White Blood Cell Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Basic Principles

A
  • hematopoiesis occurs in a stepwise maturation of CD34+ hematopoietic stem cells
  • cells mature and are released from the bone marrow into the blood
  • a normal WBC count is approximately 5-10 K/mL
  • low WBC is called leukopenia (10)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Leukopenia (neutropenia)

A
  • neutropenia refers to a decreased number of circulating neutrophils
  • drug toxicity: damage to stem cells results in decreased production of WBCs, especially neutrophils
  • severe infection: increased movement of neutrophils into tissues results in decreased circulating neutrophils
  • as a treatment, GM-CSF or G-CSF may be used to boost granulocyte production, thereby decreasing risk of infection in neutropenic pts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Leukopenia (lymphopenia)

A
  • refers to a decreased number of circulating lymphocytes
  • immunodeficiency: (e.g. DiGeorge syndrome or HIV)
  • high cortisol state (e.g. exogenous corticosteroids or Cushing syndrome): induces apoptosis of lymphocytes
  • autoimmune destruction (e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus)
  • whole body radiation: lymphocytes are highly sensitive to radiation; lymphopenia is the earliest change to emerge after whole body radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neutrophilic Leukocytosis

A
  • refers to increased circulating neutrophils
  • bacterial infection or tissue necrosis: induces release of marginated pool and bone marrow neutrophils, including immature forms (left shift); immature cells are characterized by decreased Fc receptors (CD16)
  • high cortisol state: impairs leukocyte adhesion, leading to release of marginated pool of neutrophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Monocytosis

A
  • refers to increased circulating monocytes

- causes include chronic inflammatory states (e.g. autoimmune and infectious) and malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Eosinophilia

A
  • refers to increased circulating eosinophils
  • causes include allergic reactions (type I hypersensitivity), parasitic infections, and Hodgkin lymphoma
  • eosinophilia is driven by increased eosinophil chemotactic factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Basophilia

A
  • refers to increased circulating basophils

- classically seen in chronic myeloid leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lymphocytic Leukocytosis

A
  • refers to increased circulating lymphocytes
  • viral infections: T lymphocytes undergo hyperplasia in response to virally infected cells
  • Bordetella pertussis infection: bacteria produce lymphocytosis-promoting factor, which blocks circulating lymphocytes from leaving the blood to enter the lymph nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis (IM)

A
  • EBV infection that results in a lymphocytic leukocytosis comprised of reacive CD8+ T cells
  • CMV is a less common cause
  • primarily infects oropharynx, resulting in pharyngitis; liver, resulting in hepatitis with hepatomegaly and elevated liver enzymes; B cells
  • CD8+ T cell response leads to generalized lymphadenopathy due to T-cell hyperplasia in the lymph nodes; splenomegaly due to T-cell hyperplasia in the pariarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS); high WBC count with atypical lymphocytes (reactive CD8+ T cells) in the blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Monospot Test for Mononucleosis

A
  • detects IgM antibodies that cross-react with horse or sheep red blood cells (heterophile antibodies)
  • usually turns positive within 1 week after infection
  • a negative monospot test suggests CMV as a possible cause of IM
  • definitive diagnosis is made by serologic testing for the EBV viral capsid antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Complications of Mononucleosis

A
  • increased risk for splenic rupture; patients are generally advised to avoid contact sports for 1 month
  • rash if exposed to ampicillin
  • dormancy of virus in B cells leads to increased risk for both recurrence and B-cell lymphoma, especially if immunodeficiency (e.g. HIV) develops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Acute Leukemia (Basic Principles)

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of blasts; defined as the accumulation of >20% blasts in the bone marrow
  • increased blasts “crowd-out” normal hematopoiesis, resulting in an “acute” presentation with anemia (fatigue), thrombocytopenia (bleeding), or neutropenia (infection)
  • blasts usually enter the blood stream, resulting in high WBC count
  • blasts are large, immature cells, often with punched out nucleoli
  • acute leukemia is subdivided into acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) or acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) based on the phenotype of the blasts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

