypofx or fx protocols)?

A

38-75%

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45
Q

Over what radiation dose per fraction are late radiation side effects more likely to occur?

A

3Gy

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46
Q

Palliative RT protocols result in an improvement in clinical signs in up to ______, including resolution of____

A

up to 63% Obstipation

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47
Q

Palliative RT protocols can resolve ____% of hypercalcemic dogs with AGASACA. What improves this %?

A

RT alone 31% RT + Pred + bisphosphonate = 46% additional

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48
Q

Reported PFIs and MSTs for dogs treated with palliative RT for AGASACA?

A

PFI 10-11 mo MST 8-15mo

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49
Q

Is rate of local recurrence for dogs treated with AGASACA related to the completeness of excision?

A

Nope

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50
Q

What is associated with a shorter median DFI for dogs with AGASACA treated with surgery (across multiple studies)

A

LN mets: 134-197d vs. 529-760d if not

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51
Q

Est. 1 and 2 yr survival rates for dogs with AGASACA

A

65%, 29%

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52
Q

Poor prognostic factors for AGASACA in dogs (10)

A

Primary tumor size, presence of clinical signs, presence of LN mets, size of LN mets, distant mets, no surgery, tx with chemo alone, E-cadherin expression, solid histo type; hypercal in some.

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53
Q

PFI and OST for dogs treated for AG melanoma with a variety of treatments?

A

3mo, 3.5mo

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54
Q

MST for cats with AGASACA treated with surgically +/- chemo and/or RT?

A

260d

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55
Q

Poor prognostic factors for survival in cats with AGASACA

A

local tumor recurrence Increased nuclear pleomorphic score (2 or 3)

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56
Q

What bioactive substances to MC’s contain?

A

Heparin, histamine, TNF-alpha and proteases

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57
Q

What can MCs rapidly produce when stimulated?

A

Chymase, tryptase, cytokines (TNF alpha, IL6) chemokines (CCL2, CXCL1) VEGF, basic fibroblast growth factor, prostaglindin D2, leukotriene C4

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58
Q

What was found to be a risk factor for golden retrievers with MCT?

A

polymorphisms in the GNAI2 gene and multiple genes assoc with hyaluronic acid synthesis

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59
Q

Alterations in expression of what cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors have been identified in a many canine MCTs?

A

p21 and p27

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60
Q

What is KIT normally expressed on?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells, melanocytes and MCs

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61
Q

What does KIT bind and what does this cause?

A

SCF binds KIT –> KIT dimerization –> phosphorylation –> intracellular signaling –> proliferation, differentiation and maturation of normal MCs

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62
Q

What is essential for the differentiation of mature MC from CD34+ stem cells?

A

SCF (stem cell factor)

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63
Q

The juxtamembrane domains of kit are

A

exon 11-12

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64
Q

The extracellular domains of KIT are

A

exon 8-9

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65
Q

What do KIT mutations cause?

A

SCF-independent activation of KIT –> unregulated KIT signal transduction

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66
Q

c-kit mutations are associated with ____% of canine intermediate and high grade MCTS

A

25-30%

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67
Q

CNVs ( copy number variation) have been associated with (high/low) MCTs

A

High

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68
Q

MCTs with kit mutations showed aberrant CNVs involving what genes?

A

p53 and rB pathways

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69
Q

What drug metabolism and cell cycle pathways have been shown to correlated with cure from surgery vs. death from MCT?

A

solute carrier transporter and UDP glucuronosyltransferase gene families

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70
Q

What four stress response proteins are significantly upregulated in high-grade MCT

A

HSPA9 PDIA3 TCP1A TCP1E

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71
Q

Over expression of what micro-RNA was associated with MCT metastasis?

A

micro-RNA-9

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72
Q

What percent of dogs present with multiple MCTs?

A

11-14%

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73
Q

What is the behavior of primary GI MCT in dogs?

A

Aggressive - 40% alive at 30d , <10% alive at 6mo

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74
Q

GI ulceration has been documented in ____% of dogs undergoing necropsy

A

35-83% (may be selecting for higher grade tumors because necropsy)

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75
Q

What does histamine released from MCT act on?

A

H2 receptors on parietal cells –> increased HCl

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76
Q

In addition to high plasma histamine concentrations, dogs with MCT can also have decreased plasma ____ levels

A

Gastrin - normally released by antral G cells in response to increased gastric HCl

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77
Q

What mediates the hypotensive effects in humans with MC diseases?

A

Prostaglandins in the D series

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78
Q

What is the most consistent and reliable prognostic factor for canine MCT?

A

Grade

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79
Q

What is the long term survival rate for well-diffentiated and intermediate grade MCT after complete surgical excision

A

well-differentiated 80-90% Intermediate 75%

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80
Q

What is the metastatic rate for undifferentiated MCT

A

range 55%-96%

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81
Q

What locations are associated with high grade/worse prognosis for canine MCT

A

subungual, oral, mucous membranes scrotal and preputial visceral or bone marrow = grave

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82
Q

Microvessel density has been associated with what in canine MCT

A

Higher grade, higher degree of invasiveness, worse prognosis

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83
Q

What is the Bostock Grading system for canine MCT

A

Same as patnaik except numbers reversed (i.e. high grade = grade 1 on bostock, low grade = grade 3 on Bostok)

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84
Q

What stain can determine the AgNOR score?

A

silver colloid staining

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85
Q

What markers of proliferation have been associated with biologic behavior of MCT? Which is the least consistent

A

Ki67, AgNOR, PCNA PCNA least consistent

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86
Q

What mitotic index cutoff is associated with MST in dogs with MCT?

A

MI <5 MST >5 3mo; <5 80mo

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87
Q

What are the three distinct ckit patterns

A

membrane, focal/stippled diffuse cytoplasmic

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88
Q

The presence of c-kit activating mutations has been associated with what in canine MCT?

A

higher rate of local recurrence, metastasis, death from disease

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89
Q

What percent of dogs with MCT on the muzzle present with regional LN mets?

