Weeks 1-6 Flashcards

1
Q

Empirical Methods

A

Approaches to inquiry that are tied to actual measurement and observation.

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2
Q

Ethics

A

Professional guidelines that offer researchers a template for making decisions that protect research participants from potential harm and that help steer scientists away from conflicts of interest or other situations that might compromise the integrity of their research.

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3
Q

Hypotheses

A

A logical idea that can be tested.

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4
Q

Systematic observation

A

The careful observation of the natural world with the aim of better understanding it. Observations provide the basic data that allow scientists to track, tally, or otherwise organize information about the natural world.

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5
Q

Theories

A

Groups of closely related phenomena or observations.

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6
Q

Anecdotal evidence

A

A piece of biased evidence, usually drawn from personal experience, used to support a conclusion that may or may not be correct.

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7
Q

Causality

A

In research, the determination that one variable causes—is responsible for—an effect.

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8
Q

Correlation

A

In statistics, the measure of relatedness of two or more variables.

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9
Q

Data (also called observations)

A

In research, information systematically collected for analysis and interpretation.

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10
Q

Deductive reasoning

A

A form of reasoning in which a given premise determines the interpretation of specific observations (e.g., All birds have feathers; since a duck is a bird, it has feathers).

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11
Q

Distribution

A

In statistics, the relative frequency that a particular value occurs for each possible value of a given variable.

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12
Q

Empirical

A

Concerned with observation and/or the ability to verify a claim.

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13
Q

Fact

A

Objective information about the world.

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14
Q

Falsify

A

In science, the ability of a claim to be tested and—possibly—refuted; a defining feature of science.

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15
Q

Generalize

A

In research, the degree to which one can extend conclusions drawn from the findings of a study to other groups or situations not included in the study.

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16
Q

Hypothesis

A

A tentative explanation that is subject to testing.

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17
Q

Induction

A

To draw general conclusions from specific observations.

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18
Q

Inductive reasoning

A

A form of reasoning in which a general conclusion is inferred from a set of observations (e. g., noting that “the driver in that car was texting; he just cut me off then ran a red light!” (a specific observation), which leads to the general conclusion that texting while driving is dangerous).

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19
Q

Levels of analysis

A

In science, there are complementary understandings and explanations of phenomena.

The idea that a single phenomenon can be explained at different levels simultaneously.

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20
Q

Null-hypothesis significance testing (NHST)

A

In statistics, a test created to determine the chances that an alternative hypothesis would produce a result as extreme as the one observed if the null hypothesis were actually true.

Assesses the probability that the collected data would be the same even if there were no relationship between the variables in the study.

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21
Q

Objective

A

Being free of personal bias.

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22
Q

Population

A

In research, all the people belonging to a particular group (e.g., the population of left handed people).

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23
Q

Probability

A

A measure of the degree of certainty of the occurrence of an event.

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24
Q

Probability values

A

In statistics, the established threshold for determining whether a given value occurs by chance.

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25
Q

Pseudoscience

A

Beliefs or practices that are presented as being scientific, or which are mistaken for being scientific, but which are not scientific (e.g., astrology, the use of celestial bodies to make predictions about human behaviors, and which presents itself as founded in astronomy, the actual scientific study of celestial objects. Astrology is a pseudoscience unable to be falsified, whereas astronomy is a legitimate scientific discipline).

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26
Q

Representative

A

In research, the degree to which a sample is a typical example of the population from which it is drawn.

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27
Q

Sample

A

In research, a number of people selected from a population to serve as an example of that population.

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28
Q

Scientific theory

A

An explanation for observed phenomena that is empirically well-supported, consistent, and fruitful (predictive).

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29
Q

Type I error

A

In statistics, the error of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true.

In reality there is no relationship between variables but the researcher finds that there is.

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30
Q

Type II error

A

In statistics, the error of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false.

In reality there is a relationship between the variables but the researcher finds no relationship.

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31
Q

Value

A

Belief about the way things should be.

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32
Q

Behaviorism

A
  • The study of behavior.

- rejected any ref. to the mind and viewed overt and observable actions as the proper subject matter of psychology

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33
Q

Cognitive psychology

A

The study of mental processes.

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34
Q

Consciousness

A

Awareness of ourselves and our environment.

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35
Q

Empiricism

A

The belief that knowledge comes from experience.

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36
Q

Eugenics

A

The practice of selective breeding to promote desired traits.

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37
Q

Flashbulb memory

A

A highly detailed and vivid memory of an emotionally significant event.

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38
Q

Functionalism

A

A school of American psychology that focused on the utility of consciousness.

Functionalists were interested in the activities of the mind – what the mind DOES.

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39
Q

Gestalt psychology

A

An attempt to study the unity of experience.

Belief that studying the whole of any experience is richer than studying individual aspects of it.

Precursor to cognitive psychology.

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40
Q

Individual differences

A

Ways in which people differ in terms of their behavior, emotion, cognition, and development.

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41
Q

Introspection

A

A method of focusing on internal processes.

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42
Q

Neural impulse

A

An electro-chemical signal that enables neurons to communicate.

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43
Q

Practitioner-Scholar Model

A

A model of training of professional psychologists that emphasizes clinical practice.

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44
Q

Psychophysics

A

Study of the relationships between physical stimuli and the perception of those stimuli.

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45
Q

Realism

A

A point of view that emphasizes the importance of the senses in providing knowledge of the external world.

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46
Q

Scientist-practitioner model

A

A model of training of professional psychologists that emphasizes the development of both research and clinical skills.

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47
Q

Structuralism

A

A school of American psychology that sought to describe the elements of conscious experience.

What the mind IS.

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48
Q

Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

A

The inability to pull a word from memory even though there is the sensation that that word is available.

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49
Q

Cause-and-effect

A

Related to whether we say one variable is causing changes in the other variable, versus other variables that may be related to these two variables.

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50
Q

Confidence interval

A

An interval of plausible values for a population parameter; the interval of values within the margin of error of a statistic.

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51
Q

Distribution

A

The pattern of variation in data.

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52
Q

Generalizability

A

Related to whether the results from the sample can be generalized to a larger population.

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53
Q

Margin of error

A

The expected amount of random variation in a statistic; often defined for 95% confidence level.

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54
Q

Parameter

A

A numerical result summarizing a population (e.g., mean, proportion).

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55
Q

Population

A

A larger collection of individuals that we would like to generalize our results to.

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56
Q

P-value

A

The probability of observing a particular outcome in a sample, or more extreme, under a conjecture (an opinion or conclusion formed on the basis of incomplete information) about the larger population or process.

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57
Q

Random assignment

A

Using a probability-based method to divide a sample into treatment groups.

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58
Q

Random sampling

A

Using a probability-based method to select a subset of individuals for the sample from the population.

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59
Q

Reliability

A

The consistency of a measure.

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60
Q

Sample

A

The collection of individuals on which we collect data.

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61
Q

Statistic

A

A numerical result COMPUTED from a sample (e.g., mean, proportion).

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62
Q

Statistical significance

A

A result is statistically significant if it is unlikely to arise by chance alone.

