Wills and Adminstration of Estates Flashcards

Wills

1
Q

Describe the criteria for testamentary capacity according to Banks v Goodfellow (1870).

A

The criteria include understanding the nature and effects of making a will, the extent of property, and moral claims to which they ought to give effect.

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2
Q

Define the test set out in the Mental Capacity Act 2005 for determining capacity to make a will.

A

The test includes the ability to understand relevant information, retain it, use or weigh it in decision-making, and communicate the decision.

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3
Q

How is mental capacity presumed in the context of making a will?

A

Mental capacity is presumed if the testator had capacity at the time of giving instructions, the will is prepared according to those instructions, and the testator understood they were executing a will.

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4
Q

Do both tests need to be met for a testator to have capacity to make a will?

A

If a testator meets both the Banks v Goodfellow test and the Mental Capacity Act 2005 test, it can be concluded that they have the capacity. If only one test is met, further inquiry is needed.

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5
Q

Describe the burden of proof regarding testamentary capacity when it is questioned.

A

The burden of proof lies on the person propounding the will. If the will is formally valid and appears rational, the burden of proof shifts to the person opposing the will.

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6
Q

What is the significance of proving a lucid interval in cases where the testator is not normally compos mentis?

A

In such cases, where the testator has a long-term mental disability, executors need to prove a lucid interval to establish capacity to make a will.

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7
Q

Describe the burden of proving undue influence in challenging a will.

A

The burden of proving that undue influence was exerted in challenging a will falls on the person contesting the will, with a high threshold to meet.

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8
Q

Define the formal requirements for a valid will under the Wills Act 1837.

A

A valid will must be in writing, signed or acknowledged by the testator in front of two witnesses, who also sign in the presence of the testator.

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9
Q

How can an executor renounce their role in administering an estate?

A

An executor can renounce their role by filing a signed statement with the Probate Registry, resulting in a permanent withholding of responsibility.

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10
Q

What is the difference between executors and administrators in estate administration?

A

Executors are individuals appointed in a will to administer the estate, while administrators handle estate administration without being appointed in a will.

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11
Q

Describe the process of reserving power as an executor in estate administration.

A

Reserving power as an executor allows one to sit out the administration of the estate initially but retain the option to step in later if desired, without permanently renouncing responsibility.

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12
Q

Explain the maximum number of administrators or executors allowed to administer a will.

A

A maximum of four administrators or executors can be appointed to administer a will, distributing assets according to the will’s instructions.

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13
Q

What is the significance of an attestation clause in the execution of a will?

A

An attestation clause creates a presumption of proper execution when present in a will, aiding in establishing the validity of the document.

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14
Q

How can a witness to a will be disqualified from benefiting under that will?

A

A witness to a will is disqualified from benefiting under it unless there are two additional witnesses or they marry the testator after the will is made.

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15
Q

Describe the revocability of a during the testator’s lifetime.

A

The will is revocable during the testator’s lifetime as long as the testator has the capacity to do so.

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16
Q

How can a will be revoked by executing a new will or codicil?

A

A will can be revoked by executing a new will or codicil that includes an express revocation clause. If the new document does not have such a clause, inconsistent provisions in the codicil or later will prevail.

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17
Q

Define the concept of destruction of wills as a method of revocation.

A

Destruction of a will through tearing, burning, or other means by the testator or at the testator’s direction in their presence with the intent to revoke it is considered a valid method of revocation.

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18
Q

What is the impact of marriage on a testator’s will according to the Wills Act 1837?

A

Marriage automatically revokes any prior will of the testator, as stated in Section 18 of the Wills Act 1837.

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19
Q

How can a testator prevent the revocation of a will by marriage?

A

A testator can prevent the revocation by marriage by expressly making a will in contemplation of marriage, clearly indicating the intention not to revoke the will upon marriage.

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20
Q

Describe the doctrine of dependent relative revocation in the context of wills.

A

The doctrine of dependent relative revocation states that if a will is destroyed with the intention that a later will is valid, but the later will is found to be invalid, the revocation is ineffective, and the destroyed will stands.

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21
Q

Describe the concept of ademption in context of gifts in a will.