A

50-60% but doesn’t mean worse prognosis MST w/ mets = 14mo

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90
Q

What is associated with a more aggressive behavior for canine SQ MCT

A

MI >4, infiltrative growth pattern, presence of multinucleation

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91
Q

What is the prognosis for dogs with conjunctival MCT?

A

Good - no dogs in the study looking at this died from the MCT

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92
Q

What IHC are MCTs positive for?

A

Vimentin, tryptase CD117 (KIT) +/- chymase, MCP-1 and IL-8

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93
Q

How does ultrasound or CT analysis of either MCT or STS change tumor margins planned at surgery?

A

Ultrasound upgraded tumor margins in 19%, CT upgraded margins in 65%

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94
Q

What other conditions can cause a peripheral mastocytosis (1-90MCs/uL)?

A

acute inflammatory disease (parvo), inflammatory skin disease, regenerative anemia, neoplasia other than MCT and trauma; may be more dramatic in other diseases than in MCT

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95
Q

What was the incidence of bone marrow involvement at the time of diagnosis in dogs with MCT?

A

2.8%

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96
Q

What was the incidence of bone marrow involvement and mastocytosis in dogs with visceral MCT?

A

Bone marrow 56% mastocytosis 37%

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97
Q

Adjuvant RT is associated with what 2-yr control rates for stage 0, low or intermediate grade MCT

A

85-95%

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98
Q

What is the general rate of recurrence for incompletely excised MCT? what may be associated in predicting likelihood of recurrence?

A

10-30%; proliferation indicies Ki67/PCNA

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99
Q

Is adjuvant steroid or antihistamine therapy beneficial for cases of intermediate MCT that have been excised or treated with RT?

A

Nope

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100
Q

What are the three distinct syndromes for feline MCT?

A

Cutaneous, splenic/visceral and intestinal

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101
Q

What % of cutaneous and splenic/visceral feline MCT had c-kit mutations? What exons were these primarily present in

A

exons 8/9

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102
Q

Which subtype of feline cutaneous MCT may spontaneously regress?

A

Histiocytic MCT (vs. mastocytic MCT)

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103
Q

The histiocytic form of cMCT is more likely to occur in what signalment cat?

A

Young, siamese (male depending on study); usually presents with multiple masses that may be ulcerated (head/neck usually)

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104
Q

What are the two types of mastocytic cMCT in cats?

A

Compact (50-90% of cases) vs. diffuse (anaplastic)

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105
Q

Systemic mastocytosis does/does not occur in healthy or ill-from something other than a MCT in cats

A

does not

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106
Q

What percent of cats may present with positive buffy coats? What form of MCT is this usually associated with?

A

43%, usually splenic/visceral

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107
Q

What IHC markers are feline MCT usually positive for

A

Vimentin, alpha-1 antitrypsin and KIT

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108
Q

What other organs are frequently affected by splenic/visceral MCT?

A

liver (90%), LN (73%), bone marrow (40%), lung (20%)

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109
Q

What is the survival for cats undergoing splenectomy for splenic/visceral MCT

A

12-19mo even with bone marrow involvement

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110
Q

What are the 3 MC related diseases in people?

A

Cutaneous mastocytosis (benign, young children, spontaneous regression systemic mastocytosis - 4 subtypes extracutaneous MCT

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111
Q

What KIT mutation is most common in people with MC disease

A

point mutation in exon 17 - induces ligand-independent activation; exons 8 and 11 also identified

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112
Q

Are KIT inhibitors (imatinib, nilotinib, dasatinib) effective for treatin human MC diseases?

A

Not usually - inhibiting phosphorylation of KIT on exon 17 is challenging

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113
Q

The most common brain tumors in dogs are:

A

meningtiomas (45%), gliomas (40%) choroid plexus tumors (5%)

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114
Q

What gene locus is strongly associated with glioma in multiple breeds

A

CFA 26

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115
Q

Single nucleotide variants ____ ____ and ___ have been shown to be strongly associated with glioma

A

DENR, CAMKK2, P2RX7

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116
Q

What are the most common secondary brain tumors in cats?

A

LSA and pituitary

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117
Q

What is the most common clinical manifestation of intracranial neoplasia in dogs?

A

Seizures - 50% of dogs with forebrain tumors

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118
Q

What percentage of cats will present with seizures for brain tumors? Which tumor type is this more common for?

A

25%; glioma and LSA > meningioma

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119
Q

What is the most frequently reported clinical signs in cats with brain tumors?

A

Behavior change - 16-67% of cats

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120
Q

What is the most common clinical manifestation of brain tumors affecting the brainstem?

A

central vestibular signs

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121
Q

What percent of cats with meningiomas present with multiple tumors?

A

20%

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122
Q

What is the unique method that choroid plexus carcinomas can metastasize via?

A

Drop metastases - cancer cells exfoliated into the subarachnoid space or ventricular system with distant implantation of tumor foci

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123
Q

What is the rate of dogs with simultaneous and unrelated tumors in dogs with primary brain tumors?

A

3-23%

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124
Q

Meningiomas are extra or intra axial

A

extraaxial

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125
Q

What is the overall sensitivity of MR to identify canine meningiomas

A

60-100%, but specific subtype and grade can’t be determined

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126
Q

What pattern is associated with gliomas on MR?

A

“Ring enhancing” - circular ring of contrast enhancement surrounding nonenhancing abnormal tissue

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127
Q

What brain diseases can cause a ring enhancing pattern

A

GLIOMA, but also other neoplasia, vascular and inflammatory brain disease

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128
Q

What are the most common brain tumors in the intraventricular location

A

choroid plexus tumors and ependymomas

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129
Q

What is the overall safety and success rate for minimally invasive brain biopsy (MIBB)?

A

diagnostic yields ~95%, <5% risk of serious AEs

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130
Q

Most feline meningiomas are grade ____ compared to grade _____ in dogs

A

grade 1 in cats; up to 40% atypical grade II in dogs

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131
Q

Nearly 50% of canine CPTs are found in ______

A

the fourth ventricular region

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132
Q

A CSF total protein concentration greater than ____ was exclusively associated with a diagnosis of choroid plexus carcinoma (vs. papilloma)

A

80mg/dL

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133
Q

Animals that have what feature on MRI are more likely to respond favorably to treatment with steroids?

