wefh] Flashcards
What are the standard takeoff minimums for the A320?
Standard take off minimums for 2 engine aircraft are 1SM or 5,000’ RVR
Are we allowed to operate with lower than standard takeoff minimums?
What provides authorization to do so?
Yes
o Ops Spec C056: IFR takeoff minimums, Part 121 airplane operations
What are we allowed to reduce our takeoff minimums to?
Ops Spec C078: IFR lower than standard takeoff minima
o Lowest authorized takeoff RVR: TDZ RVR 5, MID RVR 5, ROLLOUT RVR 5
What is our lowest authorized takeoff minimum for takeoff on JFK RWY 31L?
TDZ RVR 5, MID RVR 5, ROLLOUT RVR 5
What are the runway requirements when operating at RVR 5/5/5?
o HIRL + CL
Is reported visibility or RVR for the takeoff runway controlling?
RVR reports, when available for a particular runway, shall be used for all takeoff operations on that runway.
When is a takeoff alternate required?
If the current departure airport weather is lower than the landing minimums published for the airport.
What is required to list an airport as a takeoff alternate?
Must be within 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
o Must meet the criteria in Ops Spec C055 for filing as an alternate.
What is the weather requirement at our destination airport to dispatch?
Weather must be at or above the authorized minimums at the ETA.
The main body of the TAF for our destination airport is reporting visibility at the ETA of ½ SM, however there is a TEMPO for ¼ SM. Can we depart?
Yes, Exemption 3585 can be applied
o Requires a second alternate
When is a destination alternate required (domestic)?
An alternate must be designated unless the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or any combination of them, indicates that the visibility will be at least three (3) miles with a ceiling of at least 2,000 feet for at least one (1) hour before and one (1) hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport.
When is a second alternate required to be on the release?
When exemption 3585 is used
o When weather at the destination and first alternate is marginal
How is marginal weather defined?
A ceiling of less than 500’ above DA(H) or MDA(H) or
o A visibility of less than ½ mile above the lowest operational approach minimum
Which RVR report(s) is controlling for approach and landing?
Reference C052
o TDZ reports, when available for a particular runway, are controlling for all
approaches and landings for that specific runway. The MID RVR and ROLLOUT RVR reports (if available) provide advisory information to the pilots.
Note: The MID RVR report may be substituted for the TDZ RVR report in the event TDZ RVR report is not available.
What is cost index?
Cost index = 0 corresponds to maximum range and cost index = 999 corresponds to minimum time. Cost index is determined by the company and considers the
relationship between time and fuel related cost to minimize the trip cost
When is an RVSM check required? Fuel Check?
Per SOP enroute: RVSM and fuel awareness checks are required hourly.
o In addition to the hourly RVSM check, an altimeter check is required prior to entering RVSM airspace. This is accomplished at transition altitude.
Reference the (STRUC LIMIT) weights on the release. It is the Captain’s responsibility to ensure these numbers are correct. Where is this information found?
The adjusted BOW and cabin configuration report is located on the inside cover of the maintenance can.
When do we use summer weights? Winter weights?
Summer weights (MAY 1/OCT 31) 190LBS
o Winter weights (NOV 1/APR 30) 195LBS
o Passenger weights include an allowance for 16LBS of carry‐on bags.
What is TREF?
Lowest assumed temperature for which reduced thrust is allowed
o It is a requirement to reference TREF after any adjustments are made
Minimum landing distance is determined by assessed runway conditions. How is this information distributed?
FICON NOTAM
What information is included in the FICON NOTAM?
Runway condition code (RCC), contaminant type, depth, and percentage of
coverage
How is coverage reported?
Provided in 1/3 runway intervals when the runway is more than 25%
contamination level
Based on FICON NOTAM DATA how do we determine the impact the conditions will have on our landing performance?
o Reference the runway condition assessment matrix
o Refer to RCAM minimum landing distance in the TLR for planning prior to
departure.
o Enter the field condition and expected braking action into the ATSU or use Inflight Performance in the QRH when enroute
What landing requirements must be met in order dispatch?
Must be able to land and stop within 60% of the effective length of the runway to be used.
o An additional 15% is added for a wet runway
It is possible to meet dispatch requirements yet have a minimum landing distance (based on expected braking action) greater than the landing distance available. Can you depart?
o Dispatch is permitted if:
▪ There is reasonable expectation that the braking action will improve to the
point that the minimum landing distance required will be less than the landing
distance available at ETA
▪ The PIC and dispatcher conduct a briefing and agree what braking action will be required before landing
▪ A performance alternate is added to the dispatch release
What are the functions of the ELAC?
o Control of the elevators, ailerons, and the trimmable horizontal stabilizer (THS). o The ELACs compute the need for roll spoiler movement (which is sent to the SECs), and rudder yaw movement (which is sent to the FACs).
What is the primary responsibility of the SECs?
o Spoiler Control. Each SEC controls one or two pairs of spoilers.
What is lost with SEC when there is a fault light?