A

Ademption occurs when a specific gift mentioned in a will is no longer part of the estate, leading to the failure of the bequest.

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22
Q

What is the significance of the three certainties in relation to gifts in a will?

A

The three certainties required for a valid gift in a will are certainty of intention, subject-matter, and objects.

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23
Q

How does abatement work in the distribution of assets in an estate?

A

Abatement dictates the order in which assets are used to pay for the estate’s expenses, typically starting with the residuary estate, followed by general legacies, and then specific legacies.

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24
Q

Define the concept of lapse in the context of wills and bequests.

A

Lapse refers to the situation where a beneficiary must outlive the testator in order to receive the bequest; if the beneficiary predeceases the testator, the gift fails.

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25
Q

Explain the rebuttable presumption regarding gifts to executors in a will.

A

There is a presumption that a specific or pecuniary legacy to an executor is conditional upon them acting as such, which can be rebutted if the executor explicitly or implicitly rejects the condition.

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26
Q

What are demonstrative gifts in the context of wills and how are they different from general gifts?

A

Demonstrative gifts are general gifts paid from a specific fund, while general gifts are not distinguished items and do not specify particular assets.

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27
Q

How do gifts to witnesses in a will differ from regular gifts?

A

Gifts to witnesses in a will are subject to stricter rules and may fail unless there are at least two additional witnesses present, apart from the benefiting witness.

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28
Q

Describe the scenario where ademption does not apply in the context of wills.

A

Ademption does not apply to general and demonstrative gifts, gifts disposed of without authority, or gifts where the property has not changed in substance.

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29
Q

Explain the concept of residuary gifts in a will and their typical treatment in estate distribution.

A

Residuary gifts refer to anything not specifically disposed of in a will, and they often form the remainder of the estate after other gifts are distributed; they are commonly used to cover debts and expenses.

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30
Q

Describe the special rights of a surviving spouse in intestacy laws.

A

Special rights include inheriting the matrimonial home, electing to appropriate the home, and potentially inheriting up to £322,000 and/or 1/2 of the residue.

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31
Q

Define statutory trusts in the context of intestacy laws.

A

Statutory trusts refer to the legal provisions that dictate how assets passing under intestacy (excluding to a surviving spouse) are distributed, typically among children and their issue.

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32
Q

How are property passing outside the estate, such as joint property and life policies, handled in intestacy laws?

A

Jointly owned property automatically passes to the surviving joint tenant(s), while life policy proceeds are paid directly to PRs or named beneficiaries.

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33
Q

Describe the order of entitlement in intestacy laws when there is no surviving spouse or children.

A

The order of entitlement includes parents, whole blood siblings, half siblings, grandparents, uncles and aunts, half uncles and aunts, and may eventually pass to the Crown if no family is found.

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34
Q

What are the conditions for obtaining a share of the statutory trust in intestacy laws?

A

Obtaining a share is contingent on reaching 18 years of age or marrying, ensuring that the distribution is made to individuals who have reached a certain level of maturity or commitment.

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35
Q

Do lifetime gifts made in contemplation of death play a role in intestacy laws?

A

Yes, lifetime gifts made in contemplation of death (donatio mortis causa) are considered in the distribution of assets, potentially affecting the overall estate distribution.

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36
Q

Describe the role of statutory nominations in intestacy laws.

A

Statutory nominations allow asset holders to designate a third party to receive assets, typically on assets not exceeding a certain value in specific financial institutions.

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37
Q

How are assets abroad handled in intestacy laws?

A

Assets abroad may not pass under a UK will due to various reasons, such as the will not being recognized in certain jurisdictions, potentially leading to complexities in estate distribution.

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38
Q

Describe Donatio Mortis Causa.

A

It is a gift made in contemplation of the donor’s death, valid if certain criteria are met, including being conditional on death and involving a valid delivery of the subject matter.

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39
Q

Define Class gifts in wills.

A

These are gifts that are made to a group of individuals (a class), with specific rules on how the class is determined and when it closes.

40
Q

How does the law handle gifts in a will when both the testator and beneficiary die simultaneously?

