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CWI Prep > Welding Inspection Technologies > Flashcards

Welding Inspection Technologies Flashcards

1
Q

AWS D15.1 covers __________

A

Railroad Welding Code

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2
Q

SMAW Electrode Identification Low Hydrogen

A

5, 6, and 8

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3
Q

SMAW Electrode Identification Positions

1

2

4

A

1 - All Postions

2- Flat Position Only

4- Downhill Progression

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4
Q

Describe SMAW Electrode Identification System

EXXXX - E7018

First 2 XX

3rd X

4th X

A

First 2 XX - Tensile Strength

3rd X - Position

4th X - Coating Operating Characteristics

E7018

Electrode Rod

70,000 PSI Tensile Strength

1- All Positions

8- Low Hydrogen

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5
Q

AWS D1.5 covers __________

A

Bridge Welding Code

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6
Q

You must have a high school diploma to become a CWI

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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7
Q

Describe FCAW Electrode Designation:

EXXT-X / E71T-5
First X

2nd X

3rd X

A

E - Electrode

First X - Tensile Strength 70,000 PSI

2nd X - Position

0- flat or horizontal only

1- All Postions

3rd X - Chemical Composition

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8
Q

Of the following, which is a noncontact welding process, requires no electrodes, and is not influenced by the presence of magnetic fields:

a. EBW
b. PAW
c. LBW
d. A and B
e. none of the above

A

c. LBW

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9
Q

Notch toughness and impact strength are not synonymous:

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

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10
Q

The brinell hardness test is always a destructive test:

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

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11
Q

When should the applicable job documents be reviewed:

a. after the job is complete
b. before welding begins
c. at any time when information is necessary
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

e. b and c

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12
Q

What resolution sensitivity is normally required for RT:

a. 2%
b. 4%
c. 5%
d. 7%
e. 9%

A

a. 2%

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13
Q

Which is the best technique for orienting magnetic lines of force when conducting MT:

a. two directions
b. single direction
c. residual magnetism
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

a. two directions

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14
Q

Which NDT method uses an alternating current coil:

a. MT
b. UT
c. ET
d. a and c
e. b and c

A

d. a and c

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15
Q

Which NDT method is considered to be a true volumetric test:

a. RT
b. UT
c. PT
d. MT
e. VT

A

b. UT

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is correct for radiographic testing:

a. a reduction in thickness will produce a lighter image on the film
b. a low density discontinuity will produce a lighter image on the film
c. a high density discontinuity will produce a lighter image on the film
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

c. a high density discontinuity will produce a lighter image on the film

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17
Q

Which of the following magnetizing methods can produce a lngitudinal magnetic field:

a. head shot
b. coil shot
c. yoke
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

e. b and c

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18
Q

What MT technique could be used for the discovery of longitudinal flaws:

a. head shot
b. side shot
c. coil shot
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

a. head shot

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19
Q

Which of the following is a base metal discontinuity that is associated with stresses induced from welding:

a. lamination
b. lamellar tear
c. seam
d. pipe shrinkage
e. none of the above

A

b. lamellar tear

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20
Q

Underbead cracks can result from which of the following weld practices:

a. use of wet electrode
b. welding on contaminated steels
c. welding over paint
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

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21
Q

The process whereby nitrogen diffuses into the surface of carbon steel:

a. sensitization
b. nitrogen removal
c. carburizing
d. nitriding
e. none of the above

A

d. nitriding

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22
Q

The offset method is used for determining which property:

a. yield strength
b. tensile strength
c. hardness
d. fatigue strength
e. impact strength

A

a. yield strength

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23
Q

Gage marks on a tensile specimen are:

a. scratches caused by improper handling
b. marks caused by using a gage to measure sample area
c. spaced a set distance apart
d. used for calculating percent elongation
e. c and d

A

e. c and d

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24
Q

Welding metallurgy is concerned with the changes in the metals during welding:

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

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25
Q

Metals can diffuse into each other when both are in solid form:

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

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26
Q

Hydrogen can diffuse into a solid metal at room temperature:

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

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27
Q

Metals must be molten for diffusion to occur:

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

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28
Q

Sensitization, or carbide precipitation, of austenitic stainless steels can be reduced by which of the following methods:

a. solution annealing, water quenching
b. using stabalized grades containing titanium or niobium (columbium)
c. using the low carbon grades of stainless steel
d. all of the above
e. using high carbon stainless steels

