Weeks 1-3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What kinds of cells does the nervous system comprise?

A

Neurons

Glia

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2
Q

What is the function of neurons?

A

Receive information and transmit it to other cells

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3
Q

Roughly how many neurons are there in the adult human brain?

A

86 billion

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4
Q

Which two scientists are considered the main founders of neuroscience?

A
Santiago Ramon y Cajal (Chapter 1)
Charles Sherrington (Chapter 2)
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5
Q

Do sodium ions enter cells in the resting state?

A

Yes

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6
Q

What is the mind-brain or mind-body problem?

A

How does the mind relate to the brain?
Why is there such a thing as consciousness?
Why are certain types of brain activity conscious?

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7
Q

What is biological psychology?

A

The study of the physiological, evolutionary, and developmental mechanisms of behaviour and experience.

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8
Q

Describe the size and function of neurons.

A

Convey messages to one another, and to muscles and glands.

Vary greatly in size, shape, and function.

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9
Q

Describe the size and function of glia.

A

Generally smaller than neurons.

Have many functions but do not convey information over great distances.

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10
Q

What is monism?

A

Mental activity and certain types of brain activity are the same thing.
The universe consists of only one type of being.
Supported by almost all neuroscientists and philosophers.

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11
Q

What is dualism?

A

The idea that minds are one type of substance and matter is another.

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12
Q

What is a physiological explanation?

A

Relate a behaviour to the activity of the brain and other organs

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13
Q

What is an ontogenic explanation?

A

Describes how a structure or behaviour develops, including the influences of genes nutrition, experiences, and their interactions.
E.g. Males and female differ on average in several way, which can be traced to the effects of genes or prenatal hormones, or to cultural influences, or to both.

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14
Q

What is an evolutionary explanation?

A

Reconstructs the evolutionary history of a structure of behaviour. Characteristic features of an animal are almost always modifications of something found in ancestral species.
E.g. Bat wings are modified arms.

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15
Q

What is a functional explanation?

A

Describes why a structure or behaviour evolved as it did. Characteristics that promote survival are more likely to be seen as desirable in a mate, and therefore proliferate.
E.g. Many species have an appearance that matches the background they rest on.

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16
Q

How is an evolutionary explanation different from a functional explanation?

A

An evolutionary explanation states what evolved from

what. For example, humans evolved from earlier primates and therefore have certain features that we inherited from those ancestors, even if the features are not useful to us
today.

A functional explanation states why something was advantageous and therefore favored by natural selection.

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17
Q

Why do biological psychologists study non-humans?

A
  1. The underlying behaviour mechanisms are similar across species and sometimes easier to study in a non-human species.
  2. We are interested in animals for their own sake.
  3. What we learn about animals sheds light on human evolution.
  4. Legal or ethical restrictions prevent certain kinds of research on humans.
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18
Q

Of the following, which one is an example of an evolutionary explanation (as opposed to a functional explanation)?

A. People evolved a fear of snakes because many snakes are dangerous.
B. Humans have a (tiny) tailbone because our ancient monkey-like ancestors had a tail.
C. People evolved an ability to recognize faces because that ability is essential for cooperative social behaviors.
D. People evolved a tendency to form long-term male–female bonds because human infants benefit from the help of two parents

A

B. Humans have a (tiny) tailbone because our ancient monkey-like ancestors had a tail.

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19
Q

Of the following, which is a reason favoring the use of animals in biological psychology research aimed at solving human
problems?

A. Nonhuman animals engage in all the same behaviors as humans.
B. One human differs from another, but nonhumans are
nearly the same as one another.
C. The nervous system of nonhuman animals resembles that of humans in many ways.
D. Researchers can study nonhuman animals without
any legal restraints.

A

C. The nervous system of nonhuman animals resembles that of humans in many ways.

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20
Q

What does a “minimalist” favor with regard to animal research?

A. All research should have a minimum of at least 10
animals per group.
B. A minimum of three people should review each
research proposal.
C. Interference with animal research should be held to a
minimum.
D. Animal research is permissible but should be held to a minimum.

A

D. Animal research is permissible but should be held to a minimum.

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21
Q

An ontogenetic explanation focuses on which of the following?

A. How a behavior develops
B. The brain mechanisms that produce a behavior
C. The conscious experience that accompanies a behavior
D. The procedures that measure a behavior

A

A. How a behavior develops

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22
Q

What is the surface of a cell called?

A

Membrane

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23
Q

How can chemicals cross the membrane?

A

Protein channels permit a controlled flow of waqter, oxygen, sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, and other important chemicals.

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24
Q

Which kinds of animal cells do not have a nucleus?

A

Mammalian red blood cells

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25
Q

What is structures perform metabolic activities?

What does this mean?

A

Mitochondria

They provide the energy that the cell uses for all other activities.

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26
Q

Mitochondria have genes separate from those in the nucleus of the cell. What are some outcomes of genetically different mitochondria?

A

Overactive mitochondria burn their fuel rapidly and overheat.

People with less active mitochondria are predisposed to depression and pains.

Mutated mitochonrial genes are a possible cause of autism.

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27
Q

What is a ribosome?

Where are they found?

A

The site within a cell that synthesizes new protein molecules.

Some float freely within the cell, but others are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum, a network of thin tubes that transport newly synthesized proteins to other locations.

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28
Q

What do proteins in cells do?

A

Provide building materials for the cell and facilitate chemical reactions.

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29
Q

What is a soma?

A

Cell body

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30
Q

Describe a motor neuron.

What is its function?

What components does it have?

A

Sends impules to muscles.

Soma in the spinal cord
Receives excitation through its dendrites
Conducts impules along its axon to a muscle

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31
Q

What does a sensory neuron do?

A

Specialised at one end to be highly sensitive to a particular type of stimulation, such as light, sound, or touch.
E.g. Conducting touch information from the skin to the spinal cord

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32
Q

What are dendrites?

A

Branching fibres that get narrower near their ends.

Surface is lined with specialised synaptic receptors, at which the dendrite receives information from the other neurons.

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33
Q

What does a greater surface area mean for dendrites?

A

They can receive more information.

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34
Q

What formations increase the surface area available for synapse?

A

Dendritic spines

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35
Q

What structure contains the nucleus, ribosomes, and mitochondria?

A

The soma

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36
Q

Describe the function of the soma.

A

Most of a neuron’s metabolic work occurs here.

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37
Q

How large are soma?

A

0.005mm to 0.1mm in mammals.

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38
Q

How are soma and dendrities similar?

A

In many neurons they are covered with synapses on their surfaces.

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39
Q

Describe the axon.

A

A thin fibre of constant diameter.
Conveys an impules toward other neurons, an organ, or a muscle.
Can be more than a metre in length. E.g. Axons from the spinal cord to the feet.

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40
Q

What material covers the axon?

What does it do?

A

Myelin sheath

Insulating materials

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41
Q

What are the nodes of Ranvier?

A

Interruptions in the myelin sheath

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42
Q

There can only be one axon, but axons can have branches. What occurs at the end of each branch of an axon?

A

A swelling called a presynaptic terminal or end bulb that releases chemicals that cross the junction between that neuron and another cell.

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43
Q

What does an afferent neuron do?

A

Brings information into a structure

Afferent starts with A and “admits” information.

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44
Q

What is an example of an afferent neuron?

A

Sensory neurons are afferent to the rest of the nervous system

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45
Q

What does an efferent neuron do?

A

Carries information away from a structure

Efferent starts with E and is an “exit”

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46
Q

What is an example of an efferent neuron?

A

Motor neurons are efferent to the nervous system.

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47
Q

How do afferent and efferent neurons interact?

A

Within the nervous system, a given neuron is efferent from one structure and afferent to another.