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63
Q

Validity

A

The degree to which a measure is assessing what it is intended to measure.

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64
Q

Confounds

A

Factors that undermine the ability to draw causal inferences from an experiment.

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65
Q

Correlation

A

Measures the association between two variables, or how they go together.

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66
Q

Dependent variable

A

The variable the researcher measures but does not manipulate in an experiment.

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67
Q

Experimenter expectations

A

When the experimenter’s expectations influence the outcome of a study.

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68
Q

Independent variable

A

The variable the researcher manipulates and controls in an experiment.

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69
Q

Longitudinal study

A

A study that follows the same group of individuals over time.

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70
Q

Operational definitions

A

How researchers specifically measure a concept.

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71
Q

Participant demand

A

When participants behave in a way that they think the experimenter wants them to behave.

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72
Q

Placebo effect

A

When receiving special treatment or something new affects human behavior.

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73
Q

Quasi-experimental design

A

An experiment that does not require random assignment to conditions. Relies on existing group memberships (ex: married vs single) as independent variables.

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74
Q

Random assignment

A

Assigning participants to receive different conditions of an experiment by chance.

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75
Q

Ambulatory assessment

A

An overarching term to describe methodologies that assess the behavior, physiology, experience, and environments of humans in naturalistic settings.

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76
Q

Daily Diary method

A

A methodology where participants complete a questionnaire about their thoughts, feelings, and behavior of the day at the end of the day.

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77
Q

Day reconstruction method (DRM)

A

A methodology where participants describe their experiences and behavior of a given day retrospectively upon a systematic reconstruction on the following day.

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78
Q

Ecological momentary assessment

A

An overarching term to describe methodologies that repeatedly sample participants’ real-world experiences, behavior, and physiology in real time.

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79
Q

Ecological validity

A

The degree to which a study finding has been obtained under conditions that are typical for what happens in everyday life.

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80
Q

Electronically activated recorder, or EAR

A

A methodology where participants wear a small, portable audio recorder that intermittently records snippets of ambient sounds around them.

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81
Q

Experience-sampling method

A

A methodology where participants report on their momentary thoughts, feelings, and behaviors at different points in time over the course of a day.

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82
Q

External validity

A

The degree to which a finding generalizes from the specific sample and context of a study to some larger population and broader settings.

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83
Q

Full-cycle psychology

A

A scientific approach whereby researchers start with an observational field study to identify an effect in the real world, follow up with laboratory experimentation to verify the effect and isolate the causal mechanisms, and return to field research to corroborate their experimental findings.

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84
Q

Generalize

A

Generalizing, in science, refers to the ability to arrive at broad conclusions based on a smaller sample of observations. For these conclusions to be true the sample should accurately represent the larger population from which it is drawn.

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85
Q

Internal validity

A

The degree to which a cause-effect relationship between two variables has been unambiguously established.

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86
Q

Linguistic inquiry and word count

A

A quantitative text analysis methodology that automatically extracts grammatical and psychological information from a text by counting word frequencies.

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87
Q

Lived day analysis

A

A methodology where a research team follows an individual around with a video camera to objectively document a person’s daily life as it is lived.

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88
Q

White coat hypertension

A

A phenomenon in which patients exhibit elevated blood pressure in the hospital or doctor’s office but not in their everyday lives.

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89
Q

trigger warnings – why are they more bad than good?

A
  • studies indicate that trigger warnings have negative impacts – ppl who viewed trigger warnings before being shown something felt stress and anxiety before even seeing it
  • trigger warnings promote avoidance instead of learning to cope and overcome
  • can impact ppl’s beliefs about their resilience vs. vulnerability
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90
Q

list some methods for coping

A
  • self care (sleep, hygiene, nutrition, exercise, quality time, alone time)
  • deep breathing
  • mental grounding
  • physical grounding
  • exercise
  • healthy eating
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91
Q

what is science?

A

science is the use of systematic observation to acquire knowledge

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92
Q

what are the 4 essential elements of science?

A
  1. systematic observation is the core of science
  2. observations lead to hypotheses we can test
  3. science is democratic
  4. science is cumulative
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93
Q

what are the 5 ethics guidelines that psychologists follow for their research?

A
  1. informed consent (ppl should know when they’re involved in research and what they are doing)
  2. confidentiality
  3. privacy (researchers should not do research in the participant’s private spaces, i.e. their bedroom, and should not ask for confidential info. about them from others (i.e. school officials) without their permission)
  4. benefits (is the research worth it when compared against potential risks to the participant?)
  5. deception (researchers can’t lie about what they’re testing. if it is necessary for the participant to not know, then they must be debriefed later.)
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94
Q

what are the 5 features that distinguish scientific thinking from everyday thinking?

A
  1. Accuracy (explanations and theories match real world observations)
  2. Consistency (a theory has few exceptions and shows agreement w/ other theories within and across disciplines)
  3. Scope (extent to which a theory can be applied to many different situations)
  4. Simplicity (when multiple explanations are squally good at explaining the data, the simplest should be selected)
  5. Fruitfulness (the usefulness of the theory in guiding new research by predicting new and testable relationships)
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95
Q

why can science be distinguished from pseudoscience?

A

b/c scientific claims can be falsified and pseudoscientific claims cannot

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96
Q

Describe the process of NHST

A
  • the null hypothesis involves 2 unrelated variables
  • the alternate hypothesis states that the 2 variables ARE related
  • the researcher compares what they expected to find w/ what they actually found to determine if they should falsify the null hypothesis
  • this is achieved by looking at the distribution of the data
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97
Q

accurate detection

A

the researcher’s conclusion mirror’s reality OR when the researcher finds no evidence for a phenomenon, but that phenomenon doesn’t exist irl anyways

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98
Q

what are the precursors of psychology?

A

philosophy and physiology

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99
Q

what are the 4 key components of statistical thinking?

A
  1. Planning the study: ask a testable research question, ex: how many ppl were recruited for the study, how were they recruited, and from where?
  2. Examining the data: What are the appropriate ways to examine the data? What patterns do you see? Is there evidence for reliability and validity?
  3. Inferring from the data: what are valid statistical methods for drawing inferences beyond the data you’ve collected?
  4. Drawing conclusions: based on what you learned from your data, what conclusions can you draw? Can you draw a cause and effect conclusions about your treatments?
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100
Q

what would a very small p-value mean for a study?

A
  • it could be used as strong evidence that the study did not go one way or the other b/c of random chance
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101
Q

level of significance

A

a result is statistically significant if it is unable to arise by chance alone

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102
Q

what does it mean if the p-value is smaller than the level of significance?

A

then we know that the result of the study didn’t occur by chance alone

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103
Q

what is the benefit of using random assignment in a study?

A
  • it limits bias and produces groups that are as similar as possible
  • minimizes compounds
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104
Q

what are the two groups that research can be divided into?

A

experimental and correlational research

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105
Q

what does experimental research involve?

A
  • operational definitions of concepts
  • manipulate the independent variable and see the effect it has on the dependent variable
  • random assignment is important to minimize confounds
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106
Q

double-blind prodcedure

A

neither the participant nor the experimenter knows which condition the participant is in – the experimenter gets the results later, this way the researcher is also blind and their expectations don’t interfere with results

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107
Q

what does correlational design involve?

