week 7- resp2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the URIs?

A

o Rhinitis, Rhinosinusitis, Rhinopharyngitis (common cold), Pharyngitis, Tonsillitis, Epiglottitis, Laryngitis

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2
Q

• What are the common organisms that cause URI’s?

A

o Viral: rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, adenovirus, respiratory syncytial virus
o Bacterial: (pharyngitis): Streptococcus pyogenes

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3
Q

• What are the LRIs?

A
o	Laryngotracheobronchitis?
o	Acute bronchitis
o	Pneumonia
o	Lung abscess
o	Pulmonary tuberculosis
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4
Q

• What is laryngotracheobronchitis? Etiology? Age? Sex?

A

o Croup
o viral inflammation of the upper and lower respiratory tract causing respiratory distress
o Etiology: Parainfluenza virus type I (60% of cases) also types II-IV adenovirus; respiratory syncytial virus RSV; rhinovirus; coxsackie virus; echovirus
o Age: typically occurs in children aged 6 mos to 3 yrs
o Sex: M:F ratio 2:1.

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5
Q

• What are ssx of laryngotracheobronchitis?

A

o Prodrome: few days of mild URI with coryza, nasal congestion, sore throat, cough, low-grade fever
o then developing: hoarse voice and harsh, brassy, seal bark-like cough
o Respiratory stridor (often at night)

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6
Q

• What is found on PE for laryngotracheobronchitis?

A

o distress: from minimal to severe respiratory failure due to airway obstruction
o Mild cases: examination at rest usually is normal; may be mild expiratory wheezing
o More severe cases: inspiratory stridor at rest with nasal flaring, suprasternal and intercostals retractions.
o Lethargy or agitation from hypoxemia
o Tachypnea, tachycardia out of proportion to fever, lethargy, pallor

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7
Q

• What is the course of laryngotracheobronchitis? Labs? Dx? Px?

A

o Course: usually peaks over 3-5d, resolves in 4-7d.
o Lab: leukocytosis with left shift
o Dx: A-P X-ray of the C-spine, “steeple sign”
o Px: self-limited disease, but can very rarely result in death from complete airway obs

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8
Q

• What is ddx of laryngotracheobronchitis?

A

o other causes of SOB and stridor:
o epiglottitis: hot potato voice, high fever (emergency, don’t try to visualize!)
o foreign body: no hx URI or fever
o retropharyngeal abscess: swelling at back of throat, see on lateral xray
o diphtheria- grayish membrane over pharynx/larynx

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9
Q

• what is acute bronchitis? Causes?

A

o Self-limited inflammation the bronchus—usually from viral infection
o Influenza A and B, parainfluenza, coronaviris (types 1-3), rhinovirus, RSV
o Rare pathogens: H flu, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, Pertussis

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10
Q

• What are ssx of acute bronchitis?

A

o Cough > 5 days with sputum production (often starting with URI sx)
o Sputum may be purulent from sloughing tracheobronchial and inflammatory cells

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11
Q

• What is found on PE for acute bronchitis?

A

o Generally afebrile or low grade fever
o Wheezing suggests bronchospasm
o Rhonchi indicates mucus in upper airways, clear with cough
o Normal percussion, no changes in transmitted voice tests
o Only if developing signs of pneumonia, >75 yo, abnormal vitals, presence of crackles

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12
Q

• What is found on Labs for acute bronchitis? Imaging? Ddx?

A

o Lab: CBC usually not warranted. No to mild leukocytosis
o Imaging: CXR usually not warranted.
o DDX: chronic bronchitis, pneumonia, post-nasal drip, GERD, asthma

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13
Q

• What is pneumonia? Pathophysiology of typical lobar pneumonia (stages)? Etiology?

A

o acute infection of alveolar spaces and/or interstitial tissue
o Stage 1: congestion phase
o Stage 2: red hepatization—consolidation
o Stage 3: gray hepatization—consolidation
o Stage 4: resolving stage
o Etio: Distinguish between bacterial, viral (50%) and mycoplasma

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14
Q

• What are the 2 classifications of pneumonia?

A

o Community-acquired

o Hospital-acquired (nocosomial)

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15
Q

• What is community-acquired pneumonia?