A

d. all of the above

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29
Q

Stainless steels are defined as having at least what percent chromium:

a. 7%
b. 12%
c. 15%
d. 20%
e. 30%

A

b. 12%

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30
Q

Which of the following results in the softest condition for carbon steel:

a. annealing
b. quenching
c. stress relieving
d. tempering
e. normalizing

A

a. annealing

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31
Q

Which of the following can be accomplished using either thermal or mechanical techniques:

a. annealing
b. tempering
c. quenching
d. stress relieving
e. none of the above

A

d. stress relieving

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32
Q

Which of the following usually follows quenching:

a. tempering
b. stress relieving
c. normalizing
d. annealing
e. none of the above

A

a. tempering

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33
Q

Steel exists in which of the following crystal structures:

a. HCP
b. FCC
c. BCC
d. all of the above
e. BCT

A

d. all of the above

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34
Q

The process where carbon is added to the surface of a steel to harden it is:

a. decarburizing
b. pack carburizing
c. precipitation hardening
d. quenching
e. none of the above

A

b. pack carburizing

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35
Q

One way the atoms are added to a pure metal to form an alloy is:

a. peening
b. substitutionally
c. automatically
d. solidification
e. sensitizing

A

b. substitutionally

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36
Q

Atoms in the solid (frozen) state:

a. have a specific “home” position
b. have no distinct structure
c. are essentially fixed in a definite structured position
d. a and c
e. none of the above

A

d. a and c

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37
Q

Steel heated above the lower traansformation temperature (A1) will change metallurgical structure. This temperature is:

a. 1333° F
b. 9333° F
c. 1560° F
d. 3600° F
e. none of the above

A

a. 1333° F

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38
Q

What heat treatment is characterized by holding the part at the austenitizing temperature for some time and then cooling in still air:

a. normalizing
b. quenching
c. annealing
d. tempering
e. stress relief

A

a. normalizing

39
Q

What heat treatment is characterized by holding the part at the austenitizing temperature for some time and then slow cooling in the furnace:

a. normalizing
b. quenching
c. annealing
d. tempering
e. stress relief

A

c. annealing

40
Q

Which of the following changes will warrant an addition or increase in the required preheat:

a. decreased carbon contact
b. increased carbon content
c. increased base metal thickness
d. a and c
e. b and c

A

e. b and c

41
Q

When rapid cooling produces a mertensitic structure, what sub-critical heat treatment may be applied to improve the ductility of the steel:

a. quenching
b. tempering
c. annealing
d. normalizing
e. none of the above

A

b. tempering

42
Q

Very slow cooling of steel may result in production of a soft, ductile microstructure which has a lamellar appearance when viewed under high magnification. this stucture is reffered to as:

a. martensite
b. pearlite
c. bainite
d. ferrite
e. cementite

A

b. pearlite

43
Q

Rapid quenching of steel from the austenitic range results in a hard, brittle structure known as:

a. pearlite
b. carbide
c. cementite
d. ironite
e. martensite

A

e. martensite

44
Q

The type of alloying in which the alloy atoms are located in the spaces between the atoms of the parent metal is referred to as:

a. atomic alloying
b. substitutional alloying
c. space alloying
d. interstitial alloying
e. none of the above

A

d. interstitial alloying

45
Q

Which of the following is not a method used to eliminate or reduce residual stresses:

a. vibratory stress relief
b. external restraint
c. thermal stress relief
d. peening
e. annealing

A

b. external restraint

46
Q

Phosphorous and sulfur are added to carbon steel to improve:

a. ductility
b. toughness
c. weldability
d. impact strength
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

47
Q

For plain carbon steels, their approximate ten sile strength can be estimated by multiplying their BHN by:

a. 400
b. 300
c. 100
d. 200
e. 500

A

e. 500

48
Q

The fillet weld break test is used to evaluate the:

a. quality of the fractured weld
b. ductility of the weld metal
c. impact strength of the weld
d. tensile strength of the base metal
e. none of the above