A
  • neoplastic accumulation of lymphoblasts (>20%) in the bone marrow
  • lymphoblasts are characterized by positive nuclear staining for TdT, a DNA polymerase
  • TdT is absent in myeloid blasts and mature lymphocytes
  • most commonly arises in children; associated with Down syndrome (usually arises after the age of 5 years)
  • subclassified into B-ALL and T-ALL base don surface markers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

B-ALL

A
  • most common type of ALL
  • usually characterized by lymphoblasts (TdT+) that express CD10, CD19, and CD20
  • excellent response to chemotherapy; requires prophylaxis to scrotum and CSF
  • prognosis is based on cytogenetic abnormalities
  • t(12;21) has a good prognosis; more commonly seen in children
  • t(9;22) has a poor prognosis; more commonly seen in adults (Philadelphia+ALL)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T-ALL

A
  • characterized by lymphoblasts (TdT+) that express markers ranging from CD2 to CD8 (e.g. CD3, CD4, CD7)
  • the blasts do not express CD10
  • usually presents in teenagers as a mediastinal (thymic) mass (called acute lymphoblastic lymphoma because the malignant cells form a mass)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

A
  • neoplastic accumulation of immature myeloid cells (>20%) in the bone marrow
  • myeloblasts are usually characterized by positive cytoplasmic staining for myeloperoxidase (MPO)
  • most commonly arises in older adults (avg 50-60 yrs)
  • subclassification based on cytogenetic abnormalities, lineage of immature myeloid cells, and surface markers
  • AML may also arise from pre-existing dysplasia (myelodysplastic syndromes), especially with prior exposure to alkylating agents or radiotherapy
  • myelodysplastic syndromes usually present with cytopenias, hypercellular bone marrow, abnormal maturation of cells, and increased blasts (<20%)
  • most patients die from infection or bleeding, though some progress to acute leukemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)

A
  • characterized by t(15:17), which involves translocation of the retinoic acid receptor (RAR) on chromosome 17 to chromosome 15; RAR disruption blocks maturation and promyelocytes (blasts) accumulate
  • abnormal promyelocytes contain numerous primary granules that increase the risk for DIC
  • treatment is with all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA, a vitamin A derivative), which binds the altered receptor and causes the blasts to mature (and eventually die)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Acute Monocytic Leukemia

A
  • proliferation of monoblasts; usually lack MPO

- blasts characterstically infiltrate gums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acute Megakaryoblastic Leukemia

A
  • proliferation of megakaryoblasts; lack MPO

- associated with Down syndrome (usually arises before the age of 5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chronic Leukemia (Basic Principles)

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of mature circulating lymphocytes; characterized by a high WBC count
  • usually insidious in onset and seen in older adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of naive B cells that co-express CD5 and CD20
  • increased lymphocytes and smudge cells are seen on blood smear
  • involvement of lymph nodes leads to generalized lymphadenopathy and is called small lymphocytic lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Complications of CLL

A
  • hypogammaglobulinemia: infection is the most common cause of death in CLL
  • autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (Richter transformation) - marked clinically by an enlarging lymph node or spleen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hairy Cell Leukemia

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of mature B cells characterized by hairy cytoplasmic processes
  • cells are positive for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
  • clinical features include splenomegaly (due to accumulation of hairy cells in red pulp) and “dry tap” on bone marrow aspiration (due to marrow fibrosis)
  • lymphadenopathy is usually absent
  • excellent response to 2-CDA (cladribine), an adenosine deaminase inhibitor; adenosine accumulates to toxic levels in neoplastic B cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Adult T-Cell Leukemia/Lymphoma (ATLL)

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T cells
  • associated with HTLV-1
  • most commonly seen in Japan and the Caribbean
  • clinical features include rash (skin infiltration), generalized lymphadenopathy with hepatosplenomegaly, and lytic (punched-out) bone lesions with hypercalcemia
25
Q

Mycosis Fungoides

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T cells that infiltrate the skin, producing localized skin rash, plaques, and nodules
  • aggregates of neoplastic cells in the epidermis are called Pautrier microabscesses
  • cells can spread to involve the blood, producing Sezary syndrome
  • characteristic lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei (Sezary cells) are seen on blood smear
26
Q