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48
Q

What is a neuron called if its dendrites are entirely contained within a single structure?

A

An interneuron or intrinsic neuron?

E.g. An intrinsic neuron of the thalamus has its axon and all its dendrites within the thalamus.

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49
Q

Where would you find more glia that neurons?

A

Cerebral cortex

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50
Q

What do the star-shaped glia called astrocytes do?

Why are they important?

A

Wrap around synapses of functionally related axons to shield it from checmical circulating in the surround.

Helps synchronise closely related neurons, enabling their axons to send messages in waves.

Important for generating rhythms, such as rhythm of breathing.

Dilate blood vessels to bring more nutrients into brain areas that have heightened activity.

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51
Q

Which cells act as part of the immune system, removing viruses and fungi from the brain?

A

Microglia

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52
Q

When do microglia proliferate?

A

After brain damage, removing dead or damaged neurons.

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53
Q

What are oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells?

How do they differ?

A

The build the myelin sheaths that surround and insulate certain vertebrate axons.
They supply an axon with nutrients.

Olgiodendrocytes occur in the brain and spinal cord.
Schwann cells occur in the periphery of the body.

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54
Q

Which glia guide the migration of nurons and their axons and dendrites during embryonic development?

A

Radial glia

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55
Q

What are the four major structures that compose a neuron?

A

Dendrites
Soma
Axon
Presynaptic terminal

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56
Q

Which kind of glia wraps around the synaptic terminals of axons?

A

Astrocytes

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57
Q

What is the blood-brain barrier?

A

A mechanism that excludes most chemicals from the brain

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58
Q

Why is the blood-brain barrier needed?

A

It protects the non-renewable cells of the brain from viruses, bacteria and unwanted chemicals

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59
Q

What happens to a cell when it is infected with a virus?

A

Mechanisms within the cell extrude virus particles through the membrane so that the immune system can find and kill them. Both cell and virus are killed in this way.

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60
Q

How do brain cells differ from skin or blood cells when dealing with viruses?

A

The brain’s blood vessels are lined with tightly packed cells that keep out most viruses, bacteria and harmful chemicals.
Microglia mount an inflammatory response that fights the virus without killing the neuron.

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61
Q

What are some examples of viruses that can enter the brain?

A

Rabies

Syphilis

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62
Q

Why don’t we have similar walls to the blood-brain barrier around all our other organs?

A

The barrier keeps out useful chemicals as well as harmful ones. This includes all fuels and amino acids, the building blocks for proteins.

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63
Q

What kinds of molecules can cross the blood-brain barrier?

A

Small, uncharged molecules such as oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Molecules that dissolve easily in fats, such as Vitamin A and D.
Drugs that affect the brain such as antidepressants as well as illegal drugs.

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64
Q

Which chemicals cross the blood-brain barrier passively?

A

Water, through special protein channels in the wall of the endothelial cells.

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65
Q

Which chemicals cross the blood-brain barrer through active transport?

A
Glucose - the brains main fuel
Amino acids - building blocks of proteins
Purines
Choline
Some vitamins
Iron
Insulin
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66
Q

In what situation might the blood-brain barrier prevent medical treatment?

A

Drugs used for chemotherapy fail to cross the blood-brain barrier.

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67
Q

What is the main nutrient for neurons?

A

Glucose

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68
Q

What other chemical is required to metabolise glucose?

A

Oxygen

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69
Q

How much of the body’s oxygen and glucose does the brain use?

A

20% of its oxygen

25% of its glucose

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70
Q

Why do neurons depend so heavily on glucose?

A

It is the only nutrient that crosses the blood-brain barrier in large quantities.

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71
Q

What condition is linked to the inability to metabolise gluten due to thiamine deficiency?

A

Chronic alcoholism causes thiamine deficiency and an inability to use glucose, causing the death of neurons and severe memory impairment.

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72
Q

What may cause faster uptake of a chemical in the brain?

A

Greater solubility in fats

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73
Q
  1. Santiago Ramón y Cajal was responsible for which of these discoveries?
    A. The human cerebral cortex has many specializations
    to produce language.
    B. The brain’s left and right hemispheres control different
    functions.
    C. The nervous system is composed of separate cells.
    D. Neurons communicate at specialized junctions called
    synapses.
A

C. The nervous system is composed of separate cells.

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74
Q
2. Which part of a neuron has its own genes, separate from those of the nucleus?
A. The ribosomes
B. The mitochondria
C. The axon
D. The dendrites
A

B. The mitochondria

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75
Q
  1. What is most distinctive about neurons, compared to other cells?
    A. Their temperature
    B. Their shape
    C. Their internal components, such as ribosomes and
    mitochondria
A

B. Their shape

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76
Q
  1. Which of these do dendritic spines do?
    A. They synthesize proteins.
    B. They increase the surface area available for synapses.
    C. They hold the neuron in position.
    D. They metabolize
A

B. They increase the surface area available for synapses.

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77
Q
5. What does an efferent axon do?
A. It controls involuntary behavior.
B. It controls voluntary behavior.
C. It carries output from a structure.
D. It brings information into a structure.
A

C. It carries output from a structure.

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78
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of astrocytes?
    A. Astrocytes conduct impulses over long distances.
    B. Astrocytes build myelin sheaths that surround and
    insulate axons.
    C. Astrocytes create the blood–brain barrier.
    D. Astrocytes synchronize activity for a group
    of neurons.
A

D. Astrocytes synchronize activity for a group

of neurons.

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79
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of microglia?
    A. Microglia remove dead cells and weak synapses.
    B. Microglia build myelin sheaths that surround and
    insulate axons.
    C. Microglia dilate blood vessels to increase blood supply
    to active brain areas.
    D. Microglia synchronize activity for a group of neurons.
A

A. Microglia remove dead cells and weak synapses.

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80
Q
8. Which of these can easily cross the blood–brain barrier?
A. Fat-soluble molecules
B. Chemotherapy drugs
C. Proteins
D. Viruses
A

A. Fat-soluble molecules

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81
Q
  1. Which of these chemicals cross the blood–brain barrier by active transport?
    A. Oxygen, water, and fat-soluble molecules
    B. Glucose and amino acids
    C. Proteins
    D. Viruses
A

B. Glucose and amino acids

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82
Q
10. What is the brain’s main source of fuel?
A. Glucose
B. Glutamate
C. Chocolate
D. Proteins
A

A. Glucose

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83
Q
11. For the brain to use its main source of fuel, what does it also need?
A. Steroid hormones
B. Vitamin C
C. Thiamine
D. Acetylsalicylic acid
A

C. Thiamine

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84
Q

Which impulse would reach the brain first; a touch on your toe, or a touch on your neck?

A

Neck, but in most cases you would not notice the difference because there is no need.

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85
Q

In what part of the body does an impulse from further away from the brain travel faster than one closer to the brain?

A

The retina
This ensures that impules that information received simultaneously by the retinas is transmitted to the brain at the same time.

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86
Q

What is another term for the electrical gradient of a membrane at rest?

A

Polarisation

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87
Q

What is an electrical gradient / polarisation?

A

A difference in charge between the inside and outside of a cell

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88
Q

Why is the electrical potential inside the membrane slightly negative compared to the outside?

What is this difference called?

A

Mainly because of negatively charged proteins inside the cell.

Resting potential
Typical level of -79 millivolts (mV)

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89
Q

How is resting potential measured?

A

By inserting a very thin microelectrode into the cell body.

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90
Q

What would happen if charged ions could flow freely across the membrane?

A

The membrane would depolarise.

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91
Q

What is selective permeability?

A

Some chemicals can pass through membranes more freely than others, preventing depolarisation.

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92
Q

What are membrane channels?

A

Channels through the membrane that can open and close that allow certain ions to pass through, including socidum, potassium, calcium and chloride.

