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OPOT 4002 > wew > Flashcards

wew Flashcards

1
Q

Optic nerve lesions

A
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1
Q

2 findings and diagnose

A
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2
Q

Diagnose and 2 complications

A
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3
Q

Label

A
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4
Q

Diagnose

A

OCP

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5
Q

Diagnose

A

SJS/TEN

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6
Q

What is this and its condition

A

GPC, VKC

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7
Q

Diagnose

A

Bacterial keratitis

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8
Q

What can be seen, diagnose

A

Ring infiltration, acanthomoea keratitis

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9
Q

Diagnose, manage

A

Endothelial disciform

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10
Q

What is seen, diagnose

A

Mutton KPs, keratouveitis (HSV)

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11
Q

MOA

A
  1. Binds glucocorticoid receptors in cytoplasm
  2. Pred.-GR complex moves to nucleus and regulates gene expression
    Phospholipase A2 inhibition and downregulation of IL cytokines
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12
Q

Acyclovir and ganciclovir:

A

Antiviral prodrug, metabolized by viral enzymes to acyclovir/ganciclovir triphosphate
1. Competes with dGTP for incorporation into viral DNA
2. Chain terminator for DNA formation / Faulty DNA replication
Viral enzymes have higher affinity for acyclovir than host cells
- HSV: 3% ointment 5/d (up to 10d)
- HSV: 400mg 5/d (up to 10d)
- HZO: 800mg 5/d (up to 10d)
Ganciclovir has high affinity for cyclomegalovirus enzymes, but also affects host cells moreso than acyclovir

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13
Q

Cyclosporin:

A

Immunosuppressive, used when cortico. non-response or risk
Lipophilic ^Penetration
1. Binds cytoplasmic protein cyclophilin
2. CC complex inhibits calcineurin, which normally
1. Protein phosphate for T-cell activation
2. processes transcription factors for IL-2
Commercially used for organ transplant
Side effects:
- HT, kidney damage

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14
Q

Antiglaucoma drugs:

A
  1. B-blockers: First line for POAG > and all others
    inhibit B-adrenergic receptors in ciliary body > decreased aqueous production
    Ocular iritation, corneal desens, DED, macular edema
    Bronchospasm, cough, arrythmia, headache, nausea
    Contra. chronic obstructive PD, asthma, Bradycardia
    1. Non-selective (B-1/2)
      1. Timolol/Levobunolol
        0.25% BID, IOP decreases 25%
    2. Selective (B-1)
      1. Betaxolol
        • Less side effect; less efficacy
  2. Prost-analogues: All but uveitis glauc: Greater IOP reduction, causes inflammtion
    Prodrug metabolized by corneal esterase > binds PGF2a receptor on ciliary muscle > ECM remodeling/MMP regulation > increase uveoscleral outflow
    Iris heterochromia, lid pigmentation, lash lengthening, redness, SPEE
    Contra. Ocular inflammation (HSK), CMO, allergy
    1. Latanoprost (Xalantan)
    0.005% daily, IOP decreased 30%
    1. Bimatoprost (Lumigan): 0.03%
    2. Travoprost (Travatan): 0.004%
  3. Adrenergic-agonist:
    Stimulate A-2 receptors > adenylate cyclase inhibition > decreased cMAP in ciliary cells > aqueous production loss
    Stimulation of A-1 receptor > vasoconstriction of CB vessels > reduced aqueous production
    • Photophobia, blur, stinging
    • Dry mouth, hypotension, fatigue
      1. Apraclonidine: selective A2 (weak A1)
        0.5% BID, IOP decrease 20%
        Causes tachyphylaxis
  4. Carbonic anhydrase inhib: CA is critical for aqueous formation
    Decreases bicarbonate ion formation > reduced fluid transport in ciliary epith.
    Causes blood acidosis, renal stones, metalic taste, confusion
    Contra. Heart/kidney disease
    1. Acetazolamide (Diamox/Diazamide): IV for Rapid IOP decrease, oral otherwise
    250mg BID, 20% decrease by 4h
    500mg IV, 20% decrease by 30min
    1. Dorzolamide (trusopt): topical, fewer systemic affects
      2% 3/d, 20% IOP decrease
  5. Hyperosmotics: ^Plasma osmolarity > fluid uptake from ocular tissue
    Nausea, heart faliure, confusion, kertoacidosis
    Contra. DM
    1. Glycerol: oral dose 4ml/kg
      20 onset, poor ocular penetration
    2. Mannitol: 20%
      Not contra. for renal faliure (no renal metabolism)
  6. Cholinergic agonist: Stimulate muscarinic receptors in CB > Miosis > TM opening > increased outflow
    Accomodative spasm, pupil block, cataract
    Contra. cataract, myopia, young Px
    1. Pilocarpine: 2% QID, 15% IOP decrease
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15
Q

