White Blood Cell Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Chediak Higashi Syndrome

A

CHS1 (LYST) gene mutation

Lysosome defect in WBCs and other cells (platelets, neurons, etc.)

Very large inclusions

Poor phagocytosis

Related to albinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MYH9 Related Disorders

A

May Hegglin (and Sebastion, fletcher,epstein… now all included)

Large Platelets, thrombocytopenia, hearing loss, cataracts, glomerulonephritis

Dohle bodies (endoplasmic reticulum, RNA)

NORMAL FUNCTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alder Reilly Anomaly

A

no lysosomes to break down mucopolysaccharides. (Hurler’s, Hunters)

Dense Metachromatic granules
in all WBCs

PAS+

Autosomal Recessive

NORMAL NEUTROPHILS

Can get some of these in MDS, but would not be all the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pelger-Huet anomaly

A

Bi-lobed nucleus neutrophils

neutrophils NORMAL

No clinical significance

Autosomal dominant, with laminin B receptor mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AML 15:17 translocation

A

15 : 17 Translocation
Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
Severe DIC association
Creates fusion protein: PML-RAR alpha blocks maturation beyond promyelocyte
Therapy: Al-trans retenoic acid
Die in 90% cases if not treated. 90% survive with treatment

BI-lobed nucleus

variants:
hyper granular - can have auer rods

micro granular -granules too small my light microscopy (may have auer rods too)

CD13, 33, 117 (typically lack blast markers 34 and DR)
CD2 in micro granular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AML 8:21

A

good prognosis

core binding factor brings core binding factor to eto

associated with M2

CD19, PAX5, CD56

may have less than 20% blasts but still counts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AML Inversion 16

A

good prognosis

core bind factor beta with smooth muscle myosin heavy chain

AML M4 (myelomonocytic with eosinophils)

increase eosinophils (may have basophil granules too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AML 9:11

A

mixed lineage
monocytes differentiation
seen with trisomy 8
most commonly in kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AML 6:9

A

dec and muc214
basophilia
multilineage dysplasia
pancytopenia
FLT3
poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AML Inversion 3

A

increase bone marrow megakaryocytles hyperlobated

poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AML 1:22

A

m7

organomegaly

hepatosplenomegaly

associated with down syndrome

transient abnormal myelopoiesis early in life (does not progress)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ALL 4:11

A

negative for CD10
coexpressions of myeloid antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ALL hyper diploid or 12:21

A

children

25% of kids with ALL

good prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ALL 9:22

A

adults (25%)

philadelphia chromosome

poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T cell ALL :

A

mutations in T cell receptors

notch1 activating in 50% of pediatric cases - good prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CML 9:22

A

philadelphia chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

JAK2 activation

A

tyrosine kinase that intracellular mediates intracellular signaling

ErythroPoietin, Thrombopoietin

polycythemia vera (90%) and others around 50% (ET, PMF)

usually V617F mutation, but a few are exon12 or exon13

not a prognostic marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CD56

A

Natural Killer Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CD3+ , CD4-, CD8-

A

Gamma/Delta T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CD 117

A

highly specific for myeloid leukemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Myeloblasts

A

typically positive for MPO, CD13, CD33, and CD117

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hairy Cell Leukemia

A

Strong CD20+, CD25+, annexing A1 +

bone marrow fibrosis common

monocytosis common

usually no adenopathy

spleen, peripheral blood, bone marrow, and the liver

The phenotype of HCL is CD20 +, CD25 +, CD103 +, and tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Follicular Lymphoma

A

BCL2 rearrangement, CD10 +
t14:18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Burkets Lymphoma

A

MYC rearrangment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

A

t(11:14)(q13;q32) in CCND1-IGH

26
Q

DLBCL

A

t(3;14)(q27:q32) BCL6-IGH

CD10- (germinal center)

fast grow, necrosis

27
Q

CLL

A

CD5+ , CD23, CD20 dim, low or undetectable Ig light changes

13q- favorable (other changes unfavorable)

commonly transforms to DLBCL (Richter transformation)

28
Q

NK Cells

A

CD 4+ , CD8 - , CD3- , CD56!

