Week2 Flashcards

1
Q

PEGylation

A

the addition of polyethylene glycol (PEG) moieties significantly increases half-life and “masks” the drug from the host’s immune system→ decreased immunogenicity and antigenicity
o 12 drugs have been approved
o Approved PEG’d drugs: L-asparaginase, PEG-liposome containing doxorubicin, Interferon α, Methoxy polyethylene, glycol epoetin, Pegfilgrastim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ERYTHROPOIETIN

A

MOA:Most important regulator of the proliferation of committed RBC progenitors (interacts with EPO R on red cell progenitors, EPO R is a member of the JAK/STAT superfamily
produced in the kidney, inverse relationship between Hb level and serum EPO level)
- Exception = chronic renal failure when EPO levels are low – kidneys cannot produce the GF

Pharmacokinetics:Produced in response to severe anemia
Relatively short half-life (IV 3-4 x per week)

Therapeutic Uses:- Anemia (secondary to chronic kidney DZ →
nearly all patients will require Fe supplement; some patients may require folate supplement) (due to primary bone marrow disorders and secondary anemias)
- Reduce need for transfusion in high-risk surgical patients
after phlebotomies for autologous transfusion
Fe overload (hemochromatosis)
- M-PEG-epoetin should not be used in patients with anemia due to cancer chemotherapy (clinical trial found increase in deaths)
- Banned by IOC (increased [RBC] may increase O2 delivery to muscles)

Side Effects:Life threatening: thrombosis
Serious
Common: HTN
Rare: faster tumor growth (head and neck ca), allergic rxn (long term SC admin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

FILGRASTIM

G-CSF

A

MOA: - Regulates production of neutrophils within bone marrow & affects neutrophil progenitor prolif, different, and functional activation

  • Also mobilizes hematopoietic SC, increasing their conc. in peripheral blood
  • Led to use of peripheral blood SCs rather than bone marrow SCs for transplantation

Pharmacokinetics:

Therapeutic Uses:- Cancer chemo-induced neutropenia (esp. FILGRASTIM) – esp. during autologous SC transplantation following high-dose chemo, objective is to prevent systemic infection (neutrophils are 1st line of defense against infection)
- Congenital neutropenia, cyclic neutropenia, myelodysplasia, and aplastic anemia

Side Effects:Serious: allergic reations, splenic rupture (rare)

Innoculous: mild/moderate bone pain (F/P better tolerated than S) (common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

INTERLEUKIN 11

A

MOA: + thrombopoietin → increase platelet production

Pharmacokinetics:

Therapeutic Uses: Thrombocytopenia – particularly following chemo, also idiopathic thrombocytopenia

Side Effects: Serious: A fib (common), hypokalemia (rare)
Innocuous: fatigue, HA, dizziness, mild/mod edema, dyspnea (due to fluid in lungs), anemia (due to hemodilution)
NO FEVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SAGRAMOSTIM

A

MOA: Stimulates myelopoiesis generally, and neutrophils and monocytes specifically

Pharmacokinetics: - Conjugation product of filgrastim with polyethylene glycol, much longer half-life, injected once per chemotherapy cycle (instead of daily for several days)

Therapeutic Uses: - Cancer chemo-induced neutropenia (esp. FILGRASTIM) – esp. during autologous SC transplantation following high-dose chemo, objective is to prevent systemic infection (neutrophils are 1st line of defense against infection)
- Congenital neutropenia, cyclic neutropenia, myelodysplasia, and aplastic anemia

Side Effects: - Cancer chemo-induced neutropenia (esp. FILGRASTIM) – esp. during autologous SC transplantation following high-dose chemo, objective is to prevent systemic infection (neutrophils are 1st line of defense against infection)
- Congenital neutropenia, cyclic neutropenia, myelodysplasia, and aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

THROMBOPOIETIN

A

MOA:
Pharmacokinetics:
Therapeutic Uses:
Side Effects:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

• Administration: IV

A

long half-life (detectable in serum 3-6 mo after completion of tx)
• Side effects:
o Infusion reactions: immediate response during infusion
• Not unique to antibodies; seen particularly with cancer chemotherapy drugs
• Sx:
• CV: chest pain, hypo-/HTN, tachy/bradycardia, arrhythmia, edema, ischemia/infarction, cardiac arrest
• Resp: cough, dyspnea, nasal congestion, rhinitis, sneezing, wheezing, bronchospasm, edema, cyanosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome
• CNS: HA, dizziness, confusion, loss of consciousness, anxiety, sense of impending doom
• Skin: rash, pruritis, urticaria, flushing, local or diffuse erythema, conjunctival erythema
• Endocrine: rigors, diaphoresis, fever, generalized feeling of warmth
• GI: n/v, metallic taste, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, bloating
• Urinary: incontinence, renal impairment
• Genital: uterine cramping
• Musculoskeletal: arthralgias, myalgias, fatigue
• 2 types (sx are similar for both types, and are typically managed by slowing the infusion and by administration of antihistamines and other procedures common to management of type I hypersensitivity reactions):
• Typical IgE mediated type I hypersensitivity reaction occurs within minutes (10-12 hours maximum)
o Increased severity and quicker response with repeated exposure
• Cytokine release due to Fc region recruitment of immune effector cells (esp. granulocytes that release cytokines, obviously!) – occurs during the first few hours after infusion
o Worse on 1st infusion, often decreases in severity with subsequent exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

o Cytokine release syndrome

A
  • Observed particularly with anti-T cell antibodies that can directly activate the T cell receptor before triggering destruction of lymphocytes)
  • Can result in a “cytokine storm”, a kind of positive feedback loop where cytokine release recruits more effector cells that release more cytokines, etc.
  • Shaking chills, fever, arthralgia, diarrhea, vomiting, hypotension and respiratory distress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lim =

