Week 7: Trauma (Part 1) Flashcards

1
Q

For people age 5-29 years, 3 of the top 5 causes of death are injury-related, namely ….

A

road traffic injuries, homicide and suicide.

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2
Q

Injuries and violence are responsible for an estimated ____________ of all years lived with disability.

A

10%

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3
Q

Injuries and violence place a massive burden on national economies, costing countries billions of US dollars each year in …

A

health care, lost productivity and law enforcement.

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4
Q

The strategy of initial management can be defined as …

A

a continuous, priority-driven process of patient assessment, resuscitation, and reassessment.

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5
Q

The general approach to evaluation of the acute trauma victim has three sequential components:

A

rapid overview, primary survey, and secondary survey

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6
Q

trauma initial evaluation flow chart

A
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7
Q

The primary survey is designed to:

A

assess and treat life-threatening injuries rapidly.

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8
Q

The leading causes of death in trauma patients are (4)

A
  • airway obstruction
  • respiratory failure
  • hemorrhagic shock
  • brain injury

Therefore, these are the areas targeted by the primary survey.

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9
Q

Airway evaluation involves:

A
  • the diagnosis of any trauma to the airway or surrounding tissues
  • recognition and anticipation of the respiratory consequences of these injuries
  • prediction of the potential for exacerbation of these or other injuries by any contemplated airway management maneuvers
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10
Q

____________ is probably the most frequent cause of asphyxia

A

airway obstruction

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11
Q

airway obstruction may result from:

A

-posteriorly displaced or lacerated pharyngeal soft tissues
- hematoma
- bleeding
- secretions
- foreign bodies
- displaced bone or cartilage fragments.

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12
Q

bleeding in the cervical region

A

may produce airway obstruction not only because of compression by the hematoma, but also from venous congestion and upper airway edema as a result of compression of neck veins.

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13
Q

Signs of upper and lower airway obstruction include:

A

dyspnea, hoarseness, stridor, dysphonia, subcutaneous emphysema, and hemoptysis.

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14
Q

Early symptoms that may help indicate that specialized airway management techniques are required.

A

Cervical deformity, edema, crepitation, tracheal deviation, or jugular venous distention

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15
Q

initial steps in airway management

A

chin lift, jaw thrust, clearing of the oropharyngeal cavity, placement of an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway

  • in inadequately breathing patients, ventilation with a self-inflating bag.
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16
Q

if initial resolution of airway obstruction is inadequate…

A

definitive airway management should be achieved by intubation or cricothyroidotomy

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17
Q

____________ can be useful intermediary for airway obstruction

A

supraglottic airway (LMA)

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18
Q

what should be avoided in patients with airway obstruction

A

Blind Passage of Nasal Tubes should be avoided

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19
Q

most common trauma-related causes of difficult tracheal intubation

A
  • Maxillofacial, neck, and chest injuries, as well as cervicofacial burns, are the most common trauma-related causes of difficult tracheal intubation.
  • Airway assessment should include a rapid examination of the anterior neck for feasibility of access to the cricothyroid membrane
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20
Q

all trauma patients should be considered ____________

A

a full stomach

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21
Q

how should intubation occur in patient with airway obstruction

A

rapid sequence

reduced dose induction drugs or NONE

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22
Q

cervical spine injury immobilization is indicated (before/after) airway management in all acute trauma patients with depressed consciousness, neck pain, tenderness, extremity paresthesias, or focal neurologic deficits, and whenever the pain of other injuries is likely to mask the neck pain

A

before

23
Q

what kind of intubation should be avoided for a patient with cervical spine injury

A

Nasal intubation

There is no singular “best” method for tracheal intubation. Selection of the optimal technique and outcome depends on the pattern of injury, resource availability, and provider experience.