The spoiler panels associated with the failed SEC are inoperative.
Both ELACs fail, can any of the SECs provide backup and of what functions?
SECs 1 and 2 can provide backup pitch control of the elevators and THS. Aileron control is lost and the ailerons streamline. Roll is accomplished with just the
spoilers.
What happens if you select a FAC pb to OFF?
Deactivates the corresponding yaw dampening and rudder trim functions to that FAC. If the FAC is still operable, it continues to compute all flight envelope functions
Where is oxygen stored for the crew?
In a single high‐pressure cylinder
What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF pb?
It opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply low‐pressure crew oxygen.
Where do you find the minimum flight crew O2 values?
FCOM LIM‐OXY
How do you call the forward flight attendant?
o Press the FWD button
o Two lights come on in pink on the related area of the CALLS panel
o CAPT CALL appears on the FWD F/A indication panel
o A green light illuminates
o A high‐low chime sounds through the forward cabin loudspeaker
What happens when you press the EMER pb?
o Pink light flashes at all area Call Panels
o EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels
o High‐low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers
What happens when the F/A’s initiate an emergency call?
o On the EMER pb‐sw: The amber CALL light flashes
o The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs
o 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit.
o System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system
What is the logic of the EMER EXIT lights in the ARM position?
The overhead emergency lights automatically illuminate with a loss of normal aircraft electrical power.
How many auto pressure controllers?
o 2, only one controller operates at a time and automatic transfer occurs:
▪ 70s after each landing
▪ If the operating system fails
What part of the wing is heated?
o Outboard 3 slats
Can you use the APU bleed for wing anti‐ice?
no
Which exterior aircraft components utilize electrical heating?
o Cockpit windshields and sliding side windows
o AOA, TAT, pitot probes, and static ports.
o Waste water drain masts
What computers monitor and control the pneumatic system?
2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)
How does the system optimize the temperature in each of the three zones?
Trim Air Valves
▪ To maintain the selected zone temperature, the trim air valves under
control of the zone regulator, add hot air, if necessary, to the air flowing
from the mixing unit.
▪ This allows for air temperatures to be controlled independently in each
zone.
What effect will the engine start sequence have on the pack flow control valves?
The pack flow control valve will close automatically.
What is the function of the BUS TIE in the AUTO position?
Allows the BUS TIE CONTACTORS to open and close automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1 & 2 in the preferential order of respective engine, EXT
power, APU GEN, opposing engine GEN.
What cools IDG oil?
Fuel/Oil cooler that utilizes fuel flow from the associated engine fuel supply line.
What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?
To avoid damage to the disconnect mechanism:
▪ Do not disconnect unless the engine is at or above idle RPM and
▪ IDG pb should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds.
What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
Battery charging current is outside limits (BAT contactor opens).
When would you expect to see the batteries connected to the BATTERY BUS?
APU start
o Battery charging
o AC BUS 1 and 2 unpowered (>100KTS), and emergency generator not supplying power.
When the Center Tank Pump MODE Select pushbutton is in the AUTO mode (lights out), what is the logic for center tank pump operation?
With fuel in the center tank the pumps will:
▪ Perform a momentary self‐test after engine start.
▪ The pumps stop operating after slat extension and resume operation
after slat retraction.
▪ The pumps are automatically shut off a few minutes after the center
tank empties.
▪ They will also shut off momentarily to make room in the wing tanks for
IDG cooling return fuel.
When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks?
When the inner tank quantity reaches a predetermined low level (approx. 1650LBS)
What does an amber boxed ECAM FOB indicate?
o Some fuel is unusable.
When does the PTU operate with pb in AUTO?
with a difference of 500 PSI between GREEN and YELLOW pressure
o Self‐test between first and second engine start
When is the PTU inhibited?
o PTU pb OFF
o First Engine start
o Parking brake is ON and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON
o NWS in towing position and parking brake ON
o Cargo door operation
List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE pb is pressed.
o Silences the aural fire warning
o Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
o Closes the hydraulic fire valve
o Closes the LP fuel and engine fuel return valves
o Deactivates the engine generator
o Closes the pack flow control and engine bleed valves
List the actions that occur when the APU FIRE pb is pressed.
o Silences the aural fire warning
o Arms the APU fire extinguisher squib
o Closes the LP fuel valve and shuts OFF the APU fuel pump
o Deactivates the APU generator
o Closes the APU bleed valve and the crossfeed valve
What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT pb indicate?
o Both channels detect smoke or
o One channel faulty and the other detects smoke
How long does the agent provide fire suppression?
45‐60 minutes
With BLOWER and EXTRACT PBs in AUTO how does the system typically operate?
Ground – system is in OPEN configuration
o Flight – system is in CLOSED configuration
o Intermediate – Closed, except Extract Valve is partially open
What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?
The FADEC provides passive survey during a manual start and will provide
appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault.
o Automatic start interruption and auto‐crank are not available, except when on
ground, and the start EGT limit is exceeded before 50 % N2