A
  • scientists passively observe/measure phenomena
  • they do not interfere/change behaviour, just identify patterns of relationships
  • examines only 2 variables
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108
Q

what are problems with correlation designs?

A
  • correlation does not mean causation
  • from correlation alone, we can’t be certain that the relationship exists
  • perhaps there is an unthought of 3rd variable causing the results to be the way they are
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109
Q

participant observation

A

involves the researcher embedding themselves into a group in order to study its dynamics – usually participants know that there is a researcher among them, though not always

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110
Q

case study

A

involves an intensive examination of specific individuals or specific contexts
- ex: if there are only a few ppl with a specific brain injury, then a researcher may do an intensive study on just one patient (put through tests)

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111
Q

narrative analysis

A

centers around the study of stories and personal accounts of people, groups, or cultures

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112
Q

it is important for researchers to find a balance between ensuring internal and external validity in their studies – it is very hard to achieve both in a single study. why is this important?

A

if an experiment is very far-off from what a person might experience in everyday life, you may question how useful its findings really are

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113
Q

Adoption study

A

A behavior genetic research method that involves comparison of adopted children to their adoptive and biological parents.

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114
Q

Behavioral genetics

A

The empirical science of how genes and environments combine to generate behavior.

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115
Q

Heritability coefficient

A

An easily misinterpreted statistical construct that purports to measure the role of genetics in the explanation of differences among individuals.

OR

Measures how strongly differences among individuals are related to differences among their genes – but be careful – these numbers are very difficult to interpret

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116
Q

Quantitative genetics

A

Scientific and mathematical methods for inferring genetic and environmental processes based on the degree of genetic and environmental similarity among organisms.

OR

scientific discipline in which similarities between individuals are analyzed based on how biologically related they are

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117
Q

Twin studies

A

A behavior genetic research method that involves comparison of the similarity of identical (monozygotic; MZ) and fraternal (dizygotic; DZ) twins.

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118
Q

Adaptations

A

Evolved solutions to problems that historically contributed to reproductive success.

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119
Q

Error management theory (EMT)

A

A theory of selection under conditions of uncertainty in which recurrent cost asymmetries of judgment or inference favor the evolution of adaptive cognitive biases that function to minimize the more costly errors.

OR

deals with the evolution of how we think, make decisions, and evaluate uncertain situations

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120
Q

Evolution

A

Change over time. Is the definition changing?

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121
Q

Gene Selection Theory

A

The modern theory of evolution by selection by which differential gene replication is the defining process of evolutionary change.

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122
Q

Intersexual selection

A

A process of sexual selection by which evolution (change) occurs as a consequences of the mate preferences of one sex exerting selection pressure on members of the opposite sex.

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123
Q

Intrasexual competition

A

A process of sexual selection by which members of one sex compete with each other, and the victors gain preferential mating access to members of the opposite sex.

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124
Q

Natural selection

A

Differential reproductive success as a consequence of differences in heritable attributes.

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125
Q

Psychological adaptations

A

Mechanisms of the mind that evolved to solve specific problems of survival or reproduction; conceptualized as information processing devices.

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126
Q

Sexual selection

A

The evolution of characteristics because of the mating advantage they give organisms.

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127
Q

​Sexual strategies theory

A

A comprehensive evolutionary theory of human mating that defines the menu of mating strategies humans pursue (e.g., short-term casual sex, long-term committed mating), the adaptive problems women and men face when pursuing these strategies, and the evolved solutions to these mating problems.

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128
Q

DNA methylation

A

Covalent modifications of mammalian DNA occurring via the methylation of cytosine, typically in the context of the CpG dinucleotide.

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129
Q

DNA methyltransferases (DNMTs)

A

Enzymes that establish and maintain DNA methylation using methyl-group donor compounds or cofactors. The main mammalian DNMTs are DNMT1, which maintains methylation state across DNA replication, and DNMT3a and DNMT3b, which perform de novo methylation.

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130
Q

Epigenetics

A

The study of heritable changes in gene expression or cellular phenotype caused by mechanisms other than changes in the underlying DNA sequence. Epigenetic marks include covalent DNA modifications and posttranslational histone modifications.

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131
Q

Epigenome

A

The genome-wide distribution of epigenetic marks.

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132
Q

Gene

A

A specific deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequence that codes for a specific polypeptide or protein or an observable inherited trait.

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133
Q

Genome-wide association study (GWAS)

A

A study that maps DNA polymorphisms in affected individuals and controls matched for age, sex, and ethnic background with the aim of identifying causal genetic variants.

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134
Q

Genotype

A

The DNA content of a cell’s nucleus, whether a trait is externally observable or not.

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135
Q

Histone acetyltransferases (HATs) and histone deacetylases (HDACs)

A

HATs are enzymes that transfer acetyl groups to specific positions on histone tails, promoting an “open” chromatin state and transcriptional activation. HDACs remove these acetyl groups, resulting in a “closed” chromatin state and transcriptional repression.

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136
Q

Histone modifications

A

Posttranslational modifications of the N-terminal “tails” of histone proteins that serve as a major mode of epigenetic regulation. These modifications include acetylation, phosphorylation, methylation, sumoylation, ubiquitination, and ADP-ribosylation.

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137
Q

Identical twins

A

Two individual organisms that originated from the same zygote and therefore are genetically identical or very similar. The epigenetic profiling of identical twins discordant for disease is a unique experimental design as it eliminates the DNA sequence-, age-, and sex-differences from consideration.

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138
Q

Phenotype

A

The pattern of expression of the genotype or the magnitude or extent to which it is observably expressed—an observable characteristic or trait of an organism, such as its morphology, development, biochemical or physiological properties, or behavior.

OR

An observable characteristic as a result of genotype expression

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139
Q

Chunk

A

The process of grouping information together using our knowledge.

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140
Q

Classical conditioning

A

Describes stimulus-stimulus associative learning.

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141
Q

Encoding

A

The pact of putting information into memory.

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142
Q

Habituation

A

Occurs when the response to a stimulus decreases with exposure.

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143
Q

Implicit learning

A

Occurs when we acquire information without intent that we cannot easily express.

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144
Q

Implicit memory

A

A type of long-term memory that does not require conscious thought to encode. It’s the type of memory one makes without intent.

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145
Q

Incidental learning

A

Any type of learning that happens without the intention to learn.

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146
Q

Intentional learning

A

Any type of learning that happens when motivated by intention.

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147
Q

Metacognition

A

Describes the knowledge and skills people have in monitoring and controlling their own learning and memory.

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148
Q

Nonassociative learning

A

Occurs when a single repeated exposure leads to a change in behavior.

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149
Q

Operant conditioning

A

Describes stimulus-response associative learning.

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150
Q

Perceptual learning

A

Occurs when aspects of our perception changes as a function of experience.

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151
Q

Sensitization

A

Occurs when the response to a stimulus increases with exposure

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152
Q

Transfer-appropriate processing

A

A principle that states that memory performance is superior when a test taps the same cognitive processes as the original encoding activity.