A

Peritumoral vasogenic edema

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134
Q

What percent of canine and feline meningiomas are identified incidentally?

A

6-19%

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135
Q

Dogs with supra/infra- tentorial tumors have a better prognosis with palliative care than the other

A

Supratentorial = better, MST 25 wks w/ palliative treatment vs. 4wks for infratentorial

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136
Q

What is the current preferred primary mode of therapy for feline supratentorial meningiomas?

A

cytoreductive surgery

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137
Q

Survival time for cats with cerebral meningiomas treated surgically?

A

MST 23-27mo, usually over 2 yrs (but most recur)

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138
Q

Is surgery or RT better as a primary therapy for canine meningiomas

A

Trick question - both similar, one not superior to the other

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139
Q

The MST for dogs with VEGF expression of ____ had a longer MST than for dogs with VEGF expression of ____

A

≤75% of cells or fewer = 25mo >75% of cells = 15mo

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140
Q

What spinal cord tumors are extradural

A

OSA, chondro, FSA, plasmacytoma, MM, LSA, HSA

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141
Q

What spinal cord tumors are intradural-extramedullary

A

Meningioma, PNS, nephroblastoma, HS, LSA

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142
Q

What spinal cord tumors are intramedullary

A

Astrocytoma, ependymoma, oligodendroglioma, gliomatosis cerebri, HSA, TCC, LSA

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143
Q

Extradural tumors account for ~_____% of spinal cord and frequently arise from the _______

A

50%; vertebrae

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144
Q

What is the most common spinal cord tumor diagnosed in dogs and cats?

A

Meningiomas

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145
Q

80-90% of cats diagnosed with CNS LSA were seropositive for _____ historically. Newer data suggests ~56%

A

FeLV p27 antigen

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146
Q

What breeds are predisposed to nephroblastoma

A

Young German Shep. and golden retrievers

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147
Q

What breed is overrepresented in intraspinal meningiomas?

A

Boxers

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148
Q

What % of dogs with intramedullary spinal cord tumors present with paraspinal hyperpathia

A

68%

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149
Q

Nephroblastomas almost always are found between ____ spinal cord segments because _____

A

T9 and L2 because of the embryologic origin of the metanephric blastema from which they arise

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150
Q

Approximately 80% of canine nephroblastomas will demonstrate immunoreactivity to____

A

WT-1 (human nephroblastoma gene product)

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151
Q

What is the MST for palliative treatment of vertebral and spinal cord tumors?

A

0-105 d

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152
Q

What is the MST for dogs with intraspinal meningioma treated with surgery? What can increase this?

A

6-47mo Post-op Rt - MST 45mo

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153
Q

MST of cats treated with surgery for spinal meningiomas

A

6-17mo

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154
Q

Cats have a higher proportion of benign or malignant PNSTs than dogs?

A

benign

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155
Q

What is the most frequently affected cranial nerve for PNST in dogs?

A

Trigeminal nerve

156
Q

What is the most common spinal nerve roots affected by PNSTs in dogs?

A

Caudal cervical (C6-T2) followed by lumbar intumescence

157
Q

What are the signs of trigeminal PNSTs?

A

Severe, unilateral masticatory mm atrophy, diminished jaw tone, decreased facial sensation, Horners

158
Q

What % of brachial plexus tumors will have a palpable mass on PE?

A

33%

159
Q

Up to 50% of PNST will display only what on MRI

A

Only nerve thickening (w/o a discrete mass)

160
Q

What are negative prognostic indicators for dogs with PNST?

A

proximity to and invasion of the vertebral canal (occurs in 45% of tumors) and incomplete margins after surgery

161
Q

What is the overall MST for dogs with paraspinal and plexus PNST?

A

6mo

162
Q

What is the prognosis for cats with PNST

A

better - only low low percent recur after surgery

163
Q

What is the prognosis for dogs with trigeminal PNST treated with SRS or SRT

A

745d/441d

164
Q

What are the four most common skin and SQ tumors in cats?

A

Basal cell tumors, MCT, SCC and fibrosarcoma

165
Q

Papillomaviruses are only able to replicate in _____ cells

A

terminally differentiated cells

166
Q

What are the two main viral proteins from papillomavirus that lead to neoplastic transformation? What do that interact with?

A

E6 - destabalizes p53 E7 - inhibits pRB

167
Q

Disruption of p53 by papillomavirus protein can cause increased levels of ____ which is detectable with IHC

A

p16

168
Q

Canine papillomavirus has been associated with the development of ______

A

SCC - usually cutaneous

169
Q

What are PPVs associated with in cats?

A

Viral plaques - aka feline sarcoids

170
Q

PPV can be detected with IHC in most feline plaques - as the plaques progress to SCC, the ability to detect PPV ag increases/decreases

A

Decreases

171
Q

PPV is detected in more UV-protected or UV exposed areas of SCC in cats

A

UV-protected - up to 76% vs. 42% of UV exposed

172
Q

Basal cell carcinoma in people is thought to arise from critical mutations in what signaling pathway

A

Hedgehog

173
Q

What aberrant karyotypes have been found in feline basal cell tumors

A

Trisomy E2 and monosomy E2 - unknown significance

174
Q

____ staining is considered fairly specific for human BCC and was detected in 23/24 BCC in cats in one study

A

Bcl-2

175
Q

The presence of detectable ____ with IHC indicates mutations in the coding sequence and has been associated with what cutaneous tumor in cats and dogs

A

p53; SCC

176
Q

What does p27 do? What cancer type has lower levels of this compared to benign tumors?

A

protein thought important in maintaining cells in G0 SCC

177
Q

Nuclear activation of beta-catenin was detected in 100% of what skin tumor(s)

A

trichoepitheliomas and pilomatricomas

178
Q

Which cyclin is expressed in the majority of feline SCC and just under half of canine SCCs

A

cyclin A

179
Q

What is the causative mutation causing renal cystadenoma and nodular dermatofibrosis?

A

Birt-Hogg-Dube (BHD) gene

180
Q

What does the BHD gene code for?