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93
Q

What state are membrane channels in when the membrane is at rest?

A

Closed

Almost no sodium and a small amount of potassium can flow through when the membrane channels are closed.

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94
Q

What is the sodium-potassium pump and how does it work?

A

A protein complex that repeatedly transports three sodium ions out of the cell while drawing two potassium ions into it.
It is an active transport that requires energy.

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95
Q

Where are sodium and potassium ions most concentrated?

A

Sodium - outside the membrane

Potassium - inside the membrane

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96
Q

Why is the sodium-potassium pump effective?

A

Because of membrane permeability; sodium ions that were pumped out of the neuron are prevented from flowing back in.
However some of the potassium ions in the neuron slowly leak out, carrying a positive charge with them. That leakage increases the electrical gradient across the membrane.,

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97
Q

How does the electrical gradient affect sodium?

A

Pushes it into the cell; sodium is positively charged, interior of the cell is negatively charged; opposites attract.

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98
Q

How does the concentration gradient affect sodium?

A

Pushes it into the cell.
Sodium is more concentrated outside the cell, so it is more likely to enter a cell than leave it EXCEPT because the sodium channels are closed when the membrane is at rest almost no sodium flows except for what the sodium-potassium pump forces OUT of the cell.

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99
Q

How does the electrical gradient affect potassium?

A

Pulls it into the cell.
Potassium is positively charged and the inside of the cell is negatively charged, so the electrical gradient tends to pull potassium in.

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100
Q

How does the concentration gradient affect potassium?

A

Pushes it out of the cell.

Potassium is more concentrated inside the cell, so the concentration gradient tends to drive it out.

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101
Q

How is the negative charge inside a cell maintained?

A

Negatively charged proteins inside the cell

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102
Q

Why does the body maintain resting potential?

A

Excitation of the neuron opens channels that allow sodium to enter the cell rapidly. Because the membrane did its work in advance by maintaining the concentration gradient for sodium, the cell is prepared to respond vigorously to a stimulus.

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103
Q

What is an action potential?

A

A message sent by an axon.

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104
Q

What is hyperpolarisation?

A

When a neuron becomes more negatively charged than at its resting potential.

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105
Q

What is depolarisation?

A

When a neuron becomes less negatively charged that at its resting potential.

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106
Q

What happens to a neuron that does not achieve stimulation that will exceed the threshold of excitation?

A

Its charge returns to its resting level.

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107
Q

What happens when a neuron reaches the threshold of excitation?

A

Massive depolarisation of the membrane.
The membrane opens its sodium channels and lets sodium ions flow into the cell.
The potential shoots up far beyond the strength that the stimulus provided.

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108
Q

What is the peak charge of an action potential?

A

It varies from one axon to another.

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109
Q

What is the range in amplitude and speed of action potentials?

What is this principle called?

A

For a given neuron, all actions are roughly equal in amplitude and velocity regardless of the intensity of the stimulus. However, different neurons may have different characteristics.

The all-or-none law
Amplitude and velocity of an action potential are independent of the intensity of the stimulus that initiated it, provided the stimulus reaches the threshold.

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110
Q

How does the thickness of the axon affect action potentials?

A

Thicker axons convey action potentials at faster velocities and more action potentials per second.

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111
Q

Does the all-or-none law apply to dendrites?

A

No, because dendrites do not have action potentials.

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112
Q

What three events occur during an action potential?

A
  1. At the start, sodium ions are mostly outside the neuron and potassium ions are mostly inside
  2. When the membrane is depolarised, sodium and potassium channels in the membrane open
  3. At the peak of the action potential, the sodium channels close
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113
Q

How does sodium or potassium cross the membrane?

A

Through a cylindrical protein that allows that particular type of ion to cross the membrane; which ion depends on the size and shape of the opening.

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114
Q

Describe the protein channels when the membrane is at resting potential.

A

Sodium channels are fully closed, allowing no flow.

Potassium channels are almost closed, allowing a small flow.

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115
Q

What happens to the protein channels when the membrane begins to depolarise?

A

Sodium ions enter the cell rapidly because both the concentration gradient and the electrical gradient tend to drive sodium ions into the neuron.

The opposing electrical and concentration gradients of potassium cancel each other out when the potassium channel is still partially closed.

116
Q

What proportion of nearby sodium ions enter a cell during an action potential?

A

Less than 1%

117
Q

What happens at the peak of the action potential?

A

The sodium channels snap shut.

118
Q

What are the axon channels called voltage-gated channels?

A

Their permeability depends on the voltage difference across the membrane.

119
Q

What happens to the inside of a cell after so many sodium ions have crossed the membrane?

A

It has a slight positive charge instead of negative and the electrical gradient drives potassium ions out of the cell, carrying a positive charge with them.
Enough potassium ions leave to drive the membrane beyond its usual resting level to a temporary hyperpolarisation.
The membrane then returns to its resting potential, but the inside o fthe neuron has slightly more sodium ions and slightly fewer potassium ions than before.

120
Q

How is the original distribution of sodium / potassium ions inside / outside the cell restored?

A

The sodium-potassium pump does this over time

121
Q

As the membrane reaches the peak of the action potential,
what brings the membrane down to the original resting
potential?

A

After the peak of the action
potential, potassium ions exit the cell, driving the membrane back to the resting potential.

Important note: The sodium–potassium pump is NOT responsible for returningthe membrane to its resting potential. The sodium–potassium pump is too slow for this purpose.

122
Q

How does propagation of the action potential occur?

A

Sodium ions enter a point on the axon.
Temporarily that spot is positively charged in comparison with neighbouring areas along the axon.
The positive ions flow within the axon to neighbouring regions.
The positive charges slightly depolarise the next area of the membrane, causing it to reach its threshold and open its voltage-gated channels.
Then the membrane regenerates the action potential at that point.

123
Q

What is myelin?

A

An insulating material composed of fats and proteins.

Myelin sheath increases the speed of an impulse along myelinated axons.

124
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

Describes the way an electrical impulse skips from node to node down the full length of an axon, speeding the arrival of the impulse at the nerve terminal in comparison with the slower continuous progression of depolarization spreading down an unmyelinated axon

125
Q

In a myelinated axon, how would the action potential be affected if the nodes were much closer together?

How might it be affected if the nodes were much farther apart?

A

If the nodes were closer, the action potential would
travel more slowly. If they were much farther apart, the
action potential would travel faster if it could successfully
jump from one node to the next. When the distance
becomes too great, the current cannot diffuse from one node to the next and still remain above threshold, so the action potentials would stop.

126
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

How long does it last?

A

At the peak of the action potential, sodium gates snap shut and another action potential can’t occur.

~1ms

127
Q

What is the period during which a stronger-than-usual stimulus is required to initiate an action potential?

How long does it last?

A

Relative refractory period

~2-4ms

128
Q

What prevents
an action potential near the center of an axon from reinvading
the areas that it has just passed?

A

Areas it just passed are still in their refractory period.

129
Q

Suppose researchers find that axon A can produce up to 1,000 action potentials per second (at least briefly, with maximum stimulation), but axon B can never produce more than 100 per second (regardless of the strength of the stimulus).
What could we conclude about the refractory periods
of the two axons?

A

Axon A must have a shorter absolute refractory period, about 1 ms, whereas B has a longer absolute refractory period, about 10 ms.

130
Q

What is a local neuron?

A

A neuron with no axon that only exchanges information with its closest neighbours.

131
Q

What is a graded potential?

A

A membrane potential that varies in magnitude in proportion to the intensity of the stimulus.

132
Q

Why are local neurons difficult to study?

A

It is difficult to insert an electrode into such small cells without damaging them.