29
Q

Gamma Delta Cells

A

CD3+, CD4-, CD8-

30
Q

Mixed Lineage Lymphoma

A

CD10-, CD15+

31
Q

Mycosis fungicides and Sezary syndrom

A

CD2+, CD5+, cd3+, cd4+, loss of CD7
MF - indolent
SS - poor prognosis, depends on PB skin, lymphoma node involved

32
Q

CD45

A

positive on all cells except erythrocytes, so used to do initial gate for white cells

mature express brightly, immature dim

blast gate is low side scatter and dim 45

33
Q

HLH

A

soluble cd25

34
Q

Systemic mastocytocis

A

CD2 or CD25 positive mast cells

Activating mutations of KIT

Elevated serum tryptase

35
Q

Gaucher Disease

A

Tissue paper cytoplasm with striations

Glucoceroroside accumulation

Glucocerorosidase deficiency

36
Q

Niemann-Pick Dz.

A

Foamy macrophages

vacuolated cytoplasm

Sphingomyelin accumulation

Sphingomyelinase deficiency

37
Q

Hematogones

A

Benign B cell Precusors in Bone marrow

recovering marrows, pediatric patients

“Blastlike”

Flow - look for maturation of CD20 (some have it, more get it as they get older)

Versus B-ALL - no loss of CD10

38
Q

Cytochemistry PAS

A
  • PAS for lymphoblasts with block positivity.
  • weakly and diffusely for myeloblasts
39
Q

Cytochemistry Myeloid

A
  • MPO
    • myeloid only
    • enzyme degrades with time
  • Sudan Black B
    • stains lipids for myeloid
  • Non-specific esterase
    • Alpha-naphl butyrate and acetate
    • Monocytes
40
Q

AML with Recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities

A
  • exception to rule of needing 20% blasts
  • t(15:17) PML-RARA
  • RUNX1-RUNX1T1
  • Inv 16
  • AML w/BRC-ABL fusions
41
Q

Acute Myelomonocytic

A
  • both myeloid and monocyte
  • > 20% blasts includes promonocytes
  • > 20% neutrophils and myeloid precussors
  • > 20% monocytes and promonocytles
  • CD4, CD16
  • some cells folded (monocytes), some myeloid
  • Gingival hypertrophy
42
Q

Acute Monoblastic and Monocytic Leukemia

A
  • > 80% of cells are monocytic
    • M5a - > 80% of these are blasts
    • M5b - < 80% of these are blasts
  • Myelomonocytics antigens expressed
43
Q

Pure Erythroid Leukemia

A
  • cytoplasmic vacuoles
  • dark blue cytoplasm
  • positive e-cadhedrin, glycophorin, CD71
  • >80% cells are erythroid
  • >30% erytroblasts
  • No myeloblastic component
    *
44
Q

Acute Megakaryoblastic Leukemia

A
  • 20% blasts, 50% are megakaryoblasts
  • small cytoplasm, blebbing
  • reticulin fibrosis
  • lots of megakaryocytles
  • CD41, CD42, CD 61
45
Q

B-lymphoblastic leukemia lymphoma

A
  • Mostly children < 6 y.o.
  • good prognosis children
  • poor prognosis adults
  • usually presents in PB and BM
  • overall better survival than t-cell
46
Q

B-ALL Phenotype

A
  • Blasts, TdT, CD34
  • B-cell markers (CD19, CD20 may be negative)
  • CD10 +/- , CD45 usually negative
  • Surface Immunoglobulins usually negative
  • Aberrant co-expressions of myeloid markers (CD13, CD15, CD 33 is common and should not be confused with AML)
    *
47
Q

T-lyphoblastic lymphoma/leukemia

A
  • Children or adults
  • mediastinal mass presenting often
  • TdT+
  • Variable expression: CD1a, CD99, CD2, CD3, CD4, CD5, CD7, CD8
  • CD4+ CD8+, CD4- CD8-
  • CD7 and cCD3 are most often +
  • CD13 and CD33 often present (myeloid)
  • Rare CD117 (myeloid) CD79a (b-cell)
48
Q

T-ALL Genetics

A
  • 30% have translocations involving T-cell receptor on chromosomes 7 and 15
  • Partner genes of fusions: Myc, TAL, etc.)
  • Notch mutations t(7:9)
49
Q