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153
Q

Working memory

A

The form of memory we use to hold onto information temporarily, usually for the purposes of manipulation.

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154
Q

Blocking

A

In classical conditioning, the finding that no conditioning occurs to a stimulus if it is combined with a previously conditioned stimulus during conditioning trials. Suggests that information, surprise value, or prediction error is important in conditioning.

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155
Q

Categorize

A

To sort or arrange different items into classes or categories.

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156
Q

Classical conditioning

A

The procedure in which an initially neutral stimulus (the conditioned stimulus, or CS) is paired with an unconditioned stimulus (or US). The result is that the conditioned stimulus begins to elicit a conditioned response (CR). Classical conditioning is nowadays considered important as both a behavioral phenomenon and as a method to study simple associative learning. Same as Pavlovian conditioning.

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157
Q

Conditioned compensatory response

A

In classical conditioning, a conditioned response that opposes, rather than is the same as, the unconditioned response. It functions to reduce the strength of the unconditioned response. Often seen in conditioning when drugs are used as unconditioned stimuli.

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158
Q

Conditioned response (CR)

A

The response that is elicited by the conditioned stimulus after classical conditioning has taken place.

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159
Q

Conditioned stimulus (CS)

A

An initially neutral stimulus (like a bell, light, or tone) that elicits a conditioned response after it has been associated with an unconditioned stimulus.

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160
Q

Context

A

Stimuli that are in the background whenever learning occurs. For instance, the Skinner box or room in which learning takes place is the classic example of a context. However, “context” can also be provided by internal stimuli, such as the sensory effects of drugs (e.g., being under the influence of alcohol has stimulus properties that provide a context) and mood states (e.g., being happy or sad). It can also be provided by a specific period in time—the passage of time is sometimes said to change the “temporal context.”

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161
Q

Discriminative stimulus

A

In operant conditioning, a stimulus that signals whether the response will be reinforced. It is said to “set the occasion” for the operant response.

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162
Q

Extinction

A

Decrease in the strength of a learned behavior that occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus (in classical conditioning) or when the behavior is no longer reinforced (in instrumental conditioning). The term describes both the procedure (the US or reinforcer is no longer presented) as well as the result of the procedure (the learned response declines). Behaviors that have been reduced in strength through extinction are said to be “extinguished.”

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163
Q

Fear conditioning

A

A type of classical or Pavlovian conditioning in which the conditioned stimulus (CS) is associated with an aversive unconditioned stimulus (US), such as a foot shock. As a consequence of learning, the CS comes to evoke fear. The phenomenon is thought to be involved in the development of anxiety disorders in humans.

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164
Q

Goal-directed behavior

A

Instrumental behavior that is influenced by the animal’s knowledge of the association between the behavior and its consequence and the current value of the consequence. Sensitive to the reinforcer devaluation effect.

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165
Q

Habit

A

Instrumental behavior that occurs automatically in the presence of a stimulus and is no longer influenced by the animal’s knowledge of the value of the reinforcer. Insensitive to the reinforcer devaluation effect.

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166
Q

Instrumental conditioning

A

Process in which animals learn about the relationship between their behaviors and their consequences. Also known as operant conditioning.

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167
Q

Law of effect

A

The idea that instrumental or operant responses are influenced by their effects. Responses that are followed by a pleasant state of affairs will be strengthened and those that are followed by discomfort will be weakened. Nowadays, the term refers to the idea that operant or instrumental behaviors are lawfully controlled by their consequences.

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168
Q

Observational learning

A

Learning by observing the behavior of others.

169
Q

Operant

A

A behavior that is controlled by its consequences. The simplest example is the rat’s lever-pressing, which is controlled by the presentation of the reinforcer.

170
Q

Operant conditioning

A

See instrumental conditioning.

171
Q

Pavlovian conditioning

A

See classical conditioning.

172
Q

Prediction error

A

When the outcome of a conditioning trial is different from that which is predicted by the conditioned stimuli that are present on the trial (i.e., when the US is surprising). Prediction error is necessary to create Pavlovian conditioning (and associative learning generally). As learning occurs over repeated conditioning trials, the conditioned stimulus increasingly predicts the unconditioned stimulus, and prediction error declines. Conditioning works to correct or reduce prediction error.

173
Q

Preparedness

A

The idea that an organism’s evolutionary history can make it easy to learn a particular association. Because of preparedness, you are more likely to associate the taste of tequila, and not the circumstances surrounding drinking it, with getting sick. Similarly, humans are more likely to associate images of spiders and snakes than flowers and mushrooms with aversive outcomes like shocks.

174
Q

Punisher

A

A stimulus that decreases the strength of an operant behavior when it is made a consequence of the behavior.

175
Q

Quantitative law of effect

A

A mathematical rule that states that the effectiveness of a reinforcer at strengthening an operant response depends on the amount of reinforcement earned for all alternative behaviors. A reinforcer is less effective if there is a lot of reinforcement in the environment for other behaviors.

176
Q

Reinforcer

A

Any consequence of a behavior that strengthens the behavior or increases the likelihood that it will be performed it again.

177
Q

Reinforcer devaluation effect

A

The finding that an animal will stop performing an instrumental response that once led to a reinforcer if the reinforcer is separately made aversive or undesirable.

178
Q

Renewal effect

A

Recovery of an extinguished response that occurs when the context is changed after extinction. Especially strong when the change of context involves return to the context in which conditioning originally occurred. Can occur after extinction in either classical or instrumental conditioning.

179
Q

Social Learning Theory

A

The theory that people can learn new responses and behaviors by observing the behavior of others.

180
Q

Social models

A

Authorities that are the targets for observation and who model behaviors.

181
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

Recovery of an extinguished response that occurs with the passage of time after extinction. Can occur after extinction in either classical or instrumental conditioning.

182
Q

Stimulus control

A

When an operant behavior is controlled by a stimulus that precedes it.

183
Q

Taste aversion learning

A

The phenomenon in which a taste is paired with sickness, and this causes the organism to reject—and dislike—that taste in the future.

184
Q

Unconditioned response (UR)

A

In classical conditioning, an innate response that is elicited by a stimulus before (or in the absence of) conditioning.

185
Q

Unconditioned stimulus (US)

A

In classical conditioning, the stimulus that elicits the response before conditioning occurs.

186
Q

Vicarious reinforcement

A

Learning that occurs by observing the reinforcement or punishment of another person.

187
Q

Accommodation

A

Changing one’s beliefs about the world and how it works in light of new experience.

188
Q

Appraisal structure

A

The set of appraisals that bring about an emotion.

189
Q

Appraisal theories

A

Evaluations that relate what is happening in the environment to people’s values, goals, and beliefs. Appraisal theories of emotion contend that emotions are caused by patterns of appraisals, such as whether an event furthers or hinders a goal and whether an event can be coped with.

190
Q

Awe

A

An emotion associated with profound, moving experiences. Awe comes about when people encounter an event that is vast (far from normal experience) but that can be accommodated in existing knowledge.

191
Q

Chills

A

A feeling of goosebumps, usually on the arms, scalp, and neck, that is often experienced during moments of awe.