133
Q
  1. When the neuron’s membrane is at rest, where are the sodium ions and potassium ions most concentrated?
    A. Sodium is mostly outside and potassium is mostly inside.
    B. Sodium is mostly inside and potassium is mostly
    outside.
    C. Both ions are mostly inside the cell.
    D. Both ions are mostly outside the cell.
A

A. Sodium is mostly outside and potassium is mostly inside.

134
Q
  1. When the membrane is at rest, what are the forces acting on sodium ions?
    A. Both the concentration gradient and the electrical
    gradient tend to move sodium ions into the cell.
    B. Both the concentration gradient and the electrical
    gradient tend to move sodium ions out of the cell.
    C. The concentration gradient tends to move sodium
    ions into the cell, and the electrical gradient tends to
    move them out of the cell.
    D. The concentration gradient tends to move sodium
    ions out of the cell, and the electrical gradient tends to
    move them into the cell.
A

A. Both the concentration gradient and the electrical

gradient tend to move sodium ions into the cell.

135
Q
  1. When the membrane is at rest, what are the forces acting on potassium ions?
    A. Both the concentration gradient and the electrical
    gradient tend to move potassium ions into the cell.
    B. Both the concentration gradient and the electrical
    gradient tend to move potassium ions out of the cell.
    C. The concentration gradient tends to move potassium
    ions into the cell, and the electrical gradient tends to
    move them out of the cell.
    D. The concentration gradient tends to move potassium
    ions out of the cell, and the electrical gradient tends to
    move them into the cell.
A

D. The concentration gradient tends to move potassium
ions out of the cell, and the electrical gradient tends to
move them into the cell.

136
Q
  1. Which direction does the sodium–potassium pump move ions?
    A. It moves both sodium and potassium ions into the
    cell.
    B. It moves both sodium and potassium ions out of the
    cell.
    C. It moves sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions
    out of the cell.
    D. It moves sodium ions out of the cell and potassium
    ions into the cell.
A

D. It moves sodium ions out of the cell and potassium

ions into the cell.

137
Q
  1. Under what conditions does an axon produce an action potential?
    A. Whenever the membrane is hyperpolarized
    B. Whenever the membrane’s potential reaches the
    threshold
    C. Whenever the membrane is depolarized
    D. Whenever the membrane’s potential reaches zero
A

B. Whenever the membrane’s potential reaches the

threshold

138
Q
  1. If a membrane is depolarized to twice its threshold, what happens?
    A. The neuron produces an action potential at twice as
    much strength as usual.
    B. The neuron produces an action potential that travels
    twice as fast as usual.
    C. The neuron produces an action potential slightly
    stronger and slightly faster than usual.
    D. The neuron produces the same action potential it
    would at the threshold.
A

D. The neuron produces the same action potential it

would at the threshold.

139
Q
7. To which part or parts of a neuron does the all-or-none law apply?
A. Axons
B. Dendrites
C. Both axons and dendrites
D. Neither axons nor dendrites
A

A. Axons

140
Q
  1. During the rising portion of the action potential, which ions are moving across the membrane and in which direction?
    A. Sodium ions move out.
    B. Sodium ions move in.
    C. Both sodium and potassium ions move in.
    D. Potassium ions move in.
A

B. Sodium ions move in.

141
Q
  1. After the action potential reaches its peak, the potential across the membrane falls toward its resting level. What accounts
    for this recovery?
    A. The sodium–potassium pump removes the extra
    sodium.
    B. Sodium ions move out because their channels are
    open and the concentration gradient pushes them out.
    C. Potassium ions move out because their channels are
    open and the concentration gradient pushes them out.
    D. Potassium ions move in.
A

C. Potassium ions move out because their channels are

open and the concentration gradient pushes them out.

142
Q
  1. What does the myelin sheath of an axon accomplish?
    A. It enables an axon to communicate with other axons.
    B. It enables action potentials to travel both directions
    along an axon.
    C. It enables nutrients to enter the axon.
    D. It enables action potentials to travel more rapidly.
A

D. It enables action potentials to travel more rapidly.

143
Q
  1. What causes the refractory period of an axon?
    A. The sodium–potassium pump becomes inactive.
    B. The sodium–potassium pump increases its activity.
    C. The potassium channels are closed.
    D. The sodium channels are closed.
A

D. The sodium channels are closed.

144
Q
12. About what percentage of the brain does an average person use?
A. 10 percent
B. 30 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 100 percent
A

D. 100 percent

145
Q

What did Cajal discover?

A

A narrow gap between neurons

146
Q

What did Sherrington demonstrate?

A

Communication between one neuron and the next differs from communication along a single axon

147
Q

What is the circuit from sensory neuron to second neuron to motor neuron to muscle called?

A

Reflex arc

148
Q

You are doing a study on an unmyelinated neuron. You place a tiny amount of a certain chemical on a small section of the membrane near the middle of the axon. The chemical has no electrical charge.

When you stimulate the neuron at the dendrites, you measure an action potential in the axon up until the point you placed the chemical. No action potential occurs after that point and the membrane there remains in resting potential.

What has the chemical done to cause this?

A

The chemical has kept the sodium gated channels closed, possibly by damaging them or in some other way. Subsequently there can be no other influx of sodium to cause an action potential.

149
Q

We can place a tiny glass tube against the membrane of a neuron. Then we can change the extracellular fluid at that part of the membrane by adding or remove substances.

We remove some Na+ so that the extracellular Na+ concentration at that point is now half its normal value. A different positive ion (not K+) is added to maintain the membrane potential. Now when an action potential occurs the depolarisation (rising phase) is slower than normal.

Why does this happen?

A

We have changed the concentration gradient for Na+, so there is less movement of sodium ions through open channels.

150
Q

What properties of relfexes did Sherrington observe?

A
  1. Reflexes are slower than conduction along an axon
  2. Several weak stimuli presented at nearby places or times produce a stronger reflex than one stimulus alone does
  3. When one set of muscles becomes excited, a different set becomes relaxed.
151
Q

What evidence led Sherrington to assume that transmission at a synapse is not the same as transmission along an axon?

A

Sherrington found that they velocity of conduction through a reflex arc was slower than the velocity of an action potential along an axon. Therefore, some delay must occur at the junction between one neuron and the next.

152
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

Several impulses from one neuron over time

153
Q

Whatis spatial summation?

A

Impulses from several neurons at the same time

154
Q

What is an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)?

A

Input from an axon hyperpolarises the postsynaptic cell, increasing the negative charge within the cell and moving it farther from the threshold and decreasing the probability of an action potential.

155
Q

What was Sherrington’s evidence for inhibition in the nervous system?

A

A reflex that stimulates a flexor muscle preents contraction of the extensor muscles of the same limb. He therefore inferred that an inter-nuron that excited motor neurons connected to the flexor muscle also inhibitied the input of the extensor muscle.

156
Q

What ion gates in the membrane open during an EPSP?

What gates open during an IPSP?

A

Sodium gates

Potassium or chloride gates

157
Q

Can an inhibitory message flow along an axon?

A

No. Only action potentials propagate along an axon. Inhibitory messages decay over time and distance.