Myoproliferative Disorders (MPD) Basic Principles

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of mature cells of myeloid lineage; disease of late adulthood
  • results in high WBC count with hypercellular bone marrow
  • cells of all myeloid lineages are increased
  • classified based on the dominant myeloid cell produced
  • complications include increased risk for hyperuricemia and gout due to high turnover of cells; and progression to marrow fibrosis or transformation to acute leukemia
27
Q

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially granulocytes and their precursors; basophils are characteristically increased
  • drived by t(9;22) (Philadelphia chromosome) which generates a BCR-ABL fusion protein with increased tyrosine kinase activity
  • first-line treatment is imatinib (Gleevac), which blocks tyrosine kinase activity
  • splenomegaly is common
  • enlarging spleen suggests progression to accelerated phase of disease; transformation to acute leukemia usually follows shortly thereafter
  • can transform to AML (2/3 of cases) or ALL (1/3 of cases) since mutation is in a pluripotent stem cell
28
Q

Distinguishing CML from Leukemoid reaction (reactive neutrophilic leukocytosis)

A
  • negative leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain (granulocytes in a leukemoid reaction are LAP positive)
  • increased basophils (absent with leukemoid reaction)
  • t(9;22) (absent in leukemoid reaction)
29
Q

Polycythemia Vera (PV)

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially RBCs
  • granulocytes and platelets are also increased
  • associated with JAK2 kinase mutation
  • clinical symptoms are mostly due to hyperviscosity of blood
  • blurry vision
  • increased risk of venous thrombosis (e.g. hepatic vein, portal vein, and dural sinus)
  • flushed face due to congestion (plethora)
  • itching, especially after bathing (due to histamine release from increased mast cells)
  • treatment is phlebotomy; second-line therapy is hydroxyurea
  • without treatment, death usually occurs within one year
  • PV must be distinguished from reactive polycythemia
30
Q

Distinguishing Between PV and Reactive Polycythemia

A
  • in PV, EPO levels are decreased, and SaO2 is normal
  • in reactive polycythemia due to high altitude or lung disease, SaO2 is low, and EPO is increased
  • in reactive polycythemia due to ectopic EPO production from renal cell carcinoma, EPO is high, and SaO2 is normal
31
Q

Essential Thrombocythemia (ET)

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially platelets
  • RBCs and granulocytes are also increased
  • associated with JAK2 kinase mutation
  • symptoms are related to an increased risk of bleeding and/or thrombosis
  • rarely progresses to marrow fibrosis or acute leukemia
  • no significant risk for hyperuricemia or gout
32
Q

Myelofibrosis

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially megakaryocytes
  • associated with JAK2 kinase mutation (50% of cases)
  • megakaryocytes produce excess platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) causing marrow fibrosis
  • clinical features include splenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis; leukoerythroblastic smear (tear-drop RBCs, nucleated RBCs, and immature granulocytes); increased risk of infection, thrombosis, and bleeding
33
Q

Lymphadenopathy (LAD) Basic Principles

A
  • refers to enlarged lymph nodes
  • painful LAD is usually seen in lymph nodes that are draining a region of acute infection (acute lymphadenitis)
  • painless LAD can be seen with chronic inflammation (chronic lymphadenitis), metastatic carcinoma, or lymphoma
  • in inflammation, lymph node enlargement is due to hyperplasia of particular regions of lymph node
  • follicular hyperplasia (B-cell region) is seen with rheumatoid arthritis and early stages of HIV infection, for example
  • paracortex hyperplasia (T-cell region) is seen with viral infections (e.g. infectious mononucleosis)
  • hyperplasia of sinus histiocytes is seen in lymph nodes that are draining a tissue with cancer
34
Q

Lymphoma Basic Principles

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of lymphoid cells that forms a mass; may arise in a lymph node or in extranodal tissue
  • divided into non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL, 60%) and Hodgkin lymphoma (HL, 40%)
  • NHL is further classified based on cell type (e.g. B versus T), cell size, pattern of cell growht, expression of surface markers, and cytogenetic translocations
  • small B cells: follicular lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma, marginal zone lymphoma, and small lymphocytic lymphoma (i.e. CLL cells that involve tissue)
  • intermediate-sized B cells: Burkitt lymphoma
  • large B cells - diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
35
Q