A

Tumor suppressor protein folliculin

181
Q

What TKI has been associated with the rapid development of actinic keratosis and invasive SCC in people? What does this TKI inhibit?

A

Sorafenib - inhibitor of RAF and VEGF/PDGFR

182
Q

What markers are used to differentiate BCC from SCC in people

A

epithelial membrane protein BerEP4

183
Q

What dog breeds are at an increased risk for BCC

A

cocker spaniels, poodles

184
Q

What are the three histologic subtypes of BCC in dogs

A

solid, keratinizing and clear cell

185
Q

What is the behavior of BCC in dogs?

A

Low-grade malignancy; can recur but no reports of mets

186
Q

Where does BCC most commonly occur on cats?

A

Head and neck - can be pigmented, too!

187
Q

In patients with multiple papillomas, what drug may be effective

A

azithromycin

188
Q

What is actinic keratosis in cats?

A

SCC in situ that arises as a consequence of UV exposure (different from Bowens based on location and histo)

189
Q

Median DFI and MST for cats treated with surgery for a single nasal planum or pinna SCC?

A

DFI 594d, MST 675d

190
Q

What cream can be used to treat Bowens in cats?

A

Imiquimod 5%

191
Q

What topical cream was NOT effective for Bowens in cats

A

13-cis-retinoic acid

192
Q

For cats treated with photodynamic therapy for bowens, what is the response rate and what is prognostic?

A

RR up to 100% (used in people too) Clinical tumor stage

193
Q

What breeds of cats are at a DECREASED risk of SCC

A

Siamese, Himalayan and Persian

194
Q

What dog breeds have a predisposition for nasal planum SCC?

A

Labs and goldens

195
Q

what dog breeds are predisposed to cutaneous SCC

A

Poodles, bassets and blood hounds

196
Q

What paraneoplastic syndrome has been associated with cutaneous SCC in cats?

A

Hypercal - two had ear canal tumors, the other had multiple cutaneous tumors

197
Q

ECT with bleo for cats with cutaneous SCC has what CR rate and what survival range?

A

CR in 82%; survival 2mo - 3yrs

198
Q

What breeds of dogs are more likely to ket infundibular keratinizing acanthomas (IKAs)

A

Nordic breeds - Norwegian elkhouds, belgian sheepdogs, Lhasa apso, German Shep

199
Q

Surgery is the treatment of choice for IKA but what is an alternative option?

A

Isotretinoin (vitamin A derivative)

200
Q

Malignant trichoepitheliomas are also called____

A

matrical carcinoma

201
Q

What is the behavior of malignant trichoepithelioma?

A

Rare and only case reports but reports = highly metastatic to regional LN and lungs

202
Q

What breeds are more likely to get pilomatricomas

A

Kerry blue, soft-coated wheatens, Bouvier, poodles, sheepdogs, bichons, Airedales

203
Q

What is the behavior of malignant pilomatricoma

A

High metastatic potential - mets to lungs, bone, LN, mammary gland or skin in 11/12 dogs in one report

204
Q

What cutaneous tumors have adenxal differentiation? What does this mean

A

Arise from hiar follicle IKAs, tricholemmoma, trichoblastoma, trichoepithelioma, malig. trcihoepithel (matrical carcinoma), pilomatricoma/malignant pilomatricoma

205
Q

Where is the most common site for apocrine gland carcinoma in dogs?

A

Thoracic limbs

206
Q

What is the prognosis for apocrine gland carcinoma

A

Highly invasive, but cure rates high with surgery alone

207
Q

What is an eccrine adenoma/carcinoma

A

tumors of the sweat glands of the footpads

208
Q

What is the other name for neruoendocrine carcinoma

A

Merkel cell carcinoma

209
Q

What is the behavior of Merkel cell tumors in people? How does this compare to dogs and cats?

A

Highly malignant in humans; case reports in cats and dogs suggest more benign clinical course

210
Q

Loss of expression of what proteins is linked to a more aggressive behavior in humans for Merkel cell tumors has also been found in dogs

A

E-cadherin, beta-catenin

211
Q

What do most dogs with nodular dermatofibrosis die from and how long does this usually take?

A

Renal failure from renal cystadenocarcinoma, average 3 years

212
Q

What breeds are at an increased risk of ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma (dogs

A

german shep, cocker spaniels

213
Q

Skull rads for dogs with malignant tumors of the ear cnala showed what primary features

A

Lysis of the bulla (13/27), sclerosis of the bulla (8/27)

214
Q

Is metastasis from ear canal tumors common in dogs and cats?

A

No - 1/30 dogs had LN + distant mets, 3/35 had pulmonary, one lytic bone lesion; cats only regional LN

215
Q

What is the MST for dogs and cats treated with a TECA-LBO for malignant ear canal tumors?

A

42-50mo (cats), not reached at 36mo for dogs (Better than lateral ear canal resection)

216
Q

What is the staging scheme for primary tumors of the ear canal

A

T1 = confined to external or horizontal ear canal T2 = extending beyond TM T3 = extending beyond middle ear/bone destruction

217
Q

What prognostic factor was identified in dogs with malignant ear canal tumors

A

Extension beyond ear canal (no MST = 30mo, yes MST = 5.9mo)

218
Q

Cats with SCC of the ear canal have an MST of ____ compared to an MST of ____for ceruminous gland

A

SCC = 3.8mo, ceruminous = 49

219
Q

What mitotic cutoff is associated with MST in cats with primary tumors of the ear canal?

A

≤2 mst = 180mo ≥3 MST ~24mo

220
Q

What percent of dogs with digital SCC have involvement of multiple digits

A

~3%

221
Q

What dog breeds are predisposed to having multiple digital scc?

A

large breed with black coats - standard poodles, black labs, giant schnauzers, gordon setters, rotties, beaucerons, briards

222
Q

Are the thoracic or pelvic limbs more commonly affected by digital SCC?

A

Thoracic limbs

223
Q

What breed of dog is overrepresented for digital melanoma?

A

Scotties

224
Q

What was the % disagreement amongst pathologists for histo from digital tumors? How often was this clinically significant?

A

20% of cases, clinically significant differences in 75% of these

225
Q

What is another term for lung digit syndrome?