158
Q
  1. How well did Sherrington’s inferences about synapses harmonize with Cajal’s conclusions about the anatomy of neurons?
    A. The two conclusions supported each other.
    B. Sherrington’s conclusions were incompatible with
    Cajal’s conclusions.
    C. The two conclusions were irrelevant to
    each other.
A

A. The two conclusions supported each other.

159
Q
  1. Sherrington based his conclusions on what type of evidence?
    A. Microscopic examination of synapses
    B. Results of injecting drugs into the spinal cord
    C. Electrical recordings from inside neurons
    D. Observations of reflexive responses
A

D. Observations of reflexive responses

160
Q
3. Although one pinch did not cause a dog to flex its leg, a rapid sequence of pinches did. Sherrington cited this observation as
evidence for what?
A. Temporal summation
B. Spatial summation
C. Inhibitory synapses
D. Refractory period
A

A. Temporal summation

161
Q
  1. Although one pinch did not cause a dog to flex its leg, several simultaneous pinches at nearby locations did. Sherrington
    cited this observation as evidence for what?
    A. Temporal summation
    B. Spatial summation
    C. Inhibitory synapses
    D. Refractory period
A

B. Spatial summation

162
Q
  1. According to Sherrington, why do the extensor muscles of a leg relax when the flexor muscles contract?
    A. Voluntary control by the cerebral cortex
    B. Inhibitory connections in the spinal cord
    C. Direct connections between the muscles themselves
    D. Control by different chemical neurotransmitters
A

B. Inhibitory connections in the spinal cord

163
Q
  1. In the membrane of a neuron, what happens during an IPSP?
    A. All the ion gates in the membrane close.
    B. The sodium gates open.
    C. The potassium or chloride gates open.
    D. All the ion gates in the membrane open
A

C. The potassium or chloride gates open.

164
Q
  1. In what way were Sherrington’s conclusions important for psychology as well as neuroscience?
    A. He demonstrated the importance of unconscious
    motivations.
    B. He demonstrated the importance of inhibition.
    C. He demonstrated the phenomenon of classical
    conditioning.
    D. He demonstrated the evolution of intelligence.
A

B. He demonstrated the importance of inhibition.

165
Q

What was Loewi’s evidence that neurotransmission depends on the release of chemicals?

A

When Loewi stimulated a nerve that increased or
decreased a frog’s heart rate, he could withdraw fluid
from the area around the heart, transfer it to another
frog’s heart, and thereby increase or decrease its
rate also.

166
Q

Describe the sequence of chemical events at a synapse.

A
  1. Neuron synthesises checmical that serve as neurotransmitters. Smaller neurotransmitters are synthesised in the axon terminals, neuropeptides in the cell body.
  2. Action potentials travel down the axon. At the presynaptic terminal, an action potential enables calcium to enter the cell. Calcium releases neurotransmitters from the terminals and into the synaptic cleft, the space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.
  3. The released molecules diffuse across the narrow cleft, attach to receptors, and alter the activity of the postsynaptic neuron. Mechanisms vary for altering that activity.
  4. The neurotransmitter molecules separate from their receptors.
  5. The neurotransmitter molecules may be taken back into the presynaptic neuron for recycling or they may diffuse away.
  6. Some postsynaptic cells send reverse messages to control the further release of neurotransmitter by presynaptic cells.
167
Q

Blood flow increases to the most active brain areas. How does the blood “know” which areas are most active?

A

In a highly active brain area, many stimulated neurons
release nitric oxide, which dilates the blood vessels in the area and thereby makes it easier for blood to flow to the area.

168
Q

Name the three catecholamine neurotransmitters.

A

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine. Do not

confuse the term catecholamine with acetylcholine.

169
Q

Where does the presynaptic terminal store high concentrations of neurotransmitter molecules?

A

Vesicle, tiny nearly spherical packets. Nitric oxide is an exception to this rule. Neurons release Nitric oxide as soon as they form it instead of storing it.

170
Q

What kinds of neurons contain the enzyme monoamine oxidase (MAO) and why?

A

Neurons that release serotonin, dopamine, or norepinephrine.

MAO breaks down these transmitters into inactive chemicals thereby preventing the transmitters from accumulating to harmful levels.

171
Q

What was an early use for MAO inhibitors?

A

Anti-depressants.
By blocking MAO they increased the brain’s supply of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. However, MAO also has side effects and exactly how they help relieve depression is still uncertain.

172
Q

What releases a neurotransmitter at the end of an axon?

A

NOT an action potential. Rather, depolarisation opens voltage-dependent calcium gates in the presynaptic terminal, causing exocytosis; bursts of release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron.
Note: An action potential often fails to release any transmitter, and even when it does, the amount varies.

173
Q

How many neurotransmitters are released by a neuron at a time?

A

It varies. Can be a combination of two or more, or one at first followed by another. There are other configurations as well.

174
Q

When the action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal, which ion must enter the presynaptic terminal to evoke release of the neurotransmitter?

A

Calcium

175
Q

What kinds of effects can a neurotransmitter have on its receptor on the postsynaptic cell?

A

Ionotropic - open a channel

Metabotropic - slower but longer effect (need more detail)

176
Q

What is the most common neurotransmitter used in excitatory ionotropic synapses?

A

Glutamate

177
Q

What is the most common neurotransmitter used in inhibitory ionotropic synapses?

A

GABA - opens chloride gates

Glycerine is also common, found mostly in the spinal cord.

178
Q

What kinds of behaviour are ionotropic synapses related to?

A

Vision and hearing - processes that require rapid, up-to-date information

179
Q

What kinds of behaviour are metabotropic synapses related to?

A

Taste, smell and pain - enduring effects where exact timing isn’t important.

Also arousal, attention, pleasure, and emotion.

180
Q

What are neuropeptides?

What are they related to?

A

Small proteins released by neurons that act on G protein-coupled receptors and are responsible for slow-onset, long-lasting modulation of synaptic transmission.

Related to hungry, thirst, and other long-term changes in behaviour and experience.

181
Q

How do ionotropic and metabotropic synapses differ in speed and duration of effects?

A

Ionotropic synapses act more quickly and more briefly

182
Q

What are second messengers, and which type of synapse relies on them?

A

Chemicals that alter metabolism or gene expression within a postsynaptic neuron. At metabotropic synapses, the neurotransmitter attaches to a receptor and thereby releases a second messenger.

183
Q

How do neuropeptides compare to other transmitters?

A

Released only after prolonged stimulation, but when they are released, they are released in large amounts by all parts of the neuron, not just the axon terminal. Neuropeptides diffuse widely, producing long-lasting effects on many neurons.

184
Q

What neurotransmitters do the following drugs chemically resemble?

LSD
Nicotine
Opiates (morphine, heroine, methadone)

A

LSD - serotonin
Nicotine - acetylcholine, dopamine
Opiates - endorphins

185
Q

What happens to acetylcholine molecules after they stimulate a postsynaptic receptor?

A

The enzyme acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine molecules into two smaller molecules, acetate and choline, which are then reabsorbed by the presynaptic terminal.

186
Q

What happens to serotonin and catecholamine molecules after they stimulate a postsynaptic receptor?

A

Most serotonin and catecholamine molecules
are reabsorbed by the presynaptic terminal. Some of their molecules are broken down into inactive chemicals, which then diffuse away.

187
Q

How do amphetamine and cocaine influence synapses?

A

They block reuptake of released dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

188
Q

Why is methylphenidate generally less disruptive to behavior than cocaine is despite the drugs’ similar mechanisms?

A

The effects of a methylphenidate pill develop and decline in the brain much more slowly than do those of cocaine.

189
Q

How do cannabinoids affect neurons?

A

Cannabinoids released by the postsynaptic neuron
attach to receptors on presynaptic neurons, where
they inhibit further release of both glutamate
and GABA.

190
Q

What are electrical synapses occur?

A

Synapses where electrical transmission of an impulse occurs instead of chemical. Common where exact synchrony between two cells is important. E.g. Rhythmic breathing.

The membrane of two neurons come into direct contact - a gap junction. Large pores in the membranes line up precisely. Sodium and other ions pass through readily. These pores remain open constantly.

191
Q

What’s the difference between neurotransmitters, hormones, and neuropeptides?

A

Neurotransmitters - send a signal to a specific receiver
Hormones - broadcast a signal conveyed by blood to influence other cells
Neuropeptides - diffuse within part of the brain, but not other parts of the body

192
Q

What are hormones useful for?

