Week 8: cellulitis, sinusitis, OM Flashcards

1
Q

What is acute, spreading pyogenic inflammation of there dermis and subcutaneous tissue

A

cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does cellulitis usually complicate? (2)

A

wound or ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the appearance of cellulitis?

A

warm, tender, swollen and erythematous

LACKS sharp demarcation from unaffected skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does impetigo mostly occur?

A

in children during hot humid weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is common with impetigo and what can that lead to?

A

pruritus is common, scratching resulting in secondary staph infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you treat impetigo?

A

treat with benzathine PCN, single IM injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a severe manifestation of s. aureus infection caused by exfoliative exotoxin?

A

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a complication of SSSS in neonatal?

A

may produce epidemics in neonatal nurseries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mortality rate of SSSS?

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you treat SSSS?

A

penicilinase-resistant PCN

Nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a pyoderma in the hair shafts?

A

folliculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the etiology of folliculitis?

A

s. aureus
pseudomonas
candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the treatment for folliculitis?

A

local (topical) abx & antifungals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a deep inflammatory nodule?

A

furuncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is larger than a furuncle and extends into the subcutaneous fat (abscess)?

A

carbuncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes furuncles and carbuncles?

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are predisposing factors of furuncles and carbuncles?

A

obesity
blood dycrasias
steroid treatment
diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment for furuncle and carbuncles?

A

antistaphlococcal antibiotic

Dicloxacillin (Dycill) 250mg po q6h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment for furuncle and carbuncles if allergic to PCN?

A

clindamycin 150-300mg po q6h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment for furuncle and carbuncles if possible MRSA?

A

Vancomycin, Linezolid or Daptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What was previously associated with wool & animal hides?

A

chancriform lesion (Cutaneous Anthrax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is caused by spores of Bacillus anthracis?

A

chancriform lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With Chancriform lesions in 1-8 days, a _____ papule develops. As the lesion grows it becomes ______ & ______.

A

painless

hemorrhagic & necrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What should be avoided with chancriform (cutaneous anthrax) lesions?

A

incision & debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the treatment for chancriform (cutaneous anthrax) lesions?
cipro 500mg po q 12h for 7-10 days | 60 for bioterror
26
What is a distinctive type of superficial cellulitis characterized by prominent lymphatic involvement?
erysipelas
27
What is the presentation of erysipelas?
painful, red, edematous lesion w/ raised border and sharply demarcated
28
What should be given to treat mild/early cases of erysipelas?
Pen V 250-500mg po q6h | Erythromycin 250-500mg po q6h
29
What should be given for extensive or hospitalized cases of erysipelas?
Pen G 2000 units IV q6h OR | Nafcillin 2g IV q4h or Cefazolin 1-2g IV q8H
30
What are the most common initializing sources of cellulitis from skin trauma?
staph or strep
31
What are the most common initializing sources of cellulitis from bites?
dogs/cats: pasteurella | humans: bacteroides, Eikenella
32
What are the most common initializing sources of cellulitis from wounds of body piercings?
staph, strep
33
What are the most common initializing sources of cellulitis from hot tubs/pools?
pseudomonas
34
What predisposes patients to cellulitis?
edema
35
What percentage of needle aspiration cultures and biopsies are gram (+) organisms?
80%
36
What are some of the Gram (+) organisms found with culture and bx?
staph aureus group A or B streptococci Viridans streptococci E. faecalis (rarely)
37
Are cultures, and biopsies typical helpful? (esp swabs)
No- reveal typical skin flora
38
When are cultures and bx reserved for?
special cases (blisters)
39
Empiric treatment should focus on gram _____.
positive
40
What is the exception when empiric therapy should include anaerobic coverage?
diabetics
41
Necrotizing Fasciitis usually affects what areas?
extremities, abdominal wall, perianal and groin
42
What is Fournier's Gangrene?
necrotizing fasciitis of the genitalia
43
What is the presentation of NF?
affected area is swollen, hot, and VERY PAINFUL that rapidly progresses over several days
44
What is the result of thromboses of subQ vessels?
necrosis
45
What may precede necrosis?
anesthesia
46
What is an important clue of NF?
disproportionate pain
47
What is the mortality of NF?
20-50% (10-20% for Fournier's Gangrene) | Prompt diagnosis is crucial!
48
What are the empiric abx for NF?
ampicillin, gentamicin and clindamycin or metronidazole
49
What is the MOA of clindamycin and metronidazole?
inhibits exotoxin production
50
What is sinusitis usually secondary to?
cold (viral rhinosinusitis= VRS)
51
What percentage of viral rhino sinusitis progress to bacterial sinusitis?
1-2%
52
What favors bacterial overgrowth, resulting in Acute Bacterial Sinusitis (ABS)?
secondary obstruction
53
What are the most common(50%) organisms of acute bacterial sinusitis?
s. pneumoniae & H. influenza
54
When do VRS symptoms improve?
7-10 days
55
What are the clinical diagnosis findings to differentiate ABS (compared to VRS)?
symptom persistence >10 days worsening symptoms after 5-7 days OR (+) transillumination of the maxillary sinus
56
In general what are the current recommendations for ABS?
``` amoxicillin-clavulanate cefdinir cefpodoxime proxetil cefuroxime axetil levofloxacin moxifloxacin ``` 10 days
57
What is the cure rate of ABS with 10 days of abx?
90%
58
What is the most common reason for abx in children?
otitis media
59
What are the common etiologies for acute otitis media?
S. pneumoniae 38% (pneumococcal vaccine) H. influenza 27% (Hib vaccine) M. catarrhalis 10%
60
What is significant about M. catarrhalis causing AOM?
most produce beta lactamase
61
What is required to diagnose AOM?
signs or symptoms AND 1. inflammation (red tympanic membrane) 2. fluid in the middle ear (bulging membrane)
62
Is a retracted eardrum AOM?
NO- It is painful but caused by negative middle ear pressure
63
Is a red membrane WITHOUT middle ear fluid AOM?
NO
64
What is a method of detecting middle ear fluid (effusion)?
otoscope (visual)
65
When are tympanocentesis indicated? (3)
patients critically ill at symptoms onset toxic patients not responding in 48-72 hours patients with altered host defenses (immune defect, newborn)
66
What is the drug of choice for AOM?
High dose of amoxicillin | 80mg/kg/d
67
What are the alternative treatment in failed pts with amoxicillin?
amox/clav 80-90mg/kg/d BID cefuroxime axetil (Ceftin) or cefdinir (Omnicef) ceftriaxone (Rocephin )IM