Wills Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Share of heirs other than spouse

A

Descendants > parents > descendants of parents > grandparents > issue of deceased spouse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Posthumous birth

A
  1. Child born within 300 days after death;
  2. Conceived before death;
  3. Takes as poshumous heir.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Presumption of paternity (5 ways)

A
  1. Born during or within 300 days of marriage;
  2. Marriage + child support or asserted paternity;
  3. Male lived with 0-2 and held out;
  4. Officially acknowledged;
  5. Court determined.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Termination of paternity

A
  1. Legally terminated;
  2. Child dies before 18 and clear and convincing evidence rights could have been terminated (abandonment, desertion, abuse, fail to pay child support <18);
  3. Child adopted;
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Equitable adoption

A
  1. Natural parent relinquished custody in reliance upon foster parents;
  2. Who fail to follow through;
  3. Child may recover from foster parents;
  4. Detrminental reliance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adopted child’s parent-child relationship not severed with biological parents when…

A
  1. Stepparent adoption; or
  2. Adoption following death of natural parent.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Stepparent adoption statute

A
  1. Clear and convincing evidence would have adopted;
  2. But for legal barrier.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Simultaneous death

A
  1. Clear and convincing evidence;
  2. Survived by 120 hours.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Substantial compliance doctrine (“near miss” rule)

A
  1. Substantial compliance;
  2. Clear and convincing evidence;
  3. T intended document to be his will;
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Insane delusion

A

GIPID

  1. Ground for contesting;
  2. Testator’s persistent
  3. Irrational belief;
  4. Directly influences;
  5. Invalidating affected portion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Contract to make a will

A

Oral valid unless violating statute of frauds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Slayer rule

A
  1. Intentional and felonious killing;
  2. Preponderance of evidence;
  3. Constructive trust created as if;
  4. Predeceased the decedent.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Delusions or hallucinations

A
  1. Caused devises;
  2. Would not listen to reason;
  3. No reasonable basis for belief that caused.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Contracts not to revoke a will

A
  1. Burden on party claiming to prove;
  2. Joint or mutual will insufficient to overcome presumption of a contract.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Prima facie validity of a will

A
  1. Capacity;
  2. Testamentary intent;
  3. Valid execution;
  4. Not revoked.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Harmless error (CPC 6110)

A
  1. Only allows errors in attestation;
  2. Clear and convincing evidence;
  3. T intended to be his will.
9
Q

Attested will formalities

A
  1. In writing;
  2. Signed by testator;;
  3. Two witnesses present for signing; or
  4. Acknowledgement by testator; and
  5. Understanding it is a will;
  6. Ws sign before testator’s death.
10
Q

Dependent relative revocation

A
  1. Court can undo revocation;
  2. Clear and convincing evidence;
  3. Revocation of will 1 was conditional on validity of will 2; and
  4. Carry out testator’s intent.
11
Q

Revival

A
  1. 2nd will which wholly revokes 1st will thereafter is revoked by 3rd will or physical act;
  2. Physical act requires contemporaneous or subsequent declaration that will 1 should take effect;
  3. By will 3, look to terms of will.
12
Q

Incorporation by reference

A

III
1. Writing in existence;
2. Will sufficiently identifies;
3. Manifests intent to incorporate.

13
Q

Satisfaction - inter vivos satisfies gift if

A
  1. Instrument provides;
  2. Transferor contemporaneous writing;
  3. Transferee written acknowledgement; or
  4. Same as specific gift.
14
Q

Ademption (specific gifts only)

A

MISC
____________
1. Majority, specific gifts no longer in estate adeem; except when
2. Involuntary conversion (flood, fire);
3. Conservator or third party sells, transferee has rights to money;
4. Change in form (Stock splits, merger, consoidation, stock dividends)

15
Q

Abatement

A
  1. Not enough assets in estate;
  2. Abate in order:
  3. Residuary > general non-relatives > general relatives > specific non-relatives > specific relatives.
  4. Pro rata within class
16
Q

Exoneration

A
  1. Gifted property subject to debt;
  2. Common law in full;
  3. Modern if instrument specifies exoneration or pay off specific note (“free and clear of existing mortgages”)
17
Q

Pretermitted Heir

A
  1. T didn’t know about child; or
  2. Mistaken about death;
  3. Exception if >1 child + all to H.
18
Q

Classification of Gifts

A

Discuss in context of ademptions of specific gifts (before ademption to verify that it applies).

18
Q

Will speaks as of

A
  1. Date of death;
  2. not execution
  3. so “my car” at death is whatever car testator owned at death.
19
Q

Applicable law

A
  1. CA will respect law of other state if executed there.
  2. E.g., T on vacation and executes will according to AZ law but not CA law.
  3. CA will respect.
20
Q

Classification of increased gift

A
  1. if specific gift of 100 shares, B will take 200 if given by
  2. Stock dividend;
  3. stock split;
  4. merger, etc.
  5. But if GENERAL devise, will only take whatever was mentioned in will