Week 9 MSK rheum falls Flashcards

1
Q

Patho of osteoporosis

function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A

resorption of old bone (osteoclasts)

formation of new bone (osteoblasts)

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2
Q

Physical exam findings in osteoporosis:

  • height
  • rib-pelvis distance
  • inability to….
A
  • height loss >4 cm
  • rib-pelvis distance <2 finger-breadths
  • inability to touch occiput to wall when standing with heels to wall
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3
Q

decreased rib-pelvis distance is suggestive of….

A

occult vertebral fracture

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4
Q

what is the risk of prolonged bisphosphonate use?

A

osteonecrosis of jaw

atypical femoral fracture (subtrochanter, diaphysis of femur)

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5
Q

what is the max duration of treatment with bisphosphonates?

A

po: 5 years
IV: 3 years

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6
Q

LIFESTYLE risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
Smoking (current or former)
Daily ETOH > 3 units 
Caffeine > 4 cups/day
Inadequate calcium and vitamin D intake
Lack of sunlight exposure 
Prolonged immobility and lack of weight-bearing exercise
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7
Q

MEDICAL risk factors for osteoporosis?

specific
for women?
for men?

A
Advanced age
Frailty
Hyperthyroidism (including iatrogenic) or hyperparathyroidism
Celiac and other malabsorption syndromes
BMI < 20 kg/m2 or weight loss
Medication history, particularly chronic glucocorticoid use** 
Rheumatoid arthritis
Chronic liver or kidney disease

For men: Androgen deficiency (primary or secondary)

For women:
Estrogen deficiency (primary or secondary)
Early menopause (< 45 years)
Cessation of menstruation for 6-12 consecutive months (excluding pregnancy, menopause or hysterectomy)

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8
Q

what is a fragility fracture?

common locations?

A

Fractures sustained in falls from standing height or less, in which bone damage is disproportional to the degree of trauma. Includes vertebral compression fractures not attributable to previous major trauma, which may be suggested by height loss.

Fractures of the hip, vertebra, humerus, and wrist are most closely associated with OP and increased future fracture risk whereas those of the skull, fingers, toes, and patella fractures are not.

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9
Q

when is BMD indicated? (BC Guidelines)

A

men and women age > 65 years
at moderate risk of fracture (10 - 20% 10-year risk),
and results are likely to alter patient care

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10
Q

T-score cut off

normal:
osteopenia:
osteoporosis:
severe osteoporosis:

A

Normal: T is -1 and above
Osteopenia: T is -1.1 to -2.4
Osteoporosis: T -2.5 and below
Established or severe OP: T is -2.5 or below and one or more prevalent low-trauma fractures

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11
Q

what is first line treatment for OP for those at high risk of falling?

A

Falls in the past year
Time taken to stand from sitting
Muscle strength, balance, and gait by watching the patient walk and move
Check and correct postural hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias
Evaluate any neurological problems
Review prescription meds that may affect balance
Provide a checklist for improving safety at home

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12
Q

what individuals are automatically considered high risk of OP without doing FRAX

A

-hip and fragility fracture

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13
Q

follow up of osteoporosis: when to repeat BMD?

  • if not on OP meds?
  • if on OP meds?
A

BC Guidelines: if not on OP meds, may retest in 3-10 years based on risk profile

If on OP meds, repeat BMD not justified (hard to detect changes on BMD prior to 3 years) unless specific high risk (eg on prednisone dose >7.5 mg daily for 3 consecutive months etc)

If repeat BMD is done: do on same DXA machine at same time of year

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14
Q

bisphosphonates:

  • patient teaching
  • contraindications
  • side effects
A

Administration: swallow whole with full glass of water 30 min before first food of day; patients must not lie down for at least 30 min after dose
To enhance absorption and decrease gastrointestinal side effects emphasize proper administration
-po: available as 10 mg once daily or 70 mg once weekly

Contraindications: renal impairment [i.e., CrCl < 30 mL/min], hypocalcemia
Precautions: upper gastrointestinal problems

Adverse effects: abdominal pain, dyspepsia, nausea, esophagitis, esophageal ulcers, joint/muscle pain [may
need to discontinue if persists], ocular inflammation, osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ) atypical femoral fractures [although rare, seems to be more common with long term bisphosphonate use and can present as thigh or groin
pain], esophageal cancer, afib

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15
Q

Denosumab (prolia)

  • route
  • contraindications
  • side effects
A

Administration: subcutaneous injection into the upper arm, upper thigh, or abdomen q6 months
Contraindications: hypocalcemia

Adverse effects: cellulitis, dermatitis, eczema, rashes, pancreatitis, osteonecrosis of the jaw (rare)