Essential Thrombocythemia

A
  • MPN with proliferation of megakaryocytles and sustained thrombocytosis
  • > 450,000 platelets
  • hemorrhage or thrombosis
  • good prognosis
50
Q

Polycythemia Vera

A
  • Hgb > 16.5M 16.0W
  • Jak2 Mutation
  • Hypercellular bone marrow
  • 3 phases
    • prepolycythemic
    • overt polycythemic
    • spent phase
      • cytopenias, fibrosis
  • Lab tests:
    • Low EPO
    • Endogenous erythroid colony formation
51
Q

Primary Myelofibrosis

A
  • A BAD myeloproliferative disorder! (worse than ET, PV)
  • Megakaryocyte and granuloctyle proliferation leads to fibrosis
  • Mutations JAK2 V617F 50%, 25% CALR, 5% MPL
  • Peripheral Blood
    • Leukoerythroblastic reaction (leukoblasts and nucleated red cells)
    • Teardrop cells (dacrocytes)
  • Bone marrow usually fibrotic
    • atypical megas
    • osteosclerocis
  • There is a pro-fibrotic phase
52
Q

CML BCR-ABL+

A
  • Defined by BCR-ABL t(9:22) Philadelphia chromosome
  • FISH or RT-PCR must be performed if cytogenetics is negative
  • Presentation
    • median age 50 yo
    • splenomegaly (70%), anemia, fatigue, weight loss
    • LAP Score decreased (increased in leukomoid and other MPNs)
  • CML is Peripheral blood diagnosis
  • leukocytosis >50,000
  • myeloid cells at all stages of development
    • myeloid bulge
    • basophilia
  • Do a bone marrow to establish phase of disease
    • Chronic <10% blasts
    • Accelerated 10-19%
    • Blast phase > 20% blasts OR extrameduallary blasts
      • 70% myeloid
      • 30% lymphoid
    • Hypercellular, myeloid hyperplasia, left shift, small megas, clustered
  • Molecular:
    • constitutional tyrosine kinase activity
    • use inhibitors for tx:
      • imatinib, nolotinib, dasatinib
    • RT-PCR used for minimal residual disease
    • ABL1 Kinase mutations may decrase effectiveness of tx
    • Major Breakpoint 210 kD (minor 190 kD seen in ALL and CNL)
53
Q

Myelodysplastic Syndrome

A
  • Ineffective hematopoiesis, cytopenias, dysplasia in one or more myeloid lineages
  • <20% blasts
  • dysplasia >10% of cells
  • ringed sideroblasts (iron in mitochondria)
  • can go on to AML
  • increased infection and bleeding from low platelets
  • can have hypercellular marrow
  • CD 34 shows increased blasts (but less than 20%)
  • tend to see numeric gains and losses in chromosome segments (-5, -5q, -7, -8, etc..)
    • if more than 3 abnormalities, poor prognosis
    • isolated -5q, -Y, -20 good prognosis, others bad
  • translocations rare
  • chromosome 7 abnormalities poor prognosis
  • Flow not used for diagnosis
    *
54
Q

Juvenile Myelomonocytic leukemia

A
  • Childhood proliferation of myelomonocytic cells
  • RAS, MAPK, NRAS, KRAS, NF1 , CBL, PTPNF11
  • Monosomy 7 most common
  • increased in patients with neurofibromatosis (noonans syndrome)
  • poor prognosis
  • Dx:
    • Monocytes > 1000
    • <20% blasts
    • no BCR-ABL
    • splenomegaly
    • increase HgF
55
Q

t(11;14)(q13;q32)

A

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

56
Q

t(11;18)(q21;q21)

A

MALT

57
Q

t(14;20)

A

Multiple Myeloma

other mutations as well t(11;14) is good prognosis

14q32 (IGH) rearrangements seems in 50%\

addition of 1q deletion is poor prognosis

also trisomies of odd numbered chromosomes

58
Q

t(x;18)

A

Synovial sarcoma

59
Q

Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma, ALK+

A

t(2;5)

best prognosis in children

60
Q

t(3;14)

A

DLBCL