A

o 5-6 cases/1000 persons per year, worse in winter months
o Higher rates in males and in African Americans; in US, 8th most common cz of death
o Pre-disposing host conditions: level of consciousness, smoking, alcohol consumption, underlying lung disease, malnutrition, advancing age, peds, immunocompromised
o Most common organisms: Respiratory Syncytial Virus, parainfluenza virus, Influenza viruses A or B, adenovirus
o Bacterial: S pneumoniae, H flu, S aureus, Group A strep, M catarrhalis, Klebsiella pneumoniae (rare); Legionella spp., M pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, P. aeruginosa,

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16
Q

• What is hospital-acquired (nocosomial) pneumonia? Associated pneumonias? Organisms?

A

o onset in >48hrs of hospital admission
o Ventilator-associated: onset 48-72 hrs after endotracheal intubation
o Healthcare-associated: occurs after extensive healthcare contact (IV therapy, chemotherapy, dialysis, nursing home residence)
o Organisms: E coli, Klebsiella, enterobacter spp, P aeruginosa, MRSA, H flu

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17
Q

• What are the 5 categories of pneumonia?

A

o Bacterial; viral; mycoplasma; fungal; non-infectious

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18
Q

• What are the common organisms for bacterial pneumonia?

A

o Strep pneumoniae; klebsiella pneumoniae; haemophilus pneumonia; staph aureus; legionella pneumophila

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19
Q

• What are characteristics of pneumonia caused by strep pneumoniae?

A

o Aka: Pneumococcus pneumonia; 60-80%
o Px: overall mortality 5%
o Aged 2 years to 50 years: 90-95% survive
o if < 1 yr., > 60 yr., positive blood culture, 2 or more lobes involved, use aggressive tx
o Complications: meningitis, endocarditis
o REFER if: BUN >70, WBC <5000, other underlying dz. (heart, COPD)

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20
Q

• What are characteristics of pneumonia caused by klebsiella pneumoniae?

A

o gram negative bacilli causes aggressive necrotizing lobar pneumonia
o risk factors: alcoholism, malnutrition, DM, recent tx with antibiotic, COPD, >40yo, hospitalized individuals
o Px: 40-60% if untreated
o Sx: Cough, fever, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea; spreads quickly
o Extremely viscid exudates that can’t be expectorated—“currant jelly” sputum
o Relative bradycardia: pulse rate does not increase as much with fever (usually with
o every degree in temp rise is inc 10 in heart rate)

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21
Q

• What are characteristics of pneumonia caused by haemophilus influenzae?

A

o most commonly arises in the winter and early spring

o risk factors: asthma, COPD, smoking, immunocompromised

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22
Q

• What are characteristics of pneumonia caused by staph aureus?

A

o in IV drug abusers and other individuals with debilitations
o infx often spread hematogenously to the lungs from contaminated injection sites.

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23
Q

• What are characteristics of pneumonia caused by legionella pneumophila?

A

o gram negative bacterium: “Legionnaire’s disease”
o outbreaks from aerosolized organisms from air conditioning system or contaminated shower heads, more often in hotels and hospitals
o sx in elderly, smokers, immune compromised, alcoholics, pt. with pre-existing cardio-pulmonary, neoplastic, or renal dz (esp pts with renal transplant)
o unlike other pneumonias, Legionella pneumonia has associated GI symptoms >50% of the time: anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

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24
Q

• What are General Signs & Sxs of bacterial pneumonias?

A

o cough with thick greenish or rust-colored mucus; SOB; rapid breathing; sharp pleuritic pain–worse with deep breaths (S pneumoniae esp); abdominal pain, and severe fatigue. May be profuse sweating and mental confusion.
o Pneumococcus: rigors or severe shaking chills, pleuritic chest pain
o Legionella : headache, malaise, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

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25
Q

• What are the sputum characteristics of different bacterial pneumonias?

A

o Pneumococcus - bloody or rust-colored
o Pseudomonas, Haemophilus, and pneumococcal spp may produce green
o Anaerobic infections may produce foul-smelling
o Klebsiella: resembles currant jelly

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26
Q

• What is found on PE for bacterial pneumonias?

A

o Patient looks sick; high fever; tachypnea; tachycardia or bradycardia; cyanosis; pallor
o bronchial breath sounds; wheezes, rhonchi, and/or crackles; positive egophony; increased tactile fremitus; dullness to percussion; pleural friction rub (possible)
o altered mental status in severe cases

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27
Q

• what work-up is done for bacterial pneumonias?

A
o	CXR (dense shadow with well-demarcated borders), CBC, CMP
o	CT, bronchoscopy, or thoracentesis may be needed in advanced, unresolving cases
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28
Q

• What is Px for bacterial pneumonias?