A

Coordinating long-lasting changes in multiple parts of the body.
E.g. Bird preparing for migration secrete hormones that change their eating and digestion to store extra energy for a long journey.

193
Q

What are two types of hormones?

A

Protein - longer chains

Peptides - shorter chains

194
Q

Which part of the pituitary - anterior or posterior - is neural tissue, similar to the hypothalamus?

Which part is glandular tissues and produces hormones that control the secretions by other endocrine organs?

A

Posterior

Anterior

195
Q

In what way is a neuropeptide intermediate between neurotransmitters and hormones?

A

Ordinary neurotransmitters are released in small amounts close to their receptors.
Neuropeptides are released into a brain area in larger amounts or not at all. When released, they diffuse more widely.
Hormones are released into the blood for diffuse delivery throughout the body.

196
Q
  1. Loewi’s evidence for chemical transmission at a synapse used observations of what?
    A. Electrical potentials across a membrane
    B. Heart rate in frogs
    C. Chemical analysis of
    D. Reflexes in dogs
A

B. Heart rate in frogs

197
Q
2. Which of the following is NOT one of the brain’s neurotransmitters?
A. Glutamate
B. GABA
C. Glucose
D. Serotonin
A

C. Glucose

198
Q
3. Which of these is NOT a catecholamine?
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Acetylcholine
A

D. Acetylcholine

199
Q
  1. What does MAO (monoamine oxidase) do in the brain?
    A. It stimulates certain types of serotonin receptors.
    B. It sends a message to the presynaptic neuron to
    decrease its firing rate.
    C. It converts catecholamine transmitters into inactive
    chemicals.
    D. It blocks the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters.
A

C. It converts catecholamine transmitters into inactive

chemicals.

200
Q
  1. Suppose you want to cause the presynaptic terminal of an axon to release its transmitter. How could you do so without an action potential?
    A. Decrease the temperature at the synapse.
    B. Use an electrode to produce IPSPs in the postsynaptic neuron.
    C. Inject water into the presynaptic terminal.
    D. Inject calcium into the presynaptic terminal.
A

D. Inject calcium into the presynaptic terminal.

201
Q
  1. Which type of synapse is better suited for vision and hearing, and why?
    A. Metabotropic synapses because they produce quick,
    brief effects
    B. Metabotropic synapses because they produce longerlasting effects
    C. Ionotropic synapses because they produce quick, brief effects
    D. Ionotropic synapses because they produce longerlasting effects
A

C. Ionotropic synapses because they produce quick, brief effects

202
Q
7. What is the most abundant excitatory ionotropic neurotransmitter?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Glutamate
D. GABA
A

C. Glutamate

203
Q
  1. What is a second messenger?
    A. A chemical released by the presynaptic neuron a few
    milliseconds after release of the first neurotransmitter
    B. A chemical released inside a cell after stimulation at a metabotropic synapse
    C. A chemical that travels from the postsynaptic
    neuron back to the presynaptic neuron
    D. A neuropeptide that affects all neurons in a
    given area
A

B. A chemical released inside a cell after stimulation at a metabotropic synapse

204
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of neuropeptides?
    A. They produce effects that last for minutes.
    B. They are chemically similar to the genes on a
    chromosome.
    C. They are released close to their receptors.
    D. They are released from the tip of an axon.
A

A. They produce effects that last for minutes.

205
Q
  1. How does LSD exert its effects on the nervous system?
    A. It attaches to serotonin receptors.
    B. It blocks reuptake of serotonin.
    C. Neurons convert it to dopamine.
    D. It tells the presynaptic neuron to stop releasing its
    transmitter.
A

A. It attaches to serotonin receptors.

206
Q
11. The serotonin transporter is responsible for which of these processes?
A. Exocytosis
B. Reuptake
C. Inhibition
D. Synthesis
A

B. Reuptake

207
Q
12. Except for the magnitude and speed of effects, methylphenidate (Ritalin) affects synapses the same way as which other
drug?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Nicotine
D. Marijuana
A

B. Cocaine

208
Q
  1. In what way do cannabinoids differ from other drugs that affect the nervous system?
    A. Cannabinoids produce their effects in only one
    brain area.
    B. Cannabinoids act without attaching to any receptor.
    C. Cannabinoids act on the presynaptic neuron.
    D. Cannabinoids travel through the blood from one brain area to another.
A

C. Cannabinoids act on the presynaptic neuron.

209
Q
14. Electrical synapses are important when the nervous system needs to accomplish which of the following?
A. Inhibition of competing behaviors
B. Synchrony between neurons
C. Complex reasoning
D. Long-lasting activation
A

B. Synchrony between neurons

210
Q
15. Which of these is composed of neural tissue, as opposed to glandular tissue?
A. The anterior pituitary
B. The posterior pituitary
C. The pancreas
D. The adrenal gland
A

B. The posterior pituitary

211
Q
  1. In what way is a neuropeptide intermediate between neurotransmitters and hormones?
    A. A neuropeptide diffuses more widely than other
    neurotransmitters but less than a hormone.
    B. A neuropeptide is larger than other neurotransmitters
    but smaller than a hormone.
    C. A neurotransmitter produces excitatory effects, a
    neuropeptide produces neutral effects, and a hormone
    produces negative effects.
    D. A neurotransmitter produces slow effects, a
    neuropeptide produces faster effects, and a hormone
    produces still faster effects.
A

A. A neuropeptide diffuses more widely than other

neurotransmitters but less than a hormone.

212
Q

What is a drug that mimics or increases the effects of a neurotransmitter called?

A

An agonist

213
Q

What is a drug that blocks a neurotransmitter called?

A

An antagonist

214
Q

What term describes how strongly or weakly a drug binds to a receptor?

A

Affinity

215
Q

What term describe a drug’s tendency to activate a receptor?

A

Efficacy

216
Q

Why do people respond differently to drugs?

A

People vary in their abundance of different receptors, making drugs have stronger or weaker effects on them.

217
Q

What factors influence the probability of substance abuse?

A

Genetic and environmental factors.

E.g. Parents alcohol use correlates with use of biological and to a lesser extent adopted children.

218
Q

How does predisposition to alcohol abuse relate to how the liver metabolizes alcohol?

A

The liver metabolises alcohol to acetaldehyde, which is toxic, and then to acetic acid. People whose enzymes are slow to metabolise acetaldehyde to acetic acid are less likely than others to abuse alcohol, because rapid or excessive drinking them ill.

219
Q

How do sons of alcoholics differ behaviourally, on average, from sons of nonalcoholics?

A

The show less intoxication, including less body sway, after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol.

220
Q

What neurotransmitter is released for most drugs that are abused?

A

Dopamine, although it may not be as central to addiction as once believed.

221
Q

What do drug use, sex, gambling, and video game playing have in common?

A

They increase the release of dopamine in the nucleus

accumbens.

222
Q

What evidence indicates that researchers have been overestimating the role of dopamine in addiction?

A

Many drugs other than the stimulants be highly addictive despite only small effects on dopamine synapses. Also, drugs that modify dopamine release have little effect on the use of opiates.

223
Q

During a period of abstinence from cocaine, what happens in the nucleus accumbens?

A

Certain glutamate synapses become more responsive, causing increased excitation in response to cues associated with the substance. The result is craving, which increases for some time during abstinence.

224
Q

Someone who is quitting an addictive substance for the first time is strongly counseled not to try it again. Why?

A

Taking an addictive drug during the withdrawal period is likely to lead to a habit of using the drug to relieve other kinds of distress.

225
Q

How is methadone different to morphine or heroin?

A

Can be taken orally.
Enters the blood and then brain gradually, so its effects rise slowly, avoiding the “rush” experience that disrupts behaviour.
Withdrawaly symptoms are gradual because it is metabolised and leaves the brain slowly.

