Week 9 Flashcards

1
Q

what is STIR used for

A

fat suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is CSF used for

A

fluid suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

applications of spin-echo are __

A

any part of body except fast moving organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

applications of inversion recovery are __

A
  • CNS (FLAIR)
  • MSK (STIR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

applications of gradient-echo are __

A

fast imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

advantages of spin-echo are __

A
  • good image quality
  • gold standard for image contrast & weighting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

advantages of inversion recovery are __

A
  • good image quality
  • sensitive to pathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

advantages of gradient-echo are __

A
  • short scan time
  • improved SNR by more NEX
  • sensitive to susceptibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

disadvantages of spin-echo are __

A
  • long scan times
  • motion artifacts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

disadvantages of inversion recovery are __

A
  • very long scan time
  • motion artifacts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

disadvantages of gradient-echo are __

A
  • B0 inhomogeneity & susceptibility
  • blooming artifacts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

challenges of MRI abdomen

A
  • Respiratory motion
  • Organ location
  • Peristalsis
  • Artery pulsing
  • Patient’s cooperativeness
  • Breath hold time (10 – 20 s)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MRI abdomen patient position

A
  • Headfirst supine
  • Fasting 6 – 8 hours to distend gallbladder
  • Breath hold instructions
  • Power injector if dynamic scan is neeeded using 20 IV cannula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

different methods to test arrival of MR contrast agent

A
  • test bolus timing
  • fluoroscopic trigger
  • time resolved imaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the disadvantage of fluoroscopic trigger

A

operator dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MRI abdomen axial range is __

A

diaphragm till iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MRI abdomen axial range for 3D pre & post contrast are __

A

diaphragm till lower poles of kidney

18
Q

MRI abdomen coronal range is __

A

diaphragm till iliac crest

19
Q

MRI abdomen 3D VIBE + C + BH coronal range is __

A

anterior liver through posterior kidney

20
Q

what are fast spin echoes

A

multiple echoes in 1 TR where middle of K-spaces filled up first before filling up peripheries

21
Q

In HASTE, all data from all K-spaces are obtained after __

A

single 90 degrees excitation pulse

22
Q

HASTE creates __

A

mirror image

23
Q

How does HASTE work

A

Uses multiple 180° pulse echoes with shortened interecho spacing to acquire all imaging data during TR

24
Q

phase cycling formula

A

phase cycling = 1 / frequency offset

25
Q

False vs True pelvis

A

False pelvis (whole pelvis) vs true pelvis (prostate, uterus, ovaries)

26
Q

increasing bandwidth will __ blurriness by ___

A

decrease; reducing echo spacing to allow more quickly acquired data but higher fat signal

27
Q

high receiver bandwidth advantages are __

A
  • less chemical shift, metal / distortion / susceptibility artifacts
  • shorter minimum TE/TR & echo spacing
28
Q

high receiver bandwidth disadvantages are __

A

lower SNR, large FOV, more noise

29
Q

MRI pelvis patient position

A
  • Supine headfirst / feet first
  • Posterior spine coil + anterior body / torso
  • Superior edge of coil above iliac crest
  • Female pelvis = 20G cannula, prostate dynamic = 18G cannula
  • Empty bowels before imaging
30
Q

MRI pelvis sagittal slice covers __

A
  • entire pelvis from right to left acetabulum
  • parallel to lumbosacral spine
31
Q

what is the best plane to visualize uterus

A

MRI pelvis sagittal

32
Q

MRI pelvis axial slice covers __

A
  • position block perpendicular to endometrium
  • slice covers entire uterus & ovaries
33
Q

MRI pelvis coronal slice covers __

A
  • position block parallel to endometrium
  • slice covers entire uterus & ovaries
34
Q

what pelvis is used to visualize pelvic organs

A

true pelvis

35
Q

what pelvis is used for lymph node screening

A

false pelvis

36
Q

what are the challenges of MRI pelvis

A
  • Pelvis less sensitive to respiratory motion except upper pelvis
  • Heterogenous region due to vessels / organs / bowel content / peristalsis
37
Q

MRI rectum sagittal view covers __

A

position block parallel to interpubic cartilage & anal canal

38
Q

MRI rectum axial view covers __

A
  • position block parallel to right & left hip joints
  • range = iliac crest to 1 inch below SP
39
Q

MRI rectum axial oblique view covers __

A

position block perpendicular to rectum / any visible cancer

40
Q

MRI rectum coronal oblique view covers __

A
  • position block parallel to rectum & angled till horizontally across rectal cancer / parallel to right & left hip joint
  • Slices cover entire rectum & pre-sacral space from SP to sacrum