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16
Q

Osteoarthritis

risk factors

A
  • Increasing age (55+)
  • F more commonly affected, greater severity
  • Genetics
  • Trauma: previous #, ligamentous injury
  • Obesity
  • inflammation from infection, inflammatory arthropathies, metabolic disorders
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17
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

risk factors

A
  • Bimodal age distribution (30s, 70s)
  • F
  • Genetics: family hx
  • Smoking
  • Periodontal disease
  • systemic illness/trauma
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18
Q

Onset of OA vs RA

A

OA: worse as day goes on, worse with activity

RA: morning stiffness

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19
Q

OA vs RA

affected joints and associated deformities

A

OA: hands, knees, hips, neck, back.
deformities: Bouchard’s (PIP), Heberden’s (DIP)

RA: peripheral joints (late onset proximal joints)
fingers, elbows, shoulders, ankles, knees, toes
PIP: boutonniere deformities, swan-neck contractures, ulnar deviation

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20
Q

OA vs RA

pain characteristics

A

OA:
Sharp/aching unilateral joint pain
Morning stiffness <30 min
Worse with activity

RA:Symmetrical
Morning stiffness >30 min
Accompanied by swelling and warmth in 3+ joints

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21
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

extra-articular manifestations

A

Systemic symptoms: fatigue, malaise, low grade fever, weight loss, depression

Anemia, pleuropericarditis, neuropathy, myopathy, splenomegaly, Sjogren’s, scleritis, vasculitis, renal disease, carpel tunnel syndrome
Increased risk of OP #

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22
Q

Labwork. OA vs RA

A

OA: neg CRP, RF, ANA

RA: reactive CRP, RF and anti-CCP may be positive

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23
Q

Management of OA

A
Exercise and strengthening
Weight loss
Pain relief:
	• Acetaminophen up to 1 g QID first line
	• NSAIDs if tylenol ineffective
		○ Naproxen 220-385 mg OD-BID PRN
		○ Limit to 2-4 weeks max effect
		○ Celebrex 200 mg OD-BID PRN
	• H2RA for gastritis and PUD protection
	• Topical voltaren
		○ Preferred over po NSAIDs for those >75+
	• Capsaicin
Intra-articular injections: Avoid >3-4x/year
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24
Q

Management of RA

A
EARLY DETECTION to start DMARDs by rheum
Exercise and joint mobility
Smoking cessation
DMARDS first line, start ASAP
	• MTX weekly first line
	• Sulfasalazine 500-1000 mg daily
	• Hydroxychloroquine 200-400 mg daily
Pain relief:
	• NSAIDs
		○ Ibuprofen 600-800 mg q6-8h PRN
		○ Naproxen 500 mg q12h PRN
	• Prednisone for active joint inflammation
		○ Short course recommended
Intra-articular injections to reduce synovitis
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25
Q

OA

Hallmark pathology:
Xray findings

A

Hallmark: cartilage loss

Xray:
Joint space narrowing
osteophytes
subchondral sclerosis

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26
Q

RA

Hallmark pathology
Xray findings:

A

Hallmark: synovial inflammation extending to cartilage

Xray:
Osteopenia
joint space narrowing
bone erosions
Loss of articular space
ulnar deviation
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27
Q

why is folate supplementation needed with methotrexate?

A

Folic acid supplementation during methotrexate therapy can reduce the risks of adverse effects including nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, mouth ulcers, raised liver enzymes and bone marrow toxicity

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28
Q

what are two major ADE associated with hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)?

A
  • retinopathy–> needs annual ophtho (q6-12 months)

- rash (rare but SJS and TENs can occur)

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29
Q

biologics for RA

before starting, important to check for which infections?

A

Screen for TB, hep B, hep C
**biologics can reactivate

**also ensure immunizations up to date

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30
Q

what is the most important risk factor for pseudogout (CPPD)?

other risk factors?

A

advanced age

-phosphate, Mg, parathyroid and thyroid disorders, hemochromatosis

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31
Q

All patients with PMR should be screened for….?

A

Giant cell arteritis

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32
Q

PMR

symptoms? timing?
joints affected?

A

acute onset ache and MORNING STIFFNESS
timing: worse in AM, lasts >1 hour
IMPROVES with activity, WORSEN with inactivity
duration: >2 weeks

joints: shoulders and/or hip girdle BILATERAL
may have fever, malaise, fatigue, decreased ADLs

also ask re: symptoms of GCA

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33
Q

GCA symptoms

A

headache
jaw claudication
***visual disturbances
fever, weight loss, and fatigue

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34
Q

PMR

labwork

A

CRP elevated
CK normal
RF and anti-CCP negative

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35
Q

PMR

imaging

A

ultrasound: bursitis, tenosynovitis, synovitis

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36
Q

PMR treatment

A

prednisone 12.5-25 mg daily
-depends on comorbidities eg brittle diabetic, frail

reassess in 1-2 weeks
recheck CRP in 4-6 weeks
often on steroids for long term before attempting taper consider OP protection

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37
Q

what are two main risk factors that predispose geriatric patients to foot problems?