A

Acrometastasis

226
Q

What was the rate of primary lung tumors in 64 cats with digital carcinoma

A

88%

227
Q

What is the MST for cats with lung digit vs. primary digital SCC

A

lung-digit: 4.9 weeks primary SCC 29.5wks

228
Q

What digit tumor does bone lysis have prognostic significance for in dogs?

A

melanoma

229
Q

Dogs with digital SCC have what rate of metastasis at diagnosis and what rate develop it subsequently?

A

6-13% at dx additional 9-17% develop it

230
Q

What location of digital SCC may carry a better prognosis?

A

Subungual

231
Q

What is the rate of mets at the time of diagnosis and what additional percent develop it for digital melanoma

A

32-40% at dx (local LN or distant) additional 10-26% develop after definitive treatment

232
Q

What are the 1 and 2-year survival rates for dgital SCC treated with surgery alone in dogs?

A

1yr 50-83% 2yr 18-62% Better for subungual lesions

233
Q

What are the 1- and 2-yr survival rates for dogs with digital melanoma treated with surgery alone?

A

1yr 42-57% 2yr 13-36%

234
Q

Is there a survival benefit from adding chemo to surgery in dogs with digital melanoma?

A

Not for carbo - 1 and 2 yr survival : 89 and 67% vaccine - 1 and 2 yr 63% and 32% (but 28% had mets at treatment)

235
Q

What is the survival time for cats with digital melanoma? how many developed mets?

A

0->577d (helpful information, I know) 4/5 developed mets

236
Q

What two changes in the mid-1980’s in vaccines correlate with FISS development in cats?

A

Development of a killed rabies and killed FeLV vaccine - both have strong association with FISS development

237
Q

What is the estimated prevalence of sarcoma development at sites of vx admin

A

1-4/10,000 up to 13-16/10,000 cases

238
Q

What is the time from vaccine to tumor development for FISS?

A

Anywhere from 4wks up to 10yrs

239
Q

Are adjuvanted vs. nonadjuvanted vx more likely to cause fiss?

A

No one knows - though it adjuvanted increases inflammation and therefore increases risk of FISS, but 3 large studies showed no evidence that aluminum-containing vx had more risk

240
Q

What IHC markers are FISS positive for that non-FISS FSA’s are not (or are only weakly positive for)

A

PDGF, epidermal growth factor, TGF-beta

241
Q

Lymphocytes in FISS are positive for ____ while lymphocytes in non-injection-site FSA and normal LN are negative this

A

PDGF (macrophages, too)

242
Q

What proto-oncogene was strongly positive in ISS and not expressed in non-FISS FSA? What does it code for?

A

c-jun, codes for AP-1

243
Q

FeLV and feline sarcoma virus are/are not involved in FISS pathogenesis?

A

Are not

244
Q

Non FISS FSA typically arise from the ____ compared to FISS which typically arise from the ____

A

non-FISS FSA: skin FISS: SQ

245
Q

What subtypes of tumors are included in FISS

A

FSA, rhabdoymyosarcoma, MFHs (malignant fibrous histiocytomas), undifferentiated sarcomas, extraskeletal OSA and chondrosarcomas

246
Q

What do macrophages in the peripheral inflammatory cell infiltrates of FISS often look like/contain

A

bluish-gray foreign material - aluminum and oxygen

247
Q

How should CT imaging be performed for intrascapular FISS

A

postcontrast CT with thoracic limbs extended cranially and caudally along body to better determine the association with the FISS and the adjacent tissue

248
Q

What is the preferred surgical approach to FISS

A

5-cm lateral margins and two fascial layers deep for gross palpation 3cm lateral and one fascial layer deep for cats with CT to characterize extent of disease

249
Q

What is the rate of complete excision for FISS when a 3cm/1 layer deep approach is used based on palpation vs. 5cm/2 layers?

A

3cm/1 layer = 50% complete 5cm/2 layer = 95-97%

250
Q

What is the median DFI for marginal resection, wide resection and radical surgery for FISS

A

marginal 79d wide 325d radical 419d

251
Q

What is the time to first recurrence for FISS when first surgery was at a nonreferral vs. referral practice

A

nonreferral 66d referral 274d

252
Q

T/F wide surgical resection of FISS in the interscapular area usually requires removal of the dorsal spinous processes

A

T

253
Q

Has preoperative RT been shown to reduce rate of recurrence in FISS treated with surgery?

A

Not in the literature - local recurrence with complete margins = 42% compared to incomplete for 32% of cats treated with pre-op RT + surgery

254
Q

When should post-op RT start for FISS?

A

10-14 days post-op; DFI and ST decreases as the interval between surgery and RT increases

255
Q

What is the rate of recurrence for FISS with multimodal treatment with surgery (2-3cm margins) + RT

A

28-45%

256
Q

What was the response rate to hypofx rt (5x4gy) + liposomal DOX as a radiation sensitizer for cats with gross disease FISS?

A

90% ORR - 7 PR, 2 CR; problem = not durable (117d)

257
Q

What was the median PFI and MST for cats treated for gross disease FISS with 4x8Gy RT?

A

PFI 4mo, MST 7mo

258
Q

What is the response to SRT for gross disease FISS

A

Variable protocols (most 3x10Gy), 8/11 response (3CR, 5PR), median PFI 242d, MST 301d

259
Q

What is the rate of metastasis for FISS?

A

0-26%

260
Q

T/F cats treated with gross residual disease after surgery for FISS with post-op RT and chemo had an improved MST compared to those only treated with surgery + RT

A

True - MST 29mo vs. 5mo (all chemo = doxo except 1 cat had doxo + cytoxan)

261
Q

____ Has been shown to result in inhibition of the PDGF/PDGFR pathway and results in chemosensitiaztion in FISS cell lines

A

Imatinib

262
Q

_____ has been shown to inhibit PDGFR in FISS cell lines (but in concentrations higher than readily achieveable) and was/was not found to be a radiation sensitizer

A

Masitinib, was not a radiation sensitizer

263
Q

What was the median time to local recurrence for FISS treated with surgery vs. intraop vs. post-op ECT with bleo?