A

a. quality of the fractured weld

49
Q

With respect to rolling direction of steel plate manufacture, which which statement is true:

a. the strength is highest in the Z direction
b. the strength is lowest in the X direction
c. the strength is highest in the X direction
d. the strength is highest in the Y direction
e. the strength is lowest in the y direction

A

c. the strength is highest in the X direction

50
Q

Which of the following tests are referred to as microhardness tests:

a. rockwell
b. vickers
c. knoop
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

e. b and c

51
Q

The metal property that relates to a metal’s deforming without failing is called:

a. tensile strength
b. ductility
c. hardness
d. toughness
e. none of the above

A

b. ductility

52
Q

The family of hardness tests that uses both a minor and major load is called:

a. brinell
b. vickers
c. rockwell
d. knoop
e. none of the above

A

c. rockwell

53
Q

Which metal properties are directly related:

a. conductivity and strength
b. strength and ductility
c. strength and hardness
d. ductility and toughness
e. c and d

A

e. c and d

54
Q

The yield strength of a material is determined by:

a. impact testing
b. tensile testing
c. hardness testing
d. the offset method
e. b and d

A

e. b and d

55
Q

The SMAW power source can be:

a. DCEN
b. AC
c. DCEP
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

56
Q

For most codes, if a welder continues to use a particular process and procedure, how long does the welder’s qualification remain in effect:

a. indefinitely
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 3 years
e. until the welder produces a rejectable weld

A

a. indefinitely

57
Q

Of the following types of test specimens, which is used by API and not ASME for procedure and welder qualification:

a. face bend
b. root bend
c. side bend
d. nick break
e. tensile

A

d. nick break

58
Q

UNS refers to:

a. United Nondestructive Society
b. United National Standards
c. Unified National System
d. Unified Numbering System
e. none of the above

A

d. Unified Numbering System

59
Q

Base metals used in fabrication can be bought to conform to which of the following:

a. ASTM standards
b. ASME code, section II, parts A and B
c. it is not required to specify base metals
d. a and b
e. none of the above

A

d. a and b

60
Q

In what section of the ASME code are the filler materials found:

a. Section III
b. Section II, Part C
c. Section II, Part D
d. Section IX
e. none of the above

A

b. Section II, Part C

61
Q

The AWS has developed how many welding codes:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
e. 9

A

e. 9

62
Q

Drawing notes can be classified as:

a. general
b. local
c. specifications
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

63
Q

Tolerances can be expressed:

a. as a variation between limits
b. as plus or minus dimension
c. as a design size with either a plus or minus
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

64
Q

Which section of the ASME code covers qualification of welders:

a. Section V
b. Section XI
c. Section III
d. Section VIII
e. Section IX

A

e. Section IX

65
Q

Which of the following methods for controlling materials in a fabrication shop is most suitable for automation:

a. color coding
b. alpha numeric coding
c. heat number transfer
d. bar coding
e. segregation by alloy

A

d. bar coding

66
Q

Of the following types of documents, which have general acceptance in the welding industry:

a. contracts
b. standards
c. specifications
d. drawings
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

67
Q

Something set up and estabalished by authority as a rule to measure quantity, quality, value or weight is a:

a. specification
b. standard
c. code
d. drawing
e. none of the above

A

b. standard

68
Q

The type of document that describes the requirements for a particular material or components is reffered to as:

a. code
b. standard
c. specification
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

e. b and c

69
Q

The type of document that has legal status by definition is:

a. code
b. standard
c. specification
d. a and b
e. all of the above

A

a. code

70
Q

A number not in parenthesis to the left of the groove weld symbol in a welding symbol refers to the:

a. depth of bevel
b. the length of the weld
c. the weld quality standard
d. weld procedure to use
e. none of the above

A

a. depth of bevel

71
Q

A number appearing in parentheses just above/ below the weld symbol in a welding symbol for slot welds describes:

a. the length of the weld
b. the type of welding
c. number of welds required
d. type of electrode to use
e. none of the above

A

c. number of welds required

72
Q

The required spot weld size parameter can be shown as:

a. a dimension to the right of the symbol
b. a dimension of the required nugget diameter
c. a value for the required shear strength per spot
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

e. b and c

73
Q

In the case of a plug or slot weld, a dimension placed within the weld symbol would indicate:

a. depth of filling
b. slot weld width
c. plug weld diameter
d. angle of countersink
e. none of the above