24
Q

maxillofacial obstruction can occur by:

A

blood, bone, teeth, pharyngeal tissues

25
Q

t/f many isolated facial injuries do not require intubation

A

TRUE

26
Q

penetrating injury may cause

A

Escape of air, hemoptysis, and coughing

27
Q

t/f you can intubate through a defect

A

true

28
Q

blunt airway injury may cause what s/s

A

hoarseness, muffled voice, dyspnea, stridor, dysphagia, odynophagia, cervical pain and tenderness, ecchymosis, subcutaneous emphysema, and flattening of the thyroid cartilage

29
Q

Blunt thoracic injury usually involves :

A

the posterior membranous portion of the trachea and the mainstem bronchi, usually within approximately 3 cm from the carina.

30
Q

What are the usual signs of penetrating injury?

A

Pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, pneumopericardium, subcutaneous emphysema, and a continuous air leak from the chest tube are the usual signs of this injury; they occur frequently but are not specific for thoracic airway damage.

31
Q

____________ suggests a perforated airway

A

difficulty in obtaining a seal around the endotracheal tube or the presence on a chest radiograph of a large radiolucent area in the trachea corresponding to the cuff suggests a perforated airway.

32
Q

s/s of tension pneumothorax

A

mediastinal shift

33
Q

____________ is a life-threatening emergency wherein a large air collection in the pleural space compromises respiration and cardiac function

A

tension pneumothorax

34
Q

the classic signs of tension pneumothorax

A

Cyanosis, tachypnea, hypotension, neck vein distention, tracheal deviation, and diminished breath sounds on the affected side are

35
Q

how should needle decompression be performed

A

insertion of an angio cath in the 2 intercostal space midclavicular line

36
Q

what is an open pneumothorax

A

When an injury creates a hole in the chest wall that allows air from the environment to enter the pleural cavity

37
Q

treatment for open pneumo

A

3 sided dressing and chest tube

38
Q

flail chest may occur when…

A

3 or more ribs are broken in at least 2 places

39
Q

A flail chest arises when injuries cause…

A

a segment of the chest wall to move independently of the rest of the chest wall.

40
Q

patho of flail chest

A

Continuity of the chest wall is disrupted, and the physiologic action of the ribs is altered. The motion of the flail segment is paradoxical to the rest of the chest. It is paradoxical because the flail segment moves inward while the rest of the chest wall moves outward.

41
Q

problems with ventilation a/w flail chest

A

Ineffective ventilation because of increased dead space, decreased intrathoracic pressure, and increased oxygen demand from injured tissue.

42
Q

____________ is almost universal with flail chest.

A

Pulmonary contusion in adjacent lung tissue

43
Q

Pulmonary contusion impairs ____________ and ____________

A

gas exchange and decreases compliance.

44
Q

what results from pain of the injury a/w flail chest

A

hypoventilation and atelectasis

45
Q

treatment of flail chest

A
  • Maintain adequate ventilation
  • fluid management
  • pain management
  • management of the unstable chest wall [surgical fixation]
46
Q

____________ the most common cause of shock in trauma patients (second cause of death- TBI is first)

A

blood loss

47
Q

how to evaluate for blood loss

A
  • by assessing the level of responsiveness, obvious hemorrhage, skin color, and pulse (presence, quality, and rate).
48
Q

Any obvious hemorrhaging should be controlled by:

A
  • direct pressure if possible
  • if needed, by applying tourniquets to the extremities.
49
Q

warning sign of hypovolemia

A

pale or ashen extremities or facial skin warning

50
Q

what vascular s/s are of concern for hypovolemia

A

Rapid, thready pulses in the carotids or femoral arteries are also of concern for hypovolemia.

51
Q

In trauma, hypovolemia is addressed first with ____________

A

1 L to 2 L isotonic solutions, but it should then be followed by blood products

52
Q

a cap refill time of more than ____________ may indicate poor perfusion

A

2 seconds

53
Q

Any patient presenting with ____________ is in shock until proven otherwise.

A

pale, cold extremities

54
Q

With no obvious signs of hemorrhage, and when there is a hemodynamic compromise, a ____________ must be considered and, if suspected, corrected through the creation of a pericardial window.

A

pericardial tamponade