A

Surgery only 4mo intraop bleo ECT = 12mo post-op bleo ECT = 19mo

264
Q

T/F it is safe to treat cats with FISS with cisplatin ECT?

A

True - minimal systemic toxicity (pulmonary, renal, cutaneous); local recurrence 29%

265
Q

What were the rates of recurrence for cats with FISS treated with surgery + iridium-based brachytherapy and IL-2

A

Human IL-2 w/ vaccina virus vector: 39% at 1yr Feline IL2 w/ canary pox vector: 28%

266
Q

Intratumoral feline IL-2 has been combined with what other therapies in a phase I trial?

A

IFN-gamma and granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor + preop magnetofection

267
Q

What is the 3-yr disease free rate for FISS when removed with 5cm lat margins or compartmental resections

A

86%

268
Q

What are prognostic factors for local recurrence for FISS

A

Tumor size, surgical dose, completeness of histologic excision, histologic grade

269
Q

What are the metastatic rates for grade I, II and III FISS

A

I: 0-17% II 15-19% III: 22-100%

270
Q

What is the overall MST for radical surgery with 4-5cm/2layer deep for FISS?

A

804-901d

271
Q

What are prognostic factors for survival in cats with ISS

A

PCV<265%, tumor size (<2cm vs. 2-5 vs >5cm; or <3.75cm in another study), treatment type, histologic subtype, mitotic rate (20) local tumor recurrence and mets

272
Q

Where does the VAFSTF recommend feline vaccines be administered?

A

Rabies RHL FeLV LHL Other vaccines: right shoulder none interscapular

273
Q

Is SQ or IM vaccine recommended by VAFSTF?

A

SQ because masses are easier to detect earlier

274
Q

When should a mass at vaccination sites be investiaged further?

A

Mass is evident 3 or more months after vx If the mass is larger than 2 cm If the mass is increasing in size more than 1 month after vaccination

275
Q

What is the rate of local recurrence for nasal SCC in cats treated surgically? What is the DFI?

A

<10% recurrence, median DFI 594d for isolated, 426d for SCC in multiple locations

276
Q

What is the MST for cats with either isolated nasal planum SCC treated with surgery or SCC in multiple locations treated with surgery?

A

isolated: 673d multiple: 530d

277
Q

What is the median time to recurrence for dogs treated with external beam RT for nasal planum SCC?

A

2-3mo, RT not generally used

278
Q

What was the 1-yr PFS rate for cats with nasal planum SCC treated with orthovoltage?

A

60%

279
Q

What is the median DFI and MST for cats treated with megavoltage RT for nasal planum SCC?

A

DFI 361-916d MST 902d

280
Q

What was the CR rate for cats treated with intralesional carbo for nasal planum SCC?

A

73%

281
Q

What % of oral melanomas are amelanotic?

A

38%

282
Q

What antiboides hawve been found to have 100% specificity and 94% sensitivity for dx’ing melanoma?

A

PNL2, Melan A, TRP-1 and TRP-2

283
Q

What is the metastatic rate for dogs with OMM?

A

Stage dependent, can be as high as 80%

284
Q

What are the five histologic subtypes of SCC in dogs?

A

conventional, papillary, basaloid, adenosquamous and spindle cell

285
Q

What is the common case presentation for oral papillary SCC in dogs?

A

Young dogs (usually <9mo) in the rostral oral cavity

286
Q

What location of oral SCC has a higher rate of metastasis vs. lower?

A

Higher: tongue and tonsil Lower: rostral oral cavity

287
Q

What has been shown to increase the risk of oral SCC in cats?

A

flea collars and high intake of either canned food or canned tuna, household tobacco smoke

288
Q

Mutations in what gene are significantly increased in SCC lesions in cats with smoke exposure compared to those w/o smoke exposure

A

p53

289
Q

Increased tumor expression of ____ in cats with oral SCC may play a role in bone resorption and tumor invasion

A

parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rp)

290
Q

What is the rate of metastasis for cats with oral SCC?

A

31% mandibular LN, 10% lungs

291
Q

Where do hi-low fibrosarcs usually occur in dogs?

A

hard palate and maxillary arcade b/w canine and carnassial teeth

292
Q

What are peripheral odontogenic fibromas?

A

benign gingival proliferations arising from the periodontal ligament (previous name = epulides)

293
Q

Where are peripheral odontogenic fibromas more likely to occur in the mouth?

A

Maxilla rostral to the 3rd premolars

294
Q

Where is the most common location for acanthomatous ameloblastoma?

A

Rostral mandibule (51%)

295
Q

What was the diagnostic accuracy of FNA and impression smear cytology for cats and dogs with oral tumors?

A

FNA: dogs 98%, cats 96% impression: dogs 92%, cats 96%

296
Q

Bone lysis is not evident on radiographs until ____% of the cortex is destroyed

A

40% or more

297
Q

How did CT vs. radiographs compare for diagnosing invasion into surrounding structures for maxillary masses in dogs?

A

CT showed >90% of dogs had invasion vs. only 30% on radiographs

298
Q

What was the relationship of normal and enlarged LN and presence of metastasis in dogs with OMM?

A

40% of dogs with normal sized LN had mets 49% of dogs with enlarged LNs did not have mets

299
Q

For cats and dogs with oral tumors with LN metastasis, what was the rate of the mandibular LN being affected?

A

55% - need to look at other nodes, too!

300
Q

What is the one type of oral tumor that does not often invade the underlying bone?

A

peripheral odontogenic fibromas

301
Q

How do cats tolerate mandibulectomy?

A

Not well - usually need to have reconstruction (compared to dogs which reconstruction is not recommended due to high rate of complications)

302
Q

What are the most common complications from maxillectomy?

A

Blood loss and hypotension

303
Q

What % of cats will never eat voluntarily after mandibulectomy?

A

12%

304
Q

What is the overall rate of mets to the lungs for OMM

A

14-67%

305
Q

What are known prognostic variables for dogs with OMM treated with surgery +/- other therapies

A

Tumor size, age, clinical stage, ability of 1st sx to achieve local control, degree of differentiation, MI, nuclear atypia score, pigment quant, COX-2 expression, PDGFR expression, Ki67 expression, c-kit expression

306
Q

What is the overall rate of response of OMM to RT? What percent are CR?