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

A
  • Overall Frequency: 60%
  • Malignant Cells: lymphoid cells
  • Composition of Mass: lymphoid cells
  • Clinical: painless lymphadenopathy, usually arises in late adulthood
  • Spread: diffuse; often extranodal
  • Staging: limited importance
  • Leukemic Phase: occurs
36
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

-Overall Frequency: 40%
-Malignant Cells: Reed-Sternberg cells
-Composition of Mass: predominantly reactive cells (inflammatory cells and fibrosis)
-Clinical: painless lymphadenopathy occasionally with “B” symptoms, usually arises in young adults
-Spread: contiguous; rarely extranodal
-Staging: guides therapy; radiation is the mainstay of treatment
Leukemic Phase: does not occur

37
Q

Follicular Lymphoma

A
  • subtype of non-Hodgkin lymphoma
  • neoplastic proliferation of small B cells (CD20+) that form follicle-like nodules
  • presents in late adulthood with painless lymphadenopathy
  • driven by t(14;18)
  • BCL2 on chrom. 18 translocates to the Ig heavy chain locus on chrom. 14
  • results in overexpression of Bcl2, which inhibits apoptosis
  • treatment is reserved for patients who are symptomatic and involves low-dose chemotherapy or rituximab
  • progression to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma is an important complication; presents as an enlarging lymph node
38
Q

Rituximab

A

-anti-CD20 antibody

39
Q

Distinguishing Follicular Lymphoma from Reactive Follicular Hyperplasia

A
  • subtype of non-Hodgkin lymphoma
  • follicular lymphoma has disruption of normal lymph node architecture (maintained in follicular hyperplasia)
  • follicular lymphoma has lack of tingible body macrophages in germinal centers (tingible body macrophages are present in follicular hyperplasia)
  • follicular lymphoma has Bcl2 expression in follicles (not expressed in follicular hyperplasia)
  • follicular lymphoma has monoclonality (follicular hyperplasia is polyclonal)
40
Q

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

A
  • subtype of non-Hodgkin lymphoma
  • neoplastic proliferation of small B cells (CD20+) that expands the mantle zone
  • presents in late adulthood with painless lymphadenopathy
  • driven by t(11;14)
  • cyclin D1 gene on chrom. 11 translocates to Ig heavy chain locus on chrom. 14
  • overexpression of cyclin D1 promotes G1/S transition in the cell cycle, facilitating neoplastic proliferation
41
Q

Marginal Zone Lymphoma

A
  • subtype of non-Hodgkin lymphoma
  • neoplastic proliferation of small B cells (CD20+) that expands the marginal zone
  • associated with chronic inflammatory states such as Hashimoto thyroiditis, Sjogren syndrome, and H pylori gastritis
  • the marginal zone is formed by post-germinal center B cells
  • MALToma is marginal zone lympoma in mucosal sites
  • gastric MALToma may regress with treatment of H Pylori
42
Q

Burkitt Lymphoma

A
  • subtype of non-Hodgkin lymphoma
  • neoplastic proliferation of intermediate-sized B cells (CD20+)
  • associated with EBV
  • classically presents as an extranodal mass in a child or young adult
  • African form usually involves the jaw
  • sporadic form usually involves the abdomen
  • driven by translocations of c-myc (chrom. 8)
  • t(8;14) is most common, resulting in translocation of c-myc to the Ig heavy chain locus on chrom. 14
  • overexpression of c-myc oncogene promotes cell growth
  • characterized by high mitotic index and “starry-sky” appearance on microscopy
43
Q

Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma

A
  • subtype of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (most common form)
  • neoplastic proliferation of large B cells (CD20+) that grow diffusely in sheets
  • clinically aggressive (high-grade)
  • arises sporadically or from transformation of a low-grade lymphoma (e.g. follicular lymphoma)
  • presents in late adulthood as an enlarging lymph node or an extranodal mass
44
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) Basic Principles