A

PAD

neuropathy

38
Q

what is a major foot deformity associated with diabetes?

what is an early sign?

A

Charcot foot

  • bone disintegration and trauma (neurotrophic arthropathy) –> bone disintegration –> severe deformity
  • causes altered gait, higher risk of ulceration and limb loss

EARLY SIGN: swelling, redness
will not necessarily have pain due to neuropathy

39
Q

Onychia

signs and symptoms?
treatment?
complications?

A

-inflammation of posterior nail wall and nail bed

Sx: redness, swelling, pain
Treatment: tepid saline compress x 15 min TID (do not soak feet)
modification to shoes to relieve pressure to toe and nail

complication: paronychia, osteomyelitis (esp in presence of DM and vascular insufficiency)

40
Q

what is the most common non-bacterial infection of toenails?

symptom?
treatment?

A

onychomycosis
-chronic and communicable

Sx: entire thickness of nail hypertophic and deformed
pain not significant due to age-related changes

Treatment: often systemic contraindicated in older adults (medication interaction, hepatotoxicity)
-debridement with 35-50% urea, topical fungicide

41
Q

What are 3 questions to ask when assessing for falls risk?

A

Have you fallen in the last year?
Do you worry about falling?
Do you feel unsteady when standing or walking?

42
Q

what are 3 main systems responsible for maintaining balance?

A

proprioception (dorsal column –> thalamus –> posterior spinocerebellar tract –> cerebellum)

vestibular (CN VIII)

vision

43
Q

what is the role of the cerebellum in maintaining balance?

A

processing and responding to priorioception and vestibular input, correcting errors

44
Q

SPLATT for assessing falls?

A
symptoms immediately prior to fall?
previous falls?
location?
activity?
time of fall? time down?
trauma from fall?
45
Q

risk factors that impair balance and increase risk of falls

A
HISTORY of previous falls
medications
lower body weakness, pain and stiffness from arthritis
depression
environmental clutter
continence - rushing to use bathroom
vision impairment
small pets
46
Q

4 S’s of a gait assessment

A

Sit to stand
Speed
Stance
Step patterns

47
Q

what is the triad of symptoms that would raise suspicion for normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A
  • gait disturbance
  • urinary incontinence
  • cognitive impairment
48
Q

what is the single most effective fall prevention intervention?

A

participation in safe exercise program to promote strength and balance
balance training 3 or more days/week
**TAI CHI

49
Q

physical exam for patient with frequent falls?

what systems to assess

A
  • visual acuity
  • CV: orthostatic vitals, arrhythmia, murmurs, bruits
  • neuro: sensory, cerebellar, neuropathy, spinal stenosis, radiculopathy
  • sensory exam
  • MSK: strength, kyphosis, leg length measurement
  • cognitive screen
  • depression screen
50
Q

how to measure orthostatic vitals?

what is abnormal finding?

A

lie down x 5 min –> measure BP and HR
stand x 1 min –> measure BP and HR
repeat at 3 min

abnormal:
SBP drop >20 mm Hg
DBP drop >10 mm Hg

51
Q

what is the cause of PMR?

A

unknown cause
?environmental trigger (eg viruses)
?genetics

52
Q

risk factors for PMR?

A

age >50
F>M (2-3x)
Ethnicity (northern european&raquo_space;> African american and latino)

53
Q

what is the most common joint affected in pseudogout?

A

knee (50%)
other joints: shoulder, wrists, ankles, feet, elbows
larger joints

54
Q

psoriatic arthritis

symptoms?

A

joint pain, swelling and AM stiffness around insertion points of tendons and ligaments

-common to Achilles, plantar fascia, tibial tuberosity

55
Q

psoriatic arthritis

history?

A
personal or family hx psoriasis
skin rashes
nail lesions (onycholysis, pitting)
dactylitis (sausage digits)
photosensitivity
*have any treatments for psoriasis improved joint pain?
56
Q

patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at increased risk of developing what comorbidities?

A
  • carpal tunnel syndrome
  • stroke
  • osteoporotic fracture
  • renal disease secondary to drug toxicity
  • CV disease
57
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

stiffness present for how long?
how many joints?

A

AM stiffness for at least 30-60 min

  • at least 6 weeks of symptoms
  • 3 joints or more
58
Q

Giant cell arteritis

pharm treatment?

A

high dose prednisone 40-60 mg daily

  • do not wait for biopsy results
  • start immed to reduce risk of permanent vision loss

ASA 81-325 mg daily

59
Q

NIFTI red flags for MSK assessment

A
neurological
infection
fracture
tumour
inflammatory
60
Q

History questions to ask with arthritis?