A

According to the Law of Property Act 1925, the older person is deemed to have died first. If the beneficiary is older, the gift lapses; if the testator is older, the gift passes to the beneficiary and becomes part of their estate.

41
Q

Describe the purpose of a grant of representation in probate and administration practice.

A

It is necessary to apply for a grant of representation to the court of probate to administer the deceased’s estate, as it provides legal authority to deal with the assets and liabilities of the deceased.

42
Q

How does the concept of Donatio Mortis Causa differ from a typical gift in a will?

A

Donatio Mortis Causa is a gift made in anticipation of death and is conditional on death, while gifts in a will take effect upon the testator’s death as specified in the will.

43
Q

Explain the class closing rules in wills.

A

In class gifts, the class closes on the death of the testator. For example, if a will bequeaths to grandchildren, only those alive at the testator’s death and in the womb are included; any grandchildren born after are excluded.

44
Q

Describe the role of an executor in the probate process.

A

An executor is entitled to the right of grant and is responsible for administering the estate of the deceased according to the terms of the will.

45
Q

What is the purpose of Letters of Administration with/without will annexed?

A

It is a procedure for simple administration in cases where there is no valid will, no appointed executors, or the appointed executors are unwilling to fulfill their role.

46
Q

Define Limited/special Grants in probate proceedings.

A

Limited/special Grants refer to different types of procedures in probate, such as when the person entitled to a gift is a minor or has capacity issues.

47
Q

How does the Chain of Representation work in probate law?

A

If an executor dies before finalizing the deceased’s estate, the executor of the executor takes over responsibilities for both the deceased executor and the deceased’s estate.

48
Q

Describe the procedure of grant ad colligenda bona defuncti in probate.

A

It is a grant of letters of administration to preserve the assets of a deceased person when immediate protection of the estate is necessary.

49
Q

Explain the Order of Priority for grant in cases of intestacy according to Non-Contentious Probate Rules.

A

The order of priority includes the surviving spouse, children, parents, siblings, and other relatives in determining who gets to execute the deceased’s estate.

50
Q

Describe the process of arranging funding for Inheritance Tax (IHT) payment before grant of probate.

A

The funding for IHT must be arranged before the grant of probate and within 6 months after the end of the month of the death.

51
Q

What are the key documents required to complete a probate application form?

A

Key documents include the probate application form (PA1P or PA1A), death certificate, statement of truth, wills/codicils, renunciation (if relevant), tax forms, supporting documentation, and payment for probate fees.

52
Q

How can the initial payment of Inheritance Tax (IHT) be funded?

A

The initial payment of IHT can be funded through various methods such as using estate amounts not requiring a grant, direct payment from deceased’s bank, loan from a bank/PR/beneficiary, or arranging an instalment plan with HMRC.

53
Q

Define ‘excepted estates’ in the context of probate and Inheritance Tax (IHT).

A

Excepted estates are those where no inheritance tax is due, as per the inheritance tax rules.

54
Q

Describe the deadline for paying Inheritance Tax (IHT) in relation to the grant of probate.

A

IHT must be paid before the grant of probate and within 6 months after the end of the month of the death, with interest charged from the due date.

55
Q

What are the duties of personal representatives (PRs) in the administration of estates?

A

PRs are responsible for collecting the deceased’s property interests, preserving the estate, realizing investments, distributing the estate, preparing inventory and accounts, and delivering the grant of probate.

56
Q

How is the burden and incidence of Inheritance Tax (IHT) typically distributed between personal representatives (PRs) and beneficiaries?

A

While PRs are liable to pay IHT on any property, the ultimate burden is usually borne by the beneficiaries, as IHT is paid from the estate assets.

57
Q

Describe the process of lodging paperwork at the court of probate.

A

The process involves submitting application forms, death certificate, statement of truth, wills/codicils, tax forms, supporting documentation, and payment for probate fees to the probate court.

58
Q

How is the value of assets calculated for Inheritance Tax (IHT) purposes?

A

The value of assets for IHT purposes is determined as the open market value immediately before death, and a valuer may need to be instructed for accurate valuation.

59
Q

Describe the protection from liability for personal representatives under S 61 Trustee Act 1925.