A

immune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Les =

Cir =

A
Les = infectious lesions
Cir = cardiovascular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

• Which of the following drugs has the shortest half-life?

A

o Tumor necrosis factor – half-life in minutes, inject it as close to the tumor as you can

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

o You are planning to treat a patient who has IBD with infliximab. What test should you perform first?

A

• Mantoux test – need to worry about reactivation of virus with immune suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

o Myeloid Growth Factors

A

filgrastim (G-CSF), pegfilgrastim, sargramostim (GM-CSF)
• Filgramostim: G-M progenitor → neutrophil
• AE: splenic rupture
• Sargramostim: two sites of action – differentiation of common myeloid progenitor and G-M progenitor
• AE: capillary leak syndrome
• AE for both: bone pain (worse with sargramostim because it acts earlier in differentiation process)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

o Megakaryocyte Growth Factors

A

interleukin 11, romiplostim
• IL-11: common myeloid progenitor → megakaryocyte
• AE: A fib
o Allergic reaction and general malaise are AE for all cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MHC 1

A

interleukin 11, romiplostim
• IL-11: common myeloid progenitor → megakaryocyte
• AE: A fib
o Allergic reaction and general malaise are AE for all cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

to make a lymphoid progenitor cell

A

• Hematopoietic stem cell (bone marrow) + IL-3, IL-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CTL activation

A

MHC to CD 4/8
ICAM to LFA
B7 to CD28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

= general activators of T cells

A

o IL-2 & IL-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

drive T helper cells → Th1

A

IL-12 & IFN-γ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

drives T helper cells → Th2

21
Q

down-regulates Th1 & TGF-β, down-regulates both Th1 & Th2 subtypes

22
Q

• FAS

A

T cells expressing FAS ligand bind to FAS protein on a target → induce caspase activation & apoptosis

23
Q

• B cell surface markers

A

every cell has BCR (antibody), signaling molecules (CD79a, CD79b)
o CD40 = molecule that interacts with Tfh to receive signal to mature into plasma cell

24
Q

o X-linked agammaglobulinemia =
o CD40 ligand deficiency =
o Activation-Induced Cytidine Deaminase Deficiency =
o Common Variable Immunodeficiency =