A

location
stiffness
activity - improves or worsens?
impact on function
avoiding ALL activities due to pain/stiffness/weakness?
joint instability - locking, giving way, clicking

61
Q

MSK assessment for hip and knee arthritis?

A
  • sit to stand x 30 min
  • hip flexion
  • hip internal rotation
  • knee flexion (shallow knee bend from standing if patellar joint pain)
  • meniscal testing
62
Q

what is dysdiadochokinesia?

A

the inability to perform rapid alternating muscle movements.

63
Q

what kind of gait is seen in Parkinson’s?

A

shuffling, festination, bradykinesia, wide based

64
Q

what kind of conditions can cause Trendelenburg gait?

A

contralateral hip abductor weakness (nerve entrapment)
radiculopathy
CNS lesion

65
Q

what kind of conditions can cause steppage gait?

A

foot drop from peripheral neuropathy
radiculopathy
stroke

66
Q

what is a normal T score?

A

-1 or above

67
Q

what T score range is osteopenia?

A

osteopenia:

-1.1 to -2.4

68
Q

what T score range is osteoporosis?

A

-2.5 and below

69
Q

monoclonal antibody for osteoporosis (eg Prolia)

side effects?

A

myalgia/arthralgia
rashes (eczema, cellulitis)
UTI
pancreatitis

70
Q

bisphosphonate (eg alendronate) patient teaching?

A

take with full glass of water, do not lie down for 30 min

-

71
Q

labwork for diagnosis of osteoporosis

A

not indicated to make dx of OP or determine risk

  • only helpful to r/o secondary causes of OP
  • vit D testing not required to dx or recommended before/after starting supplementation
72
Q

what is the role of PTH on serum calcium concentration?

  • action on bone?
  • action on kidney?
A

increase serum Ca, decrease serum PO4

PTH acts on bone to RELEASE calcium by stimulating osteoclasts

PTH acts on kidney to INCREASE calcium reabsorption

73
Q

what is role of vit D3 on bone mineralization?

A

-works as co-factor with PTH –> promotes calcium and PO4 absorption in gut

74
Q

what is a T-score?

what is a Z-score?

A

T score compares your bone density to that of a healthy 30 year old white woman
*T score used for adults 50+

Z-score compares your bone density to the average bone density of people your own age and gender. For example, if you are a 60-year-old female,
Z-score compares your bone density to the average bone density of 60-year-old females.
*Z score used for adults <50

75
Q

what symptoms would make someone suspect inflammatory arthritis?

A
  • pain increased with rest
  • persistent joint swelling/tenderness
  • frequent warmth/erythema
  • 3+ joints affected
  • AM stiffness > 30 min
  • unexplained weight loss
76
Q

RA increases risk of _______ mortality (2x general population)

A

cardiovascular

77
Q

if RA is suspected, NP can order ______ until dx of RA is confirmed by rheum

A

hydroxychloroquine

78
Q

side effects associated with hydroxychloroquine?

A

GI: nausea, diarrhea, anorexia
Rash: TENS
Serious: retinopathy, myopathy

eye exam q6-12 months

79
Q

side effects associated with methotrexate?

A

GI: nausea, vomiting, oral ulcers
myalgia

Serious: bone marrow toxicity (NO septra), hepatitis, infection, pneumonitis

80
Q

side effects associated with sulfasalazine?

A

nausea, headache, rash

serious: bone marrow toxicity

81
Q

monitoring bloodwork MTX?

A

CBC, Cr, LFT, hep B and C at baseline

CBC, LFT, albumin, Cr monthly

82
Q

monitoring bloodwork for sulfasalazine?

A

CBC with diff, LFT monthly

83
Q

what spinal level has highest incidence of spinal stenosis?

A

L4-L5
L5-S1

larger diameter of lower lumbar and sacral roots

84
Q

early symptoms of spinal stenosis

A

Neurogenic claudication, low back pain, unilateral leg pain (sciatica-type), numbness, weakness, sensory disturbances

85
Q

nature of back pain with spinal stenosis

type:
location:
radiation:
exacerbation: 
Relief:
A

lower back pain: type: cramping, aching, burning in lower extremities

location: back, buttock, lower extremities
radiation: proximal –> distal
worse: with standing, less with walking, rare with biking
relief: sitting, flexion, squatting

86
Q

straight leg raise test is (positive/negative) in spinal stenosis

A

usually negative

87
Q

deep tendon reflexes in spinal stenosis?

A

loss or decrease in Achilles DTR

88
Q

toe and heel gait (normal/abnormal) in spinal stenosis?

A

abnormal

89
Q

skin changes to lower extremity in spinal stenosis?

A

no skin changes

90
Q

DDx for lower back pain

A

-lumbar spinal stenosis
-vascular claudication
-mass lesions
-spinal mets
-central disc hernation
-spondylolisthesis
-vertebral #
epidural abscess