226
Q

How does Antabuse work?

A

Blocks the enzyme that converts acetaldehyde to acetic acid. It therefore makes people sick if they drink alcohol. Its effectiveness depends on the fact that someone knows or believes that drinking alcohol will cause illness.

227
Q

Methadone users who try taking heroin experience little effect from it. Why?

A

Because methadone is already occupying the endorphin receptors, heroin cannot add much stimulation to them.

228
Q
  1. Which of the following types of drug would be a strong agonist?
    A. One with high affinity and high efficacy
    B. One with high affinity and low efficacy
    C. One with low affinity and high efficacy
    D. One with low affinity and low efficacy
A

A. One with high affinity and high efficacy

229
Q
  1. The gene with the best-documented effect on predisposition to alcohol abuse exerts its effect in what way?
    A. It alters the ratio of activity between the nucleus
    accumbens and the prefrontal cortex.
    B. It alters how the liver metabolizes alcohol.
    C. It alters the sensitivity of certain types of taste buds.
    D. It alters the rate of secretion of stomach acid.
A

B. It alters how the liver metabolizes alcohol.

230
Q
  1. What evidence demonstrates predisposition toward drug or alcohol abuse?
    A. Siblings of someone with drug addiction also show
    abnormalities of brain and behavior.
    B. People with drug addiction remember having a positive experience in their first encounter with the drug.
    C. Most young people can accurately predict whether
    they will eventually develop a drug addiction.
    D. An fMRI study on newborns accurately predicted
    which ones would later develop drug addiction.
A

A. Siblings of someone with drug addiction also show

abnormalities of brain and behavior.

231
Q
4. Genetic predisposition is most strongly evident for which type of alcohol abuser?
A. People with early-onset alcohol abuse
B. People with late-onset alcohol abuse
C. Women
D. Immigrants to a country
A

A. People with early-onset alcohol abuse

232
Q
  1. Of the following, which type of person is more likely than average to abuse alcohol?
    A. Someone who shows little effect after moderate
    drinking
    B. Someone who becomes intoxicated quickly after
    moderate drinking
    C. Someone who was reared with strict rules in
    childhood
    D. Someone with an introverted personality
A

A. Someone who shows little effect after moderate

drinking

233
Q
  1. What is the relationship between drug abuse and dopamine?
    A. Probability of abusing a drug correlates strongly with
    how much dopamine it releases.
    B. People seldom abuse the drugs that release
    dopamine.
    C. Blocking dopamine synapses prevents any pleasure
    from a drug.
    D. Most abused drugs release dopamine, but not in proportion to addictive potential.
A

D. Most abused drugs release dopamine, but not in proportion to addictive potential.

234
Q
  1. What is the effect on the nucleus accumbens after repeated cocaine use?
    A. The nucleus accumbens becomes less responsive to rewarding experiences.
    B. The nucleus accumbens becomes more responsive
    to rewarding experiences.
    C. The nucleus accumbens responds to events that were not previously rewarding.
    D. The nucleus accumbens begins growing new neurons.
A

A. The nucleus accumbens becomes less responsive to

rewarding experiences.

235
Q
  1. What accounts for increased cravings during cocaine abstinence?
    A. Increased activity of certain enzymes in the liver.
    B. Increased responsiveness of dopamine synapses to
    all types of reward.
    C. Increased sensitivity of glutamate synapses to cues for cocaine.
    D. Rapid fluctuations of heart beat.
A

C. Increased sensitivity of glutamate synapses to cues for cocaine.

236
Q
  1. What evidence indicates that tolerance is to a large extent learned?
    A. Tolerance is greater in the location where one previously took the drug than elsewhere.
    B. Tolerance is greater in highly educated people than
    in poorly educated people.
    C. Tolerance is easily forgotten with the passage of time.
    D. Telling people about the effects of a drug can produce tolerance.
A

A. Tolerance is greater in the location where one previously took the drug than elsewhere.

237
Q
  1. In tests of Antabuse effectiveness, why are placebos so effective?
    A. Antabuse has no physiological effects.
    B. The chemicals used as placebos interact with liver
    enzymes.
    C. Antabuse is effective mainly by the threat of illness
    after drinking.
    D. Placebos tend to relieve pain.
A

C. Antabuse is effective mainly by the threat of illness

after drinking.

238
Q
  1. What is the advantage of taking methadone instead of morphine or heroin?
    A. Methadone is not addictive.
    B. Someone can gradually taper off methadone and
    become drug-free.
    C. Methadone is readily available without a prescription.
    D. Methadone satisfies the craving without seriously
    disrupting behavior.
A

D. Methadone satisfies the craving without seriously

disrupting behavior.

239
Q

What areas of the body do both sides of the brain control?

A

Trunk muscles

Facial muscles

240
Q

What is the division of labour between two hemispheres called?

A

Lateralisation

241
Q

What part of the brain allows the hemispheres to communicate with each other?

A

Corpus callosum

242
Q

Which side of the brain do most right handers use for speech?

Which side do most left handers use?

What about strongly left-handed people?

A

Left side

Left side

Possibly right side

243
Q

How does lateralisation in sight present in humans?

A

Each hemisphere is connected to half of each eye.
I.e.
Light from RIGHT half of the visual field strikes LEFT half of each retina, which connects to LEFT hemisphere, which therefore sees the RIGHT visual field.

A small vertical strip down the centre of each retina connect to both hemispheres.

Page 426

244
Q

How is the auditory system affected by lateralisation?

A

Each ear sends info to both sides of the brain, because any brain area that contributes to localising sounds must compare input from both ears.
However, each hemisphere does pay more attention to the ear on the opposite side.

Page 426

245
Q
  1. The left hemisphere of the brain is connected to the right eye in guinea pigs. In humans, the left hemisphere is connected to the left half of each retina. Explain the reason for this species difference.
A
  1. In guinea pigs, the right eye is far to the side of the head and sees only the right visual field. In humans, the eyes point straight ahead and half of each eye sees the right visual field.
246
Q
  1. In humans, the right half of each retina receives visual information from which side of the world and sends its output to which hemisphere?
A
  1. The right half of each retina receives
    input from the left half of the world and sends output to the right hemisphere, enabling the right hemisphere to see the left half of the world.
247
Q

How does severed corpus callosum affect people such as epilepsy patients?

A
  • Reduced seizures - seizure can’t bounce between hemisphers and amplify
  • Difficulty using both hands on tasks they haven’t done before
  • Intellect and motivation remains intact
  • Can use two hands independently, such as drawing two different objects at the same time.
248
Q
  1. Can a split-brain person name an object after feeling it with the right hand? With the left hand? Explain.
A
  1. A split-brain person can describe something after feeling it with the right hand but not with the left. The right hand sends its information to the left hemisphere, which is dominant for language in most people. The left hand sends its information to the right hemisphere, which cannot speak.
249
Q

Lateralisation

A

Page 429

250
Q

Which hemisphere is better at comprehending spatial relationships?

Is this the same for people with right hand dominance for speech?

A

Right

No, it’s flipped.

251
Q

Which hemisphere is more responsive to emotional stimuli, such as perceiving emotions in people’s gestures and tone of voice?

A

Right.

People with damage to right usually fail to understand sarcasm and humour

252
Q

What happens when the right hemisphere is inactive?

A

People do not experience strong emotions and may forget ever having them.

Page 429

253
Q
  1. Which hemisphere is dominant for the following in most people:
    Speech?
    Emotional inflection of speech?
    Interpreting other people’s emotional expressions?
    Spatial relationships?
A
  1. The left hemisphere is dominant for speech.

The right hemisphere is dominant for the other items listed.