A
o	X-linked agammaglobulinemia = an absence of B lymphocytes
o	CD40 ligand deficiency = failure of immunoglobulin class switching
o	Activation-Induced Cytidine Deaminase Deficiency = failure of immunoglobulin class switching
o	Common Variable Immunodeficiency = failure to produce antibodies against particular antigens
25
o X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency = o DiGeorge syndrome = o Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis = o IPEX =
o X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency = failure to produce mature T lymphocytes o DiGeorge syndrome = failure of the thymus to develop correctly o Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis = failure of CD8+ T cells and NK cells to produce and/or release lytic granules o IPEX = failure of peripheral tolerance due to defective regulatory T cells
26
Omenn Syndrome =
Omenn Syndrome = VDJ recombination failure, cannot produce BCRs or TCRs
27
conjoined ABs?
A is a dimer, M is a pentamer
28
• Valence
refers to the number of antigenic determinants (epitopes) an antibody molecule can theoretically bind o IgG: 2 – each Fab arm can bind an epitope independently o Secreted IgA: 4 – 2 antibody molecules linked together & each can bind 2 things o Secreted IgM: In theory 10, but puckering event causes it to max out at 5 (Fab portions get squished together) o Surface IgM – 2 – monomer with 2 Fab portions o Fab – 1 o F(ab’)2 – 2 o VL or VH: 0 – they do not function independently, need the combo of the two to function
29
complement activation
C1q binds to to Fcs
30
RAG
enzyme responsible for AB class switching
31
TdT
enzyme that randomly adds nucleases to create AB diversity
32
• Activation-Induced (Cytidine) Deaminase (AID)
) converts random cytosines in CDR gene regions to uracil o So a C:G pair becomes a uracil: guanine mismatch o The uracil bases are excised by the repair enzyme uracil-DNA glycosylase o Error-prone DNA polymerases then fill in the gap, creating mostly single-base substitution mutations o At the end of cell division, one daughter may be making a different antibody – can be better or worse
33
o EBV gains entry to B cells and establishes infection by:
* Viral envelope proteins gp350/220 bind C3d complement R (aka CD21) → initiates endocytosis * Genome circularizes, and immediate early genes, early genes, and late genes are expressed in sequence * The circular EBV genome has multiple promoters → different patterns of gene expression occur during lytic and latent infection * Viral particle then bud through cellular membranes to make infectious particles
34
LMP-1
o EBV oncogene LMP-1 functions as a constitutively active CD40 • CD40 is normally responsible for CD4+ T-cell dependent activation of B cells • Get the effect of CD40 without the CD40 ligand having to be there
35
LMP-2
o EBV oncogene LMP-2 functions as a constitutively active B cell receptor • The BCR is normally responsible for antigen dependent B cell activation • LMP-2 acts as constitutively active BCR, promotes MAPK activation & transcription of fos/jun regulated genes
36
EBNA3C
o EBV oncogene EBNA3C functions to bind and activate cyclin D1 complexes (oncogene), resulting in: • Hyperphosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb, tumor suppressor)→ • De-repression (activation) of E2F family transcription factors→ • Expression of genes that control DNA replication→ • Cell cycle progression
37
Downey cells
• Appearance of atypical lymphocytes or Downey cells in a blood smear is diagnostic for EBV
38
• X-Linked Lymphoproliferative Disease (aka Duncan Disease)
o Clinical presentation: • Fulminant infectious mononucleosis (FIM) = much more severe, rapid in presentation, increased mortality • Median age 3 yo; average survival after FIM is 1-2 months • Patients who survive FIM develop lymphoproliferative disorders and dysgammaglobulinemias • X-linked recessive inheritance o Molecular basis: mutation that results in a non-functional SAP protein • SAP contains an SH2 domain that binds phosphorylated tyrosines on SLAM (aka CD150) • SAP acts as an adapter protein that recruits kinases to the immunological synapse • SAP depletion → deficiency of IL-4 production by T cells • IL-4 normally signals CD4H2 differentiation and regulates B cell class switching o SAP controls apoptotic cell death of activated T cells • In XLP, SAP is absent, and the immune response has ‘no brakes’ • Impaired AICD (activation induced cell death)
39
• Pernicious Anemia Pearls
o Associated with vitiligo and autoimmune disorders o By definition is slow in onset o More than just anemia – neuro symptoms too (peripheral neuropathy) o When in doubt, send for MMA (methylmelonic acid) – builds up if not enough B12
40
• AIHA Pearls
o Thorough history that focuses on other autoimmune conditions (RA, SLE, hyper/hypothyroid, scleroderma), drugs (especially new ones, beta-lactams), and recent transfusions of any blood product o AIHA is associated with lymphoid malignancies (esp CLL) and may precede the lymphoma diagnosis o Prolonged high dose steroids will lead to Cushing syndrome and comes with increased risk of PJP o Always give folate supplements with hemolytic anemias o These patients present problems with transfusions
41
• Nucleated RBC Pearls
o Should not be overlooked o Present in any “overcrowding” disorder of the bone marrow o Usually present when reticulocyte count is high
42
CD59
on host cells, won’t let C9 bind → inhibits MAC
43
• CR1
on host cells, decay acceleration of C3bBb, C4b2a AND cofactor for cleavage of C3b, C4b o Major ligands C3b, C4b o Monocytes, macrophages, PMN, Eosinophil, RBC, B and T cells o Transport of immune complexes by RBC o Promotes immune adherence (binding of opsonized microbes to primate RBCs) o Promotes phagocytosis in cooperation with Fc receptors o Blocks formation of C3 convertase
44
• CD46
on host cells, cofactor for cleavage of C3b, C4b
45
• DAF (CD55)
decay acceleration factor of C3bBb, C4b2a
46
• C1 Inhibitor Deficiency
o HAE (hereditary angioedema) o Recurrent episodes of localized edema in skin, GI tract, or larynx o C1 inhibitor • Inhibits C1 esterase (cleaves C4 and cleaves C2) • Also inhibits MASP, kallikrein, plasmin, Factor XIa and Factor XIIa → affects kinin and coag factors as well o Uncontrolled complement activation leads to consumption of C4 and C2. • Possibility of immune complex disease as well o Prevalence, 2-10:100,000 o Treatment • Anabolic steroids to increase synthesis of C1 Inhibitor • Purified C1 Inhibitor • Kallikrein inhibitors and B2 receptor inhibitors • Evidence for excess kinin formation responsible for the episodes of edema
47
• Deficiency in DAF (CD55) and CD59
o Increased susceptibility of erythrocytes to MAC-mediated lysis o Complement-mediated intravascular hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) o Defect in a post-translational modification of the peptide anchors that bind the proteins to the cell membrane → affects both CD55 and CD59 • CD55 – decay accelerating factor • CD59 – prevents C9 from working o Recent studies suggest that treatment with an antibody to C5 (eculizumab) reduces hemolysis • AE: increase in Neisseria infections
48
• CR2 (CD21)
o Major ligands C3d, C3dg, iC3b o B cells, activated T cells, epithelial cells o CR2 forms an additional signal with antibody to augment stimulation of the B cell to increase the humoral immune response (CR2/CD19/CD81 – secondary signaling). o CR2 has high affinity for an envelope protein of Epstein Barr virus, allowing the virus to enter the B cell.