192
Q

Confusion

A

An emotion associated with conflicting and contrary information, such as when people appraise an event as unfamiliar and as hard to understand. Confusion motivates people to work through the perplexing information and thus fosters deeper learning.

193
Q

Coping potential

A

People’s beliefs about their ability to handle challenges.

194
Q

Facial expressions

A

Part of the expressive component of emotions, facial expressions of emotion communicate inner feelings to others.

195
Q

F​unctionalist theories of emotion

A

Theories of emotion that emphasize the adaptive role of an emotion in handling common problems throughout evolutionary history.

196
Q

Impasse-driven learning

A

An approach to instruction that motivates active learning by having learners work through perplexing barriers.

197
Q

Interest

A

An emotion associated with curiosity and intrigue, interest motivates engaging with new things and learning more about them. It is one of the earliest emotions to develop and a resource for intrinsically motivated learning across the life span.

198
Q

Intrinsically motivated learning

A

Learning that is “for its own sake”—such as learning motivated by curiosity and wonder—instead of learning to gain rewards or social approval.

199
Q

Knowledge emotion​s

A

A family of emotions associated with learning, reflecting, and exploring. These emotions come about when unexpected and unfamiliar events happen in the environment. Broadly speaking, they motivate people to explore unfamiliar things, which builds knowledge and expertise over the long run.

200
Q

O​penness to experience

A

One of the five major factors of personality, this trait is associated with higher curiosity, creativity, emotional breadth, and open-mindedness. People high in openness to experience are more likely to experience interest and awe.

201
Q

Surprise

A

An emotion rooted in expectancy violation that orients people toward the unexpected event.

202
Q

Trait curiosity

A

Stable individual-differences in how easily and how often people become curious.

203
Q

Reinforcement

A

What happens when a consequence makes a behaviour MORE likely to occur

204
Q

Punishment

A

What happens when a consequence makes a behaviour LESS likely to occur

205
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

Something desirable happened

206
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

When something undesirable DIDN’T happen

207
Q

Positive punishment

A

Something undesirable happened

208
Q

Negative punishment

A

Something undesirable DIDN’T happen

209
Q

Variable interval

A

When a response is rewarded after an UNPREDICTABLE amount of TIME has passed

210
Q

Fixed ratio

A

Response is reinforced only after a SPECIFIED number of RESPONSES

211
Q

Fixed interval

A

The 1st response is rewarded only after a SPECIFIED amount of TIME has elapsed

212
Q

Variable ratio

A

When a response is reinforced after an UNPREDICTABLE number of RESPONSES

213
Q

how similar are monozygotic twins in terms of DNA?

A

100% identical

214
Q

how similar are dizygotic twins in terms of DNA?

A

50% similar – as similar as normal siblings

215
Q

what is an example of quantitative genetics?

A

twin studies

216
Q

what is the number produced by quantitative genetics called? What does is vary from?

A
  • produces the heritability coefficient

- varies from 0 to 1

217
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: everything has turned out to have some relation to genetics

A

TRUE

218
Q

what is the problem with trying to match behavioural traits with specific genes or specific environmental factors?

A
  • the effects from genes are so small and scattered that it makes it impossible to match them to behaviours in any meaningful way
  • there are an infinitive number of scenarios that could cause a person to act a certain way
219
Q

_____, not survival success, is the engine of evolution by natural selection

A

reproductive success – in order for genes to endure, we have to inherit adoptive, psychological processes designed to ensure success

220
Q

what are the 2 large classes of adaptations that organisms have?

A

1st class: survival adaptations (EX: developed sweat glands to survive climates; fear responses)

2nd class: sexual selection theory proposed by Charles Darwin

221
Q

what are the 3 possible processes through which sexual selection occurs?

A
  1. intrasexual competition: when members of one sex compete with each other to decide who gets to mate with a member of the opposite sex
  2. intersexual selection: evolution occurs b/c of one sex’s preferences in the opposite sex – those who have more to offer/more desirable traits will be the ones who breed and pass down their genes – ‘pick me! I’m better and have more to offer!’
  3. (in humans) mutual mate choice: men and women have equal say in choosing their mates
222
Q

how are genes passed down?

A

through DNA

223
Q

what are the 2 ways in which genes boost their replicative success?

A
  1. they can influence odds for survival and reproduction of the organism they are in
  2. genes can also influence the organism to help other organism who also likely contain those genes (genetic relatives) to survive and reproduce (called inclusive fitness) – ex: when a parent helps their child pay for college because they know that being more educated means a more likely chance of surviving and finding a mate
224
Q

describe the process of physiological and psychological adaptations

A
  1. input (smth occurs that requires a necessary psychological or physiological change)
  2. procedure (your body/mind make the necessary changes to account for the occurrence)
  3. output (now you have smth that protects you from the thing that occurred)

EX: when your body produces extra skin cells in response to increased friction to form calluses

225
Q

what are some examples of psychological adaptations?

A

eating habits, habitat preferences, mate preferences, specialized fears

226
Q

what does sexual strategies theory propose?

A

that humans have evolved a list of different mating strategies, both short and long term, that vary depending on culture, social context, parental influence, and personal mate value

227
Q

“low cost but great reward” and “high cost, low reward” are examples of what?

A

cost asymmetries

228
Q

what does error management theory (EMT) predict?

A

predicts that whenever we are presented with a safer vs. more dangerous option, we will psychologically adapt to prefer choices that minimize the cost of errors

229
Q

what are some things that EMT can be applied to?

A

visual decent illusion, auditory looming bias, sexual overperception bias

230
Q

what is the different between a genome and an epigenome?

A

the genome is static and the same in almost all cells, while the epigenome is dynamic and differs amongst cell type, tissues, and brain regions

231
Q

nucleosome

A

the basic unit of chromatin which represents a structural solution for maintaining and accessing the tightly compacted genome

232
Q

describe how a nucleosome forms

A

in each kind of mammalian cell, there are about 2 meters of genomic DNA that are divided into nuclear chromosomes even though the nucleus (which contain the DNA) is only about 2 nanometers in diameter – to achieve this compaction of DNA, the genomic data is wrapped around a group of proteins called histones – this combo of histones and DNA form a nucleosome

233
Q

cellular functions such as gene expression, DNA replication, and the generation of specific cell types are influenced by ________________.

A

distinct patterns of chromatin structure, involving covalent modification of both histones and DNA.

234
Q

what is age-related misregulation of DNA methylation associated with?

A

associated w/ the molecular pathogenesis (the manner of development of a disease) of neurodevelopmental disorders, such as ADHD, autism, schizophrenia.

235
Q

DNA methylation may broadly impact __________.

A

human brain development

236
Q

acetylation on histone tails is mediated by the opposing enzymic activities of _________________________.

A

histone acetyltransferases (HATs) and histone deacetylases (HDACs)

237
Q

acetylation of histone by HAT enzyme is generally associated with _____________________.

A

DNA methylation, gene silencing, and decreased gene expression

238
Q

Action potential

A

A transient all-or-nothing electrical current that is conducted down the axon when the membrane potential reaches the threshold of excitation.