A

Personal representatives can be relieved from liability under statutory duty of care if they acted honestly, and the will may contain clauses excluding or modifying this duty.

60
Q

What is the rule regarding failing to distribute estate to unknown beneficiaries by personal representatives?

A

Personal representatives are personally liable if they fail to distribute the estate to entitled beneficiaries who were previously unknown.

61
Q

How can personal representatives protect themselves from liability when failing to distribute estate to known but missing beneficiaries?

A

They can seek protection through methods like Benjamin Order, insurance cover, seeking indemnity from known beneficiaries, or setting aside reserve funds or paying into court.

62
Q

Explain the process of raising funds to pay for funeral expenses, taxes, debts, and legacies from the estate.

A

Personal representatives may sell assets to raise funds, and the will may specify how expenses are paid. Unsecured debts are paid following a statutory order, prioritizing property undisposed of by will, residue, property specifically given for debt payment, and specific property.

63
Q

Define S 27 Trustee Act 1925 and its role in protecting personal representatives.

A

S 27 Trustee Act 1925 provides protection through statutory advertisement, allowing personal representatives to distribute the estate without personal liability after advertising in the London Gazette for two months.

64
Q

What are the consequences for personal representatives who fail to distribute the estate to entitled beneficiaries who were previously unknown?

A

Personal representatives are personally liable for failing to distribute the estate to beneficiaries who were unknown, such as a child of the deceased who was not previously known to be entitled to the estate.

65
Q

Describe the process of disclaimer in relation to an estate.

A

A beneficiary can choose to disclaim an interest in an estate, which means they refuse to accept the gift. This can be done orally or in writing to the personal representative (PR) of the estate.

66
Q

What is the effect of a disclaimer on an estate?

A

When a beneficiary disclaims an interest in an estate, the estate is treated as if the disclaiming beneficiary predeceased the deceased person.

67
Q

Define variation in the context of estates.

A

Variation allows a beneficiary to redirect how an interest in an estate passes to someone else. It can be done in writing, usually by deed.

68
Q

How does variation differ from disclaimer in estate matters?

A

While a disclaimer involves refusing a gift, a variation allows the beneficiary to redirect the gift to someone else or alter the terms of the gift.

69
Q

Describe the conditions under which a variation in an estate is not treated as a potentially exempt transfer (PET) for tax purposes.

A

For a variation not to be considered a PET, it must be in writing, made within 2 years of death, and not made for any consideration in money or money’s worth.

70
Q

What are the additional conditions that may apply for a variation in an estate to not be treated as a PET for tax purposes?

A

Additional conditions may include giving written notice to HMRC of the election within 6 months, and if more Inheritance Tax (IHT) is payable due to the variation, the PRs must join in the election unless there are no assets to cover the additional tax.

71
Q

Describe who can be considered for provision under the mentioned standards.

A

Any person who was being maintained by the deceased before their death.

72
Q

Define the possible provision orders that can be made by the court.

A

Lump sum payment, periodical payments, interim periodical payments, transfer of property, re-ordering of gifts made before death.

73
Q

How are gifts given less than 7 years before the testator’s death taxed?

A

The rate of tax on the gift decreases with the number of years between the gift and the death, ranging from 32% for 3 to 4 years to 0% for 7 or more years.

74
Q

Describe the conditions under which the tax-free threshold can increase when passing on a residence to direct descendants.

A

If the estate is worth less than £2 million and the home is left to direct descendants like children or grandchildren.

75
Q

Define the concept of the residence nil rate band in relation to Inheritance Tax.

A

An additional threshold of up to £175,000 that can be added to the standard £325,000 nil-rate band when passing on a residence to direct descendants.

76
Q

How is any unused nil-rate band handled in terms of Inheritance Tax?

A

It can be transferred to a surviving spouse or civil partner for their estate.

77
Q

Describe how the valuation for tax is calculated for jointly owned property with other joint tenants.

A

Value is divided by the number of owners, and 10% is subtracted from the share of the deceased.

78
Q

Define ‘excluded property’ in the context of inheritance tax.

A

Property not included in the estate for inheritance tax purposes.

79
Q

How is the estate rate calculated for beneficiaries to pay their share of inheritance tax?