A

81-100%, up to 70% CR

307
Q

what is the overall ST for dogs with OMM treated with RT?

A

192-401d

308
Q

MST for OMM T1 vs. T2 vs. T3

A

T1 19mo T2 or T3 <7mo

309
Q

MST for dogs treated with hypofractionated RT based on stage?

A

Stage I = 758d II = 278d III = 163d IV 80d

310
Q

Result of phase I OMM vx trial? (Responses?, MST?)

A

Dog with lung mets at CR n=2 stage IV lived >400d n=2 stage II or III lived 500d w/o evidence of melanoma at necropsy **MST sig improved when primary site + LN treated with sx or RT**

311
Q

One study of the OMM vx showed that dogs under what wight did better

A

20kg

312
Q

What locations may be associated with longer STs for OMM

A

Lip (MST 580d) Tongue (MST 551)

313
Q

What is prognosis for dogs with well-differentiated OMM treated with surgery alone?

A

only 5% died of OMM, MST 34mo

314
Q

Rate of metastasis for dogs with oral SCC?

A

Regional LN 10%, lungs 3-36%

315
Q

What areas of the mouth are associated with a more aggressive behavior and higher rate of mets for canine oral SCC

A

tonsils and base of tongue - rate of mets 73%

316
Q

What is the rate of local recurrence from oral SCC for dogs treated with mandibulectomy and what is the MST?

A

0-10%; MST 19-43mo

317
Q

What is the rate of local recurrence from oral SCC for dogs treated with maxillectomy and what is the MST?

A

14-29%; MST 10-39mo

318
Q

What are prognostic factors for dogs with OSCC?

A

Presence of tumor-associated inflammation and risk score of 2 or ≥ 3 (combination of tumor-assoc inflammation, lymphatic or vascular invasion and peripheral nerve invasion)

319
Q

What molecular marker has been shown prognostic in dogs with surgically resected mandibular or maxillary OSCC?

A

proliferating cell nuclear antigen expression (PCNA) >65% MST 155d ≤65% MAR not reached

320
Q

What is the MST for dogs with OSSC treated with RT alone vs. surgery + RT

A

RT alone 15-16mo RT + surgery: 34mo

321
Q

What was the response rate to piroxicam alone for dogs with OSCC?

A

17% - 1 CR and 2 PR

322
Q

What was the CR rate for dogs with T3 oral SCC treated with carbo + piroxicam

A

57% - sustained in all dogs at median follow-up time of 534d

323
Q

Recent molecular data suggests that HSA arises from ___ rather than from malignant transformation of mature peripheral endothelial cells

A

bone marrow progenitor cells that undergo dysregulated maturation

324
Q

Mutations in ____ and ____ have been shown in the pathogenesis of angiosarcoma in mic and humans but are infrequent in canine HSA

A

p53 and Ras

325
Q

What key growth and apoptosis regulating proteins are overexpressed in HSA compared to hemangiomas or normal tissues

A

pRB, cyclin D1, Bcl2 and survivin

326
Q

Two large studies have shown _____ of dogs with splenic tumors have malignant disease and ______ of these are HSA

A

50%; 50-74%

327
Q

What IHC can be used to support diagnosis of HSA and rule out other sarcomas

A

CD31/platelet endothelial cell-adhesion molecule von Willebrand’s factor (factor VIII-related antigen)

328
Q

What RBC changes are common in dogs and cats with HSA

A

schistocytes, acanthocytes and nRBCs

329
Q

Thrombocytopenia is found in _____% of HSA

A

75-97%

330
Q

Alterations in secondary coag parameters (PT and PTT, fibrin degradation product, fibrinogen and d-dimers) are found in nearly _____% of patients with HSA

A

50%

331
Q

More than 50% of cats may have elevations in this chemistry value

A

AST

332
Q

What are the “T” classifications for HSA

A

0 = no evidence of tumor T1 = tumor <5cm diameter and confined to primary tissues T2 = tumor ≥5cm, or ruptured or invading into SQ tissues T3 = tumor invading adjacent structures including mm

333
Q

What are the TNM stages for HSA

A

I = T0 or T1, N0, M0 II = T1 or T2, N0 or N1, M0 III = T2 or T3, N0, N1 or N2, M1

334
Q

What is significantly elevated in dogs with cardiac HSA compared to HSA at other sites, dogs with other cancers, etc

A

cardiac troponin-1 also higher for HSA pericardial effusion vs. non-HSA pericardial effusion

335
Q

What is the MST for dogs with cardiac HSA treated with hypofractionated RT?

A

MST 2.5mo + decreased frequency of cardiac tamponade

336
Q

The original eBAT trial showed what?

A

MST 8.5mo, 6-mo survival of 70.6% (treatment before standard of care dox), six long term survivors All dogs were stage I or stage II

337
Q

What is the MST for dogs with stage I splenic HSA treated with surgery + chemo?

A

MST 239-355d

338
Q

What is the MST for dogs with stage II splenic HSA treated with surgery + chemo

A

MST 120-148d

339
Q

Which form of asbestos is more likely to cause mesothelioma?

A

the amphibole (vs. chrysotile which is now 90% of what is used)

340
Q

Mutations in what are common in humans with mesothelioma

A

tumor suppressor genes - CDKN2A, BRCA1, BAP1, neurofibromin 2 (NF2)

341
Q

In what species do mesothelial tumors more commonly occur in young or new born animals

A

cattle and sheep

342
Q

Mesothelial cells appear morphologically as ____ but their derivation is from _____

A

epithelial cells; mesoderm

343
Q

Mesothelioma can be ruled out as a cause of pleural effusion in dogs and cats if ____levels are not increased

A

pleural effusion levels of fibronectin (sensitive but not specific)

344
Q

What are the most useful IHC markers for mesothelioma in humans

A

calretinin, wilms’ tumor gene (WT1), cytokeratin 5/6 and D2-40

345
Q

What is the most common cardiac tumor in cats?