A
  • neoplastic proliferation of Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells, which are large B cells with multilobed nuclei and prominent nucleoli (“owl-eyed nuclei”)
  • classically positive for CD15 and CD30
  • RS cells secrete cytokines
  • occasionally results in “B” symptoms
  • attract reactive lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, and eosinophils
  • may lead to fibrosis
  • reactive inflammatory cells make up a bulk of the tumor and form the basis for classification of HL
45
Q

“B” Symptoms

A
  • fevers
  • chills
  • weight loss
  • night sweats
46
Q

Nodular Sclerosis Hodgkin Lymphoma

A
  • nodular sclerosis is the most common subtype of HL (70% of all cases)
  • classic presentation is an enlarging cervical or mediastinal lymph node in a young adult, usually female
  • lymph node is divided by bands of sclerosis
  • RS cells are present in lake-like spaces (lacunar cells)
47
Q

Subtypes of Hodgkin Lymphoma

A
  • nodular sclerosis
  • lymphocyte-rich
  • mixed cellularity
  • lymphocyte-depleted
48
Q

Lymphocyte-Rich HL

A

-has the best prognosis

49
Q

Mixed Cellularity HL

A

-is often associated with abundant eosinophils (RS cells produce IL-5)

50
Q

Lymphocyte-Depleted HL

A
  • the most aggressive of all types

- usually seen in the elderly and HIV-positive individuals

51
Q

Multiple Myeloma

A
  • malignant proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow
  • most common primary malignancy of bone; metastatic cancer, however, is the most common malignant lesion of bone overall
  • high serum IL-6 may be present; stimulates plasma cell growth and immunoglobulin production
52
Q

Clinical Features of Multiple Myeloma

A
  • bone pain with hypercalcemia: neoplastic plasma cells activate the RANK receptor on osteoclasts, leading to bone destruction… lytic, “punched-out” skeletal lesions are seen on x-ray, especially in the vertebrae and skull; increased risk for fracture
  • elevated serum protein: neoplastic plasma cells produce immunoglobulin: M spike is present on serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP), most commonly due to monoclonal IgG or IgA
  • increased risk of infection: monoclonal antibody lacks antigenic diversity; infection is the most common cause of death in multiple myeloma
  • Rouleaux formation of RBCs on blood smear: increased serum protein decreases charge between RBCs
  • primary AL amyloidosis: free light chains circulate in serum and deposit in tissues
  • proteinuria: free light chain is excreted in the urine as Bence Jones protein; deposition in kidney tubules leads to risk for renal failure (myeloma kidney)
53
Q

Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance (MGUS)

A

-increased serum protein with M spike on SPEP; other features of multiple myeloma are absent (e.g. no lytic bone lesions, hypercalcemia, AL amyloid, or Bence Jones proteinuria)

54
Q

Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

A
  • B-cell lymphoma with monoclonal IgM production
  • generalized lymphadenopathy; lytic bone lesions are absent
  • increased serum protein with M spike (comprised of IgM)
  • visual and neurologic deficits (e.g. retinal hemorrhage or stroke) - IgM (large pentamer) causes serum hyperviscosity
  • bleeding: viscous serum results in defective platelet aggregation
  • acute complications are treated with plasmapheresis, which removes IgM from the serum
55
Q

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (Basic Principles)

A
  • Langerhans cells are specialized dendritic cells found predominantly in the skin
  • derived from bone marrow monocytes
  • present antigen to naive T cells
  • Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells
  • characteristic Birbeck (tennis racket) granules are seen on electron microscopy
  • cells are CD1a+ and S100+ by immunohistochemistry
56
Q

Letterer-Siwe Disease

A
  • malignant proliferation of Langerhans cells
  • classic presentation is skin rash and cystic skeletal defects in an infant (<2 years old)
  • multiple organs may be involved; rapidly fatal
57
Q

Eosinophilic Granuloma

A
  • benign proliferation of Langerhans cells in bone
  • classic presentation is pathologic fracture in an adolescent; skin is not involved
  • biopsy shows Langerhans cells with mixed inflammatory cells, including numerous eosinophils
58
Q

Hand-Schuller-Christian Disease

A
  • malignant proliferation of Langerhans cells

- classic presentation is scalp rash, lytic skull defects, diabetes insipidus, and exophthalmos in a child