239
Q

Axon

A

Part of the neuron that extends off the soma, splitting several times to connect with other neurons; main output of the neuron.

240
Q

Cell membrane

A

A bi-lipid layer of molecules that separates the cell from the surrounding extracellular fluid.

241
Q

Dendrite

A

Part of a neuron that extends away from the cell body and is the main input to the neuron.

242
Q

Diffusion

A

The force on molecules to move from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration.

243
Q

Electrostatic pressure

A

The force on two ions with similar charge to repel each other; the force of two ions with opposite charge to attract to one another.

244
Q

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials

A

A depolarizing postsynaptic current that causes the membrane potential to become more positive and move towards the threshold of excitation.

245
Q

Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials

A

A hyperpolarizing postsynaptic current that causes the membrane potential to become more negative and move away from the threshold of excitation.

246
Q

Ion channels

A

Proteins that span the cell membrane, forming channels that specific ions can flow through between the intracellular and extracellular space.

247
Q

Ionotropic receptor

A

Ion channel that opens to allow ions to permeate the cell membrane under specific conditions, such as the presence of a neurotransmitter or a specific membrane potential.

248
Q

Myelin sheath

A

Substance around the axon of a neuron that serves as insulation to allow the action potential to conduct rapidly toward the terminal buttons.

249
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

Chemical substance released by the presynaptic terminal button that acts on the postsynaptic cell.

250
Q

Nucleus

A

Collection of nerve cells found in the brain which typically serve a specific function.

251
Q

Resting membrane potential

A

The voltage inside the cell relative to the voltage outside the cell while the cell is at rest (approximately -70 mV).

252
Q

Sodium-potassium pump

A

An ion channel that uses the neuron’s energy (adenosine triphosphate, ATP) to pump three Na+ ions outside the cell in exchange for bringing two K+ ions inside the cell.

253
Q

Soma

A

Cell body of a neuron that contains the nucleus and genetic information, and directs protein synthesis.

254
Q

Spines

A

Protrusions on the dendrite of a neuron that form synapses with terminal buttons of the presynaptic axon.

255
Q

Synapse

A

Junction between the presynaptic terminal button of one neuron and the dendrite, axon, or soma of another postsynaptic neuron.

256
Q

Synaptic gap

A

Also known as the synaptic cleft; the small space between the presynaptic terminal button and the postsynaptic dendritic spine, axon, or soma.

257
Q

Synaptic vesicles

A

Groups of neurotransmitters packaged together and located within the terminal button.

258
Q

Terminal button

A

The part of the end of the axon that form synapses with postsynaptic dendrite, axon, or soma.

259
Q

Threshold of excitation

A

Specific membrane potential that the neuron must reach to initiate an action potential.

260
Q

5α-reductase

A

An enzyme required to convert testosterone to 5α-dihydrotestosterone.

261
Q

Aggression

A

A form of social interaction that includes threat, attack, and fighting.

262
Q

Aromatase

A

An enzyme that converts androgens into estrogens.

263
Q

Chromosomal sex

A

The sex of an individual as determined by the sex chromosomes (typically XX or XY) received at the time of fertilization.

264
Q

Defeminization

A

The removal of the potential for female traits.

265
Q

Demasculinization

A

The removal of the potential for male traits.

266
Q

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

A

A primary androgen that is an androgenic steroid product of testosterone and binds strongly to androgen receptors.

267
Q

Endocrine gland

A

A ductless gland from which hormones are released into the blood system in response to specific biological signals.

268
Q

Estrogen

A

Any of the C18 class of steroid hormones, so named because of the estrus-generating properties in females. Biologically important estrogens include estradiol and estriol.

269
Q

Feminization

A

The induction of female traits.

270
Q

Gonadal sex

A

The sex of an individual as determined by the possession of either ovaries or testes. Females have ovaries, whereas males have testes.

271
Q

Hormone

A

An organic chemical messenger released from endocrine cells that travels through the blood to interact with target cells at some distance to cause a biological response.

272
Q

Masculinization

A

The induction of male traits.

273
Q

Maternal behavior

A

Parental behavior performed by the mother or other female.

274
Q

Neurotransmitter

A

A chemical messenger that travels between neurons to provide communication. Some neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine, can leak into the blood system and act as hormones.

275
Q

Oxytocin

A

A peptide hormone secreted by the pituitary gland to trigger lactation, as well as social bonding.

276
Q

Parental behavior

A

Behaviors performed in relation to one’s offspring that contributes directly to the survival of those offspring

277
Q

Paternal behavior

A

Parental behavior performed by the father or other male.

278
Q

Progesterone

A

A primary progestin that is involved in pregnancy and mating behaviors.

279
Q

Progestin

A

A class of C21 steroid hormones named for their progestational (pregnancy-supporting) effects. Progesterone is a common progestin.

280
Q

Prohormone

A

A molecule that can act as a hormone itself or be converted into another hormone with different properties. For example, testosterone can serve as a hormone or as a prohormone for either dihydrotestosterone or estradiol.

281
Q

Prolactin

A

A protein hormone that is highly conserved throughout the animal kingdom. It has many biological functions associated with reproduction and synergistic actions with steroid hormones.

282
Q

Receptor

A

A chemical structure on the cell surface or inside of a cell that has an affinity for a specific chemical configuration of a hormone, neurotransmitter, or other compound.

283
Q

Sex determination

A

The point at which an individual begins to develop as either a male or a female. In animals that have sex chromosomes, this occurs at fertilization. Females are XX and males are XY. All eggs bear X chromosomes, whereas sperm can either bear X or Y chromosomes. Thus, it is the males that determine the sex of the offspring.

284
Q

Sex differentiation

A

The process by which individuals develop the characteristics associated with being male or female. Differential exposure to gonadal steroids during early development causes sexual differentiation of several structures including the brain.

285
Q

Target cell

A

A cell that has receptors for a specific chemical messenger (hormone or neurotransmitter).

286
Q

Testosterone

A

The primary androgen secreted by the testes of most vertebrate animals, including men.

287
Q

Agonists

A

A drug that increases or enhances a neurotransmitter’s effect.

288
Q

Antagonist

A

A drug that blocks a neurotransmitter’s effect.

289
Q

Enzyme

A

A protein produced by a living organism that allows or helps a chemical reaction to occur.

290
Q

Enzyme induction

A

Process through which a drug can enhance the production of an enzyme.

291
Q

Metabolism

A

Breakdown of substances.

292
Q

Neurotransmitter

A

A chemical substance produced by a neuron that is used for communication between neurons.

293
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

The action of a drug through the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

294
Q

Polypharmacy

A

The use of many medications.

295
Q

Psychoactive drugs

A

A drug that changes mood or the way someone feels.

296
Q

Psychotropic drug

A

A drug that changes mood or emotion, usually used when talking about drugs prescribed for various mental conditions (depression, anxiety, schizophrenia, etc.).

297
Q

Synapse

A

The tiny space separating neurons.

298
Q

Ablation

A

Surgical removal of brain tissue.

299
Q

Axial plane

A

See “horizontal plane.”