254
Q

Chimps bonobos language

A

Page 430

255
Q

How are bonobos similar to 2 year old humans in language use?

A
  • They understand more than they produce?
  • They follow unfamiliar directions
  • They use symbols to name and describe objects even when not using them
  • The use symbols to describe past events
  • The make original, creative requests
256
Q
  1. What are three likely explanations for why bonobos made more language progress than common chimpanzees?
A
  1. Bonobos may be more predisposed to language than common chimpanzees.
    The bonobos started training at an earlier age.
    They learned by imitation instead of formal training techniques.
257
Q

How do dog brain hemispheres respond to speech?

A

Left - responds to meaninful words
Right - responds to intonation (emotion)

Similar to humans!

258
Q

What do we learn from studying nonhuman language abilities?

A
  • Insight into how to teach those who do not learn language earily, such as people with brain damage or children with autism.
  • Theory behind how humans learn - evolved from precursors present in other species
  • Rethink how to define language when other species demonstrate understanding.
259
Q

What is Williams Syndrome?

A

Affected people are poor at tasks related to:

  • Numbers
  • Visuomotor skills (e.g. copying a drawing)
  • Spatial perception (e.g. finding their way home)
  • Planning
  • Attention
  • Difficulty inhibiting inappropriate responses
  • However can speak grammatically and fluently, with some differences to normal speech

They indicate that language is not simply a by-product of overall intelligence!

Page 433

260
Q

Why did humans develop language with other species did not?

A

It is theorised that:

  1. Language relates to the long period of dependency in childhood
  2. Social interactions favoured the evolution of language
261
Q

When is the best time to learn a language?

A

As early as possible

People who start learning after 12 almost never reach native fluency!

262
Q

What brain activity do people who grow up bilateral show?

What brain activity do people who learn a second language after the age of 6 show?

A
  • Bilateral activity during speech for both languages
  • Stronger than average connections between the two hemispheres

They activate just the left hemisphere for both languages.

263
Q

What is the strongest evidence in favour of a sensitive period for language learning?

A

Deaf children who did not learn either spoken language or sign language while young do not become proficient at either type of language later on.

264
Q

What areas of the brain are related to Broca’s aphasia?

A

Cortex
Thalamus
Basal ganglia

Page 435

265
Q

What kinds of words are Broca’s patients least likely to use?

A

“Closed-class” words - words that are meaningful only in the context of a sentence, such as prepositions, conjunctions, and helping verbs.

266
Q
  1. What kind of words do Broca’s patients have the most trouble understanding?
A
  1. They have the most trouble understanding the same kind of words they have trouble producing—the closed-class words.
267
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia?

A
  • Poor language comprehension
  • Impaired ability to remember the names of objects
  • Articulate speech, but…
  • Difficulty finding the right word
268
Q
  1. Describe the speech production of people with Wernicke’s aphasia.
A
  1. People with Wernicke’s aphasia speak fluently and grammatically but omit most nouns and verbs and therefore make little sense.
269
Q
  1. Describe the speech comprehension of people with Wernicke’s aphasia.
A
  1. People with Wernicke’s aphasia have trouble understanding speech.
270
Q

Why is dyslexia especially common in English?

A

Has many words with odd spellings

E.g. Phlegm, bivouac, khaki, yacht, choir, physique, gnat

271
Q

What are the two types of dyslexia and what is the difference between them?

A

Dysphonetic
Trouble sounding out words, so they try to memorize each word as a whole.
When they don’t recognise a word they guess based on context.

Dyseidetic
Sound out words well, but fail to recognise the word as a whole.
Read slowly.
Have trouble with irregularly spelled words.

272
Q

What other problems do people with dyslexia have?

A

Hearing
Poor auditory memory
Low accuracy at noting whether two sequences of tones were the same or different
E.g. Might struggle to distinguish between beep-click-buzz and buzz-click-beep
Might result in difficult with spoonerisms! (Dear old queen -> queer old dean)

Also have issues with attention

Page 437

273
Q
  1. What evidence suggests that many of the brain abnormalities associated with dyslexia are a cause of the disorder rather than a result?
A
  1. Certain abnormalities have been reported at an early age, before the start of language training.
274
Q
  1. In humans, what happens to visual information from the left visual field?
    A. It reaches the right half of each retina, which sends messages to the left hemisphere.
    B. It reaches the right half of each retina, which sends messages to the right hemisphere.
    C. It reaches the left half of each retina, which sends messages to the left hemisphere.
    D. It reaches the left half of each retina, which sends messages to the right hemisphere.
A

B. It reaches the right half of each retina, which sends messages to the right hemisphere.

275
Q
  1. At the human optic chiasm, which axons cross to the opposite hemisphere?
    A. Those from the nasal (inside) half of each retina
    B. Those from the temporal (outside) half of each retina
    C. Those from the center of each retina
    D. All the axons from each retina
A

B. Those from the temporal (outside) half of each retina

276
Q
  1. Under what condition can a split-brain person describe something he or she sees?
    A. After seeing it in the right visual field
    B. After seeing it in the left visual field
    C. After seeing it with the right eye
    D. After seeing it with the left eye
A

A. After seeing it in the right visual field

277
Q
  1. When the right hemisphere reacts to something it sees, causing a behavior that the left hemisphere can feel, how does the
    left hemisphere react?
    A. It expresses surprise.
    B. It pretends the action did not occur.
    C. It tries to stop the action or do the opposite.
    D. It invents a logical-sounding explanation.
A

D. It invents a logical-sounding explanation.

278
Q
5. Which of these does the right hemisphere control better than the left?
A. Reactions to emotional stimuli
B. Control of the right arm and hand
C. Mathematical calculations
D. Taste and smell
A

A. Reactions to emotional stimuli

279
Q
  1. What is a likely explanation for bonobos’ success at understanding speech?
    A. Bonobos’ brains have larger neurons than most other primates.
    B. The experimenters combined both classical and operant conditioning.
    C. The bonobos spent much time with human children.
    D. The bonobos started young and learned by imitation.
A

D. The bonobos started young and learned by imitation.

280
Q
  1. If human language did not evolve from other primates’ vocalizations, what else is a likely hypothesis?
    A. Language evolved from nothing at all.
    B. Language evolved from dancing.
    C. Language evolved from gestures including mouth gestures.
    D. Language evolved from the ability to perceive objects in three dimensions.
A

C. Language evolved from gestures including mouth gestures.

281
Q
  1. What is unusual about many people with Williams syndrome?
    A. Good language ability despite intellectual deficiencies
    B. Normal intelligence but poor language comprehension
    C. Good reading ability despite poor vision
    D. High intelligence during childhood but low during adulthood
A

A. Good language ability despite intellectual deficiencies

282
Q
9. The FOXP gene strongly affects what else, in addition to brain development?
A. The stomach and intestines
B. The pituitary and adrenal glands
C. The jaw and throat
D. Blood pressure and heart rate
A

C. The jaw and throat

283
Q
  1. If someone is bilingual from the start, how does the brain represent the two languages?
    A. One in the left hemisphere and the other in the right hemisphere
    B. Both in the left hemisphere
    C. Both in the right hemisphere
    D. Both in both hemispheres
A

D. Both in both hemispheres

284
Q
11. People with Broca’s aphasia are most impaired on producing and understanding which type of words?
A. Common nouns
B. Proper nouns
C. Prepositions and conjunctions
D. Adjectives and adverbs
A

C. Prepositions and conjunctions

285
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of Wernicke’s aphasia?
    A. Difficulty forming new long-term memories, especially episodic memories
    B. Inability to describe anything seen in the left visual field or felt with the left hand
    C. Poor pronunciation and difficulty using and understanding grammar
    D. Difficulty remembering names of objects
A

D. Difficulty remembering names of objects