A

a. depth of filling

74
Q

The first dimension to the immediate right of the weld symbol generally refers to the:

a. weld reinforcement
b. root opening
c. pitch distance
d. weld length
e. none of the above

A

d. weld length

75
Q

In a partial penetration single v groove weld, the term for the dimension measured from the joint root to where the weld penetration stops is:

a. joint penetration
b. effective throat
c. root penetration
d. depth of fusion
e. weld interface

A

c. root penetration

76
Q

For a concave fillet weld, whichthroat dimensions are the same:

a. theoretical and effective
b. effective and actual
c. theoretical and actual
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

b. effective and actual

77
Q

In a fillet weld, the leg and size are the same for what type of configuration:

a. effective throat
b. concave weld
c. convex weld
d. unequal leg fillet
e. oversize weld

A

c. convex weld

78
Q

The term for the type of weld applied to the opposite side of a joint before a single V-groove weld is completed on the near side of a joint is:

a. Melt through
b. backing weld
c. back weld
d. root weld
e. none of the above

A

b. backing weld

79
Q

The term for the type of weld configuration formed when the length of a round bar is placed parallel against a flat surface is:

a. double-flare-bevel-groove
b. single-flare-V groove
c. edge flange
d. corner flange
e. none of the above

A

a. double-flare-bevel-groove

80
Q

Of the following materials which can not be cut using OFC:

a. high-carbon steel
b. low carbon steel
c. medium carbon steel
d. austenitic stainless steel
e. None of the above

A

d. austenitic stainless steel

81
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of brazing:

a. ease of joining thick sections
b. ability to join dissimilar metals
c. ability to join thin sections
d. A and B
e. B and C

A

e. B and C

82
Q

For satisfactory results, a braze joint should have:

a. clean joint surfaces
b. a small clearance between pieces to be joined
c. a large surface area for the joint area
d. heat source
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

83
Q

What welding process produces welds in a single pass, with the progression uphill along the joint:

a. SAW
b. ESW
c. FCAW
d. A and B
e. B and C

A

b. ESW

84
Q

What technique is employed with PAW to produce full penetration welds without a bevel edge:

a. stringer beads
b. weave beads
c. keyhole
d. back-step
e. None of the above

A

c. keyhole

85
Q

Which of the following are not common to both GTAW and PAW:

a. non consumable tungsten electrode
b. Contricting orifice
c. shielding gas nozzle
d. externally applied filler metal
e. None of the above

A

b. Contricting orifice

86
Q

Solidification cracking due to improper width to depth ratio of the weld bead is a serious problem primarily with which welding process:

a. SMAW
b. OFC
c. SAW
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

c. SAW

87
Q

A green stripe on a tungsten electrode designates:

a. pure tungsten
b. 1% thoriated tungsten
c. 2% thoriated tungsten
d. zirconiated tungsten
e. None of the above

A

a. pure tungsten

88
Q

A definition of ethics is:

a. using common sense and honesty
b. living by the rules
c. being fair and honest
d. basing decisions on facts
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

89
Q

The vision requirements for CWI are near visionacuity on::

a. Jaeger J1 at not less than 24 inches
b. Jaeger J2 at not less than 12 inches
c. Jaeger J2 at not less than 12 inches with or without corrective lenses
d. The inspector cannot wear glasses
e. 20/20 vision

A

c. Jaeger J2 at not less than 12 inches with or without corrective lenses

90
Q

The most important component of an effective safety and health program is:

a. safety rules
b. safety procedures
c. protective equipment
d. welding helmet
e. management support

A

e. management support

91
Q

Acetylene becomes unstable above what pressure?

a. 5 psi
b. 10 psi
c. 15 psi
d. none of the above

A

c. 15 psi

92
Q

Oxygen is a flammable gas.

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

93
Q

Electric currents above approximately 6 milliamperes are considered:

a. not harmful
b. primary currents
c. harmful
d. secondary currents
e. b and c above

A

e. b and c above

94
Q

When operating gas cylinders, the primary valve should be opened:

a. all the way on an acetylene cylinder
b. one turn on an oxygen cylinder
c. one turn or less on an acetylene cylinder
d. all the way on an oxygen cylinder to backseat the valve
e. c and d above

A

e. c and d above

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