300
Q

Basal ganglia

A

Subcortical structures of the cerebral hemispheres involved in voluntary movement.

301
Q

Brain stem

A

The “trunk” of the brain comprised of the medulla, pons, midbrain, and diencephalon.

302
Q

Callosotomy

A

Surgical procedure in which the corpus callosum is severed (used to control severe epilepsy).

303
Q

Case study

A

A thorough study of a patient (or a few patients) with naturally occurring lesions.

304
Q

Cerebellum

A

The distinctive structure at the back of the brain, Latin for “small brain.”

305
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

The outermost gray matter of the cerebrum; the distinctive convolutions characteristic of the mammalian brain.

306
Q

Cerebral hemispheres

A

The cerebral cortex, underlying white matter, and subcortical structures.

307
Q

Cerebrum

A

Usually refers to the cerebral cortex and associated white matter, but in some texts includes the subcortical structures.

308
Q

Contralateral

A

Literally “opposite side”; used to refer to the fact that the two hemispheres of the brain process sensory information and motor commands for the opposite side of the body (e.g., the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body).

309
Q

Converging evidence

A

Similar findings reported from multiple studies using different methods.

310
Q

Coronal plane

A

A slice that runs from head to foot; brain slices in this plane are similar to slices of a loaf of bread, with the eyes being the front of the loaf.

311
Q

Diffuse optical imaging (DOI)

A

A neuroimaging technique that infers brain activity by measuring changes in light as it is passed through the skull and surface of the brain.

312
Q

Electroencephalography (EEG)

A

A neuroimaging technique that measures electrical brain activity via multiple electrodes on the scalp.

313
Q

Frontal lobe

A

The front most (anterior) part of the cerebrum; anterior to the central sulcus and responsible for motor output and planning, language, judgment, and decision-making.

314
Q

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

A

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI): A neuroimaging technique that infers brain activity by measuring changes in oxygen levels in the blood.

315
Q

Gray matter

A

The outer grayish regions of the brain comprised of the neurons’ cell bodies.

316
Q

Gyri

A

(plural) Folds between sulci in the cortex.

317
Q

Gyrus

A

A fold between sulci in the cortex.

318
Q

Horizontal plane

A

A slice that runs horizontally through a standing person (i.e., parallel to the floor); slices of brain in this plane divide the top and bottom parts of the brain; this plane is similar to slicing a hamburger bun.

319
Q

Lateralized

A

To the side; used to refer to the fact that specific functions may reside primarily in one hemisphere or the other (e.g., for the majority individuals, the left hemisphere is most responsible for language).

320
Q

Lesion

A

A region in the brain that suffered damage through injury, disease, or medical intervention.

321
Q

Limbic system

A

Includes the subcortical structures of the amygdala and hippocampal formation as well as some cortical structures; responsible for aversion and gratification.

322
Q

Metabolite

A

A substance necessary for a living organism to maintain life.

323
Q

Motor cortex

A

Region of the frontal lobe responsible for voluntary movement; the motor cortex has a contralateral representation of the human body.

324
Q

Myelin

A

Fatty tissue, produced by glial cells (see module, “Neurons”) that insulates the axons of the neurons; myelin is necessary for normal conduction of electrical impulses among neurons.

325
Q

Nomenclature

A

Naming conventions.

326
Q

Occipital lobe

A

The back most (posterior) part of the cerebrum; involved in vision.

327
Q

Parietal lobe

A

The part of the cerebrum between the frontal and occipital lobes; involved in bodily sensations, visual attention, and integrating the senses.

328
Q

Phrenology

A

A now-discredited field of brain study, popular in the first half of the 19th century that correlated bumps and indentations of the skull with specific functions of the brain.

329
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET)

A

A neuroimaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting the presence of a radioactive substance in the brain that is initially injected into the bloodstream and then pulled in by active brain tissue.

330
Q

Sagittal plane

A

A slice that runs vertically from front to back; slices of brain in this plane divide the left and right side of the brain; this plane is similar to slicing a baked potato lengthwise.

331
Q

Somatosensory (body sensations) cortex

A

The region of the parietal lobe responsible for bodily sensations; the somatosensory cortex has a contralateral representation of the human body.

332
Q

Spatial resolution

A

A term that refers to how small the elements of an image are; high spatial resolution means the device or technique can resolve very small elements; in neuroscience it describes how small of a structure in the brain can be imaged.

333
Q

Split-brain patient

A

A patient who has had most or all of his or her corpus callosum severed.

334
Q

Subcortical

A

Structures that lie beneath the cerebral cortex, but above the brain stem.

335
Q

Sulci

A

(plural) Grooves separating folds of the cortex.

336
Q

Sulcus

A

A groove separating folds of the cortex.

337
Q

Temporal lobe

A

The part of the cerebrum in front of (anterior to) the occipital lobe and below the lateral fissure; involved in vision, auditory processing, memory, and integrating vision and audition.

338
Q

Temporal resolution

A

A term that refers to how small a unit of time can be measured; high temporal resolution means capable of resolving very small units of time; in neuroscience it describes how precisely in time a process can be measured in the brain.

339
Q

Transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS)

A

A neuroscience technique that passes mild electrical current directly through a brain area by placing small electrodes on the skull.

340
Q

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

A

A neuroscience technique whereby a brief magnetic pulse is applied to the head that temporarily induces a weak electrical current that interferes with ongoing activity.

341
Q

Transverse plane

A

See “horizontal plane.”

342
Q

Visual hemifield

A

The half of visual space (what we see) on one side of fixation (where we are looking); the left hemisphere is responsible for the right visual hemifield, and the right hemisphere is responsible for the left visual hemifield.

343
Q

White matter

A

The inner whitish regions of the cerebrum comprised of the myelinated axons of neurons in the cerebral cortex.

344
Q

Blood-oxygen-level-dependent (BOLD)

A

The signal typically measured in fMRI that results from changes in the ratio of oxygenated hemoglobin to deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood.

345
Q

Central nervous system

A

The part of the nervous system that consists of the brain and spinal cord.

346
Q

Deoxygenated hemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin not carrying oxygen.

347
Q

Depolarization

A

A change in a cell’s membrane potential, making the inside of the cell more positive and increasing the chance of an action potential.

348
Q

Hemoglobin

A

The oxygen-carrying portion of a red blood cell.

349
Q

Hyperpolarization

A

A change in a cell’s membrane potential, making the inside of the cell more negative and decreasing the chance of an action potential.

350
Q

Invasive Procedure

A

A procedure that involves the skin being broken or an instrument or chemical being introduced into a body cavity.

351
Q

Lesions

A

Abnormalities in the tissue of an organism usually caused by disease or trauma.

352
Q

Neural plasticity

A

The ability of synapses and neural pathways to change over time and adapt to changes in neural process, behavior, or environment.

353
Q

Neuroscience methods

A

A research method that deals with the structure or function of the nervous system and brain.

354
Q

Noninvasive procedure

A

A procedure that does not require the insertion of an instrument or chemical through the skin or into a body cavity.

355
Q

Oxygenated hemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin carrying oxygen.

356
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)

A

One of the two major divisions of the autonomic nervous system, responsible for stimulation of “rest and digest” activities.