A

LSA - primary and secondary

346
Q

What is the sensitivity of radiographs for detecting cardiac HSA

A

47%

347
Q

What breeds of dog is OMM most commonly diagnosed?

A

Scotties, goldens, Chows, poodles and dachshunds

348
Q

Canine OMM is most commonly found in what locations of the mouth in order of decreasing frequency

A

gingiva, lips, tongue and hard palate

349
Q

WHat are the primary factors that determine the biologic behavior of an OMM in dogs

A

Site, Size, Stage and histo parameters

350
Q

What cocktail of IHC Abs are used to diagnose melanoma

A

PNL2, tyrosinase, Melan A and S-100

351
Q

BRAF is frequently mutated in which form of human melanoma?

A

Commonly mutated in cutaneous but not in oral (also uncommon for BRAF mutations in OMMs in dogs)

352
Q

What IHC marker can more reliably predict potential malignant behavior compared to classical histology for cutaneous melanoma?

A

Ki67 (also prognostic in OMM)

353
Q

What is the MST of dogs with melanoma of the digit w/o LN or distant mets treated with digit amp?

A

~12mo, 1yr survival 42-57%, 2yr 11-13%

354
Q

What is the rate of metastasis at presentation for dogs with digital melanoma?

A

30-40%

355
Q

What do most dogs with digital melanoma die from?

A

Metastasis - regional or distant

356
Q

What are the T classifications for OMM based on WHO TNM staging

A

T1 ≤2cm T2 2-4cm T3 > 4cm

357
Q

What are the N classifications for OMM based on WHO TNM staging?

A

N0 = no regional nodes N1 = histo or cyto evidence of regional node involvement N2 = fixed nodes

358
Q

What are the WHO TNM-based stages for OMM in dogs?

A

Stage 1 = T1N0M0 2 = T2N0M0 3 = T2N1M0 or T3N0M0 4 = Any T, Any N and M1

359
Q

What is the MST for dogs with stage I OMM treated with surgery

A

511-874d

360
Q

What is the MST for dogs with stage II OMM treated with surgery

A

160-818d

361
Q

What is the MST for dogs with stage III OMM treated with surgery

A

168-207d

362
Q

What % of enlarged vs normal LN have mets from OMM?

A

70% of enlarged LN have mets 40% of normal LN have mets

363
Q

What margins are generally recommended for benign cutaneous melanomas?

A

1cm skin margins, 1 fascial plane deep

364
Q

What margins are recommended for OMM

A

2-3 cm when possible

365
Q

Dogs with incomplete histo margins from OMM are ____ times more likely to die of tumor-related causes compared with dogs with complete excision

A

3.6x

366
Q

Dogs with OMM located where in the mouth are 4.3x more likely to die of tumor-related causes

A

Caudal to PM3 (compared to those rostral to PM3)

367
Q

What is the radiosensitivity melanom

A

Generally radioresistant –> need higher dose/fx to achieve local control

368
Q

What is the overall response rate to RT for melanoma? PR vs. CR?

A

Overall 82-94% PR 25-67% CR 19-69%

369
Q

What is the PFS for dogs treated with RT for gross disease melanoma?

A

3.6-8.6mo

370
Q

What is the ORR and MST for cats with OMM treated with RT?

A

ORR = 60% (1 CR 2 PRs/5 cats) MST 146d

371
Q

Does adding chemotherapy to RT improve outcomes for dogs with OMM?

A

No based on the largest study; may have a role as a chemosensitizer (low rate of recurrence 15% with cisplat or carbo)

372
Q

For dogs treated for OMM with surgery + carbo +/- RT, what was the MST? How did RT influence this?

A

MST for sx/chemo/RT 440d vs. sx/chemo 387d (not stat sig), but lower rate of local recurrence for RT group (27% vs. 67%)

373
Q

What was the difference in TTP and MST for dogs treated with RT alone vs. RT + temozolomide

A

PFS sig shorter for RT alone (110d vs. 205d), MST numerically different but not stat sig (RT alone 192d vs. 402d w/ chemo+RT)

374
Q

When using the WHO TNM staging system, what is the PFS for OMM treated with 12x4Gy MWF RT protocol based on T?

A

T1 PFS 11.3mo T2 6.0 T3 6.7mo

375
Q

Bony involvement has been reported in up to _____% of dogs with melanoma

A

92%

376
Q

What is the ORR for dogs with measurable malignant melanoma to carbo? vs. cisplat + piroxicam

A

Carbo: 28% Cisplat + piroxicam: 18%

377
Q

What happens after intradermal or intramuscular injection of a DNA vaccine (ex: melanoma vs)

A

APCs (dendritic cells) present the Ag on MHC

378
Q

Collectively, the melanoma vx literature has showed what?

A
  1. It’s safe 2. It leads to development of antityrosinase Ab and T cells 3. potentially therapeutic 4. needs to be further investigated in adjuvant, minimal disease phase II setting
379
Q

Other than the oncept vaccine, what other vaccine has been shown to be potentially beneficial for canine OMM

A

CSPG4 vx MST and median DFI longer for vx group

380
Q

What are the T classifications for digital melanoma based on WHO TNM staging

A

T1: <2cm + superficial or exophytic T2 = 2-5cm with minimal invasion T3 = >5cm or invading the SQ T4 = invading into fascia or bone

381
Q

What are the stages of digital melanoma in dogs based on WHO TNM staging

A

1 = T1N0M0 2 = T2N0M0 3 = T2N1M0, T3 or T4 N0 or N1 M0 4 = Any T, any N, M1

382
Q

What was the MST for dogs treated with digit amp + oncept based on digital melanoma stage?

A

stage 1 = >952d 2 = >1093d 3 = 321d 4 = 76d ** Oncept sig improved outcomes compared to historic controls**

383
Q

What was the MST for dogs treated with digit amp + oncept for digital melanoma w/ vs. w/o mets

A

W/mets = 105d w/o = 533d

384
Q

Most STS occur in middle-aged to older dogs with the exception of

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

385
Q

What is the likelihood of local recurrence for STS after surgery dependent on?

A

tumor size, degree of infiltration, completeness of excision, grade

386
Q

What is the likelihood of metastasis from STS primarily dependent on?

A

Grade

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