A

It is calculated as the percentage each beneficiary needs to pay based on the total tax and the value of the estate they inherit.

80
Q

What is the condition for a reduced inheritance tax rate of 36% instead of 40% to apply?

A

When 10% or more of the deceased’s estate is left to charity.

81
Q

Explain the exemptions for which no inheritance tax is payable.

A

Gifts between spouses or civil partners living permanently in the UK, gifts to charities or political parties, gifts of land to housing associations, gifts for national purposes, and gifts to heritage maintenance funds.

82
Q

Describe the business property relief in the context of inheritance tax.

A

It reduces the value of a business for inheritance tax purposes, providing relief on the business property’s value.

83
Q

Describe the conditions under which a property can qualify for 100% relief for inheritance tax.

A

Property owned before 10 March 1981 can qualify for 100% relief if it meets certain criteria, such as being eligible under Schedule 8 Finance Act 1975 and having no right to vacant possession between specific dates.

84
Q

What are the annual exemptions for lifetime transfers in inheritance tax?

A

Annual exemptions for lifetime transfers include gifting up to £3,000 in one tax year, with the option to carry forward any unused balance for one year, along with a small gifts exemption of up to £250 per gift.

85
Q

Define gifts with reservation in the context of inheritance tax.

A

Gifts with reservation refer to situations where an individual gives away an asset but continues to benefit from it, such as giving a home to a relative but still living there.

86
Q

How are penalties for inaccurate tax returns addressed in inheritance tax law?

A

Penalties for inaccurate tax returns in inheritance tax are outlined in S 1 (a) & Schedule 24 of Finance Act 2007, with measures to deter anti-avoidance practices and potential penalties for careless or deliberate inaccuracies.

87
Q

Describe the implications of gifts with reservation on the value of an estate for inheritance tax purposes.

A

Gifts with reservation, where the donor still benefits from the gifted asset, are considered part of the estate value for inheritance tax calculations, such as giving away a holiday home but still using it for personal vacations.

88
Q

What are the conditions for parents, grandparents, and non-relations to make gifts in consideration of marriage or civil partnership for inheritance tax purposes?

A

Parents can give up to £5,000, grandparents up to £2,500, and non-relations up to £1,000 as gifts in consideration of marriage or civil partnership, provided the gifts are made before the wedding day.

89
Q

How is the liability to Income Tax and Capital Gains Tax handled during the administration of an estate for inheritance tax purposes?

A

Personal representatives are liable for Income Tax and Capital Gains Tax during the administration of an estate, covering the period when the assets are being managed and distributed.

90
Q

Describe the scope of anti-avoidance provisions in inheritance tax law.

A

Anti-avoidance provisions in inheritance tax law aim to prevent individuals from circumventing tax obligations through measures like penalties for inaccurate returns and addressing gifts with reservation to ensure fair taxation.

91
Q

What are the conditions for qualifying for 50% relief in inheritance tax?

A

Property that does not meet the criteria for 100% relief may qualify for 50% relief if certain conditions are met, such as being let on a tenancy that began after 1 September 1995.

92
Q

Describe the concept of passing assets from PR to beneficiaries in relation capital gains tax.

A

Passing assets from a PR to beneficiaries does not constitute a disposal of the asset for capital gains tax purposes.

93
Q

How is the value of inherited assets determined when transferred to beneficiaries?

A

Inherited assets are passed over at the value at the date of the deceased person’s death.

94
Q

Define the ‘cost’ for beneficiaries when they dispose of inherited assets.

A

The ‘cost’ for beneficiaries when they dispose of inherited assets is the value of the assets at the date of the deceased person’s death.

95
Q

Describe a scenario where a beneficiary would be liable to pay Capital Gains Tax on inherited assets.

A

If a beneficiary receives an asset at the date of death and later sells it for a higher value, they will pay Capital Gains Tax on the increase in value from the date of death to the sale date.

96
Q

How does the value at the date of death impact the Capital Gains Tax liability for beneficiaries?

A

The value at the date of death becomes the ‘cost’ for the beneficiary when they dispose of the inherited assets, determining the taxable gain.