357
Q

Peripheral nervous system

A

The part of the nervous system that is outside the brain and spinal cord.

358
Q

Positron

A

A particle having the same mass and numerically equal but positive charge as an electron.

359
Q

Psychophysiological methods

A

Any research method in which the dependent variable is a physiological measure and the independent variable is behavioral or mental (such as memory).

360
Q

Spatial resolution

A

The degree to which one can separate a single object in space from another.

361
Q

Sympathetic nervous system (SNS)

A

One of the two major divisions of the autonomic nervous system, responsible for stimulation of “fight or flight” activities.

362
Q

Temporal resolution

A

The degree to which one can separate a single point in time from another.

363
Q

Voltage

A

The difference in electric charge between two points.

364
Q

Afferent nerves

A

Nerves that carry messages to the brain or spinal cord.

365
Q

Agnosias

A

Due to damage of Wernicke’s area. An inability to recognize objects, words, or faces.

366
Q

Aphasia

A

Due to damage of the Broca’s area. An inability to produce or understand words.

367
Q

Arcuate fasciculus

A

A fiber tract that connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s speech areas.

368
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

A part of the peripheral nervous system that connects to glands and smooth muscles. Consists of sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

369
Q

Broca’s area

A

An area in the frontal lobe of the left hemisphere. Implicated in language production.

370
Q

Central sulcus

A

The major fissure that divides the frontal and the parietal lobes.

371
Q

Cerebellum

A

A nervous system structure behind and below the cerebrum. Controls motor movement coordination, balance, equilibrium, and muscle tone.

372
Q

Cerebrum

A

Consists of left and right hemispheres that sit at the top of the nervous system and engages in a variety of higher-order functions.

373
Q

Cingulate gyrus

A

A medial cortical portion of the nervous tissue that is a part of the limbic system.

374
Q

Computerized axial tomography

A

A noninvasive brain-scanning procedure that uses X-ray absorption around the head.

375
Q

Ectoderm

A

The outermost layer of a developing fetus.

376
Q

Efferent nerves

A

Nerves that carry messages from the brain to glands and organs in the periphery.

377
Q

Electroencephalography

A

A technique that is used to measure gross electrical activity of the brain by placing electrodes on the scalp.

378
Q

Event-related potentials

A

A physiological measure of large electrical change in the brain produced by sensory stimulation or motor responses.

379
Q

Forebrain

A

A part of the nervous system that contains the cerebral hemispheres, thalamus, and hypothalamus.

380
Q

Fornix

A

(plural form, fornices) A nerve fiber tract that connects the hippocampus to mammillary bodies.

381
Q

Frontal lobe

A

The most forward region (close to forehead) of the cerebral hemispheres.

382
Q

Functional magnetic resonance imaging

A

(or fMRI) A noninvasive brain-imaging technique that registers changes in blood flow in the brain during a given task (also see magnetic resonance imaging).

383
Q

Globus pallidus

A

A nucleus of the basal ganglia.

384
Q

Gray matter

A

Composes the bark or the cortex of the cerebrum and consists of the cell bodies of the neurons (see also white matter).

385
Q

Gyrus

A

(plural form, gyri) A bulge that is raised between or among fissures of the convoluted brain.

386
Q

Hippocampus

A

(plural form, hippocampi) A nucleus inside (medial) the temporal lobe implicated in learning and memory.

387
Q

Homo habilis

A

A human ancestor, handy man, that lived two million years ago.

388
Q

Homo sapiens

A

Modern man, the only surviving form of the genus Homo.

389
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Part of the diencephalon. Regulates biological drives with pituitary gland.

390
Q

Immunocytochemistry

A

A method of staining tissue including the brain, using antibodies.

391
Q

Lateral geniculate nucleus

A

(or LGN) A nucleus in the thalamus that is innervated by the optic nerves and sends signals to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe.

392
Q

Lateral sulcus

A

The major fissure that delineates the temporal lobe below the frontal and the parietal lobes.

393
Q

Lesion studies

A

A surgical method in which a part of the animal brain is removed to study its effects on behavior or function.

394
Q

Limbic system

A

A loosely defined network of nuclei in the brain involved with learning and emotion.

395
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging

A

Or MRI is a brain imaging noninvasive technique that uses magnetic energy to generate brain images (also see fMRI).

396
Q

Magnification factor

A

Cortical space projected by an area of sensory input (e.g., mm of cortex per degree of visual field).

397
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

An area just above the spinal cord that processes breathing, digestion, heart and blood vessel function, swallowing, and sneezing.

398
Q

Neural crest

A

A set of primordial neurons that migrate outside the neural tube and give rise to sensory and autonomic neurons in the peripheral nervous system.

399
Q

Neural induction

A

A process that causes the formation of the neural tube.

400
Q

Neuroblasts

A

Brain progenitor cells that asymmetrically divide into other neuroblasts or nerve cells.

401
Q

Neuroepithelium

A

The lining of the neural tube.

402
Q

Occipital lobe

A

The back part of the cerebrum, which houses the visual areas.

403
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

A division of the autonomic nervous system that is slower than its counterpart—that is, the sympathetic nervous system—and works in opposition to it. Generally engaged in “rest and digest” functions.

404
Q

Parietal lobe

A

An area of the cerebrum just behind the central sulcus that is engaged with somatosensory and gustatory sensation.

405
Q

Pons

A

A bridge that connects the cerebral cortex with the medulla, and reciprocally transfers information back and forth between the brain and the spinal cord.

406
Q

Positron Emission Tomography

A

(or PET) An invasive procedure that captures brain images with positron emissions from the brain after the individual has been injected with radio-labeled isotopes.

407
Q

Primary Motor Cortex

A

A strip of cortex just in front of the central sulcus that is involved with motor control.

408
Q

Primary Somatosensory Cortex

A

A strip of cerebral tissue just behind the central sulcus engaged in sensory reception of bodily sensations.

409
Q

Rostrocaudal

A

A front-back plane used to identify anatomical structures in the body and the brain.

410
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

A part of the peripheral nervous system that uses cranial and spinal nerves in volitional actions.

411
Q

Spina bifida

A

A developmental disease of the spinal cord, where the neural tube does not close caudally.

412
Q

Sulcus

A

(plural form, sulci) The crevices or fissures formed by convolutions in the brain.

413
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

A division of the autonomic nervous system, that is faster than its counterpart that is the parasympathetic nervous system and works in opposition to it. Generally engaged in “fight or flight” functions.

414
Q

Temporal lobe

A

An area of the cerebrum that lies below the lateral sulcus; it contains auditory and olfactory (smell) projection regions.

415
Q

Thalamus

A

A part of the diencephalon that works as a gateway for incoming and outgoing information.

416
Q

Transduction

A

A process in which physical energy converts into neural energy.

417
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

A language area in the temporal lobe where linguistic information is comprehended (Also see Broca’s area).

418
Q

White matter

A

Regions of the nervous system that represent the axons of the nerve cells; whitish in color because of myelination of the nerve cells.

419
Q

Working memory

A

Short transitory memory processed in the hippocampus.