diagnose

A

RP

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16
Q

Diagnose

A

PAC

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17
Q

label

A
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18
Q

diagnose

A

Acute Angle Closure

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19
Q

Diagnose, assoc. condition

A

Bleb, blebitis

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20
Q

Diagnose

A

Baerveldt implant for glaucoma

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21
Q

diagnose, manage

A

NPDR and PDR
Needs PRP

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22
Q

what Sx was this

A

penetrating keratoplasty

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23
Q

what Sx was this

A

DSEK
Decemets stripping endtoh. kerat.

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24
Q

Diagnose

A

retinoblastoma

25
Q

Diagnose

A

AMD

26
Q

Diagnose

A

dry > wet AMD

27
Q

Diagnose based on oct

A

Dry > wet amd

28
Q

what am i looking at

A

Type 1,2,1+2 Macula NV

29
Q

this

A

AMD

30
Q

This and its condition

A

Pneumatic displacement ARMD management; AMD mac haem

31
Q

this

A

Subretinal TPA retinotomy to manage ARMD; and its resolution

32
Q

this

A

diffuse > nodular episcleritis

33
Q

this

A

anterior scleritis

34
Q

this

A

Diffuse;
Nodular
Anterior scleritis

35
Q

this; and its U/cause

A

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy; GCA

36
Q

This

A

NAION; and fellow disc at risk

37
Q

this

A

Choroidal melanoma and progression

38
Q

This and how to differentiate

A

Nevis;
Thickness > 2mmm
SRF
Visual symptoms
Orange pigment
3mm of OD
Hollow
No drusen

39
Q
A

Papilledema

40
Q

This and what it shows

A

Pseud-oedema
Elevation only at disc, sharp NFL reflex, no CWS

41
Q
A

Atrophic stage of papilledema

42
Q
A

Nodular > nonulcerative BCC

43
Q
A

lipid keratopathy;
Yellow/creamy

44
Q
A

Pellucid marginal generation

45
Q
A

acute anterior uveitis

46
Q
A

Synechiae W/acute anterior uveitis

47
Q
A

Papillary and nodular OSSN

48
Q
A

FFA of sarcoidosis w/peripheral ischemia and NV

FFA of CMO

49
Q
A

masquerade

50
Q
A

Multiple evanascent white dot syndrome

51
Q
A

tocoplasmosis

52
Q
A

Toxocarasis

53
Q
A

Acute retinal necrosis

54
Q
A

CMV retinitis

55
Q
A

TB posterior uveitis

56
Q
A

Acute posterior multifocal placoid pigmentary epitheliopathy
(APMPPE)

57
Q
A

Multiple evanescent white dot syndrome (MEWDS)

58
Q
A

Punctate inner choroidopathy (PIC)

59
Q
A

Birdshot choroidopathy

60
Q
A

Serpiginous choroidopathy

61
Q
A

Progressive outer retinal necrosis

OPOT 4002 (6 decks)

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