A

o Normal resolution of symptoms vary, but most pts find subjective improvement of symptoms in 3-5 day of treatment (of uncomplicated pneumonia)
o Typical duration of ssx: fever 2-4 d; cough 4-9 d; crackles 3-6 d; leukocytosis 3-4 d

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29
Q

• What should be considered with bacterial pneumonias with unresolving sxs?

A

o Comorbidities: alcoholism, COPD, CHF, CKD, Malignancy, DM, HIV
o Advancing age >65
o Aggressive organism: Klebsiella, Legionella, S Aureus
o Drug-resistant organism: eg S pneumoniae
o Non-bacterial agents: TB, fungi
o Underlying neoplastic dz
o Mis-dx of: connective tissue dz, sarcoidosis, pulmonary embolism, pulmonary edema, drug-induced lung dz
o Complications include: lung abscess, pleural effusion, empyema

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30
Q

• What is etiology of viral pneumonias? Ssx?

A

o influenza virus, RSV, parainfluenza virus, adenovirus, paramyxovirus, CMV, varicella-zoster virus, HSV, EBV, Hantavirus, and coronavirus (SARS-CoV)
o ssx: malaise, headache, myalgia, cervical LA, chest pain, sore throat, and cough with scant sputum

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31
Q

• what is found on PE for viral pneumonias?

A

o Some patients have few, if any, physical findings other than mild fever, while other patients may have respiratory and/or multi-organ failure. Other findings include the following:
o tachypnea and/or dyspnea; tachycardia; wheezing, rhonchi, crackles; sternal or intercostal retractions; decreased breath sounds; pleurisy

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32
Q

• what is the work-up for viral pneumonia? Px?

A

o Work-up: CBC, CMP, CXR (fuzzy shadows/mottling with ill-defined demarcation)
o Px: good in most patients, but it is guarded in elderly or immunocompromised

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33
Q

• What are the characteristics of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS CoV)?

A

o (new mutation of corona virus)
o Global epidemic in 2003; approx 800 related deaths
o Airborne droplet transmission
o SSx: high fever (>100.4C), dry cough, nasal congestion, dyspnea, chest pain, localized chest pain, ms and joint pain, diarrhea, headache
o PCR or ELISA used to identify the virus
o CXR with patchy infiltrates
o ~25% of pts with SARS have residual pulmonary fibrosis.
o Other complications: organ failure, osteoporosis, depression

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34
Q

• What are characteristics of Hantavirus Pulmonary syndrome?

A

o 2012, 8 cases from exposure to mice droppings in Yosemite park, 3 deaths
o Sx initially looks like Flu, then worsens quickly leading to pulmonary edema

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35
Q

• What is mycoplasma pneumonia? Etio?

A

o “walking pneumonia”
o Etio: M pneumoniae, (the smallest known free-living organism).
o Note: the organism is difficult to culture, requiring 7-21 days to grow, or may NOT grow

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36
Q

• What are the ssx of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

o often very benign, slow progression, looks like URI (sore throat, fever, headache, malaise) and resolves without any treatment.
o May be violent attacks of coughing with scant mucus, chills/fever; occ. N/ V
o dry cough can persist for as long as a month; some pts can have a protracted illness/weakness lasting as long as 6 weeks.

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37
Q

• What is found on PE for mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

o nontoxic general appearance
o erythematous tympanic membranes or bullous myringitis in patients > 2 yrs
o mild pharyngeal erythema but no exudate: minimal or no cervical LA
o Auscultation: no findings early, but rhonchi, crackles, and/or wheezes several days later
o Other possible findings: otitis media, rash

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38
Q

• How is mycoplasma pneumonia diagnosed? Px?

A

o PCR detects organism DNA
o EIA serology
o NO bacteria found on gram-stained sputum sample
o CXR may have no findings or some diffuse infiltrate
o Px: most resolve after several weeks as pt regains their strength

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39
Q

• What I age for bacteria, viral, mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

o Any
o Any but typically older kids and young adults
o Any

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40
Q

• Sputum for B, V, M pneumonia?

A

o Copious; rusty, purulent, blood-streaked; many PMNs on gram stain
o Scant; thin; microscopic exam: no bacteria
o Scant, thin, sparse organisms, PMNs and M0s, clumps of resp epithelial cells

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41
Q

• Relations of URIs of B, V, M pneumonia?

A

o Precedes
o Concurrent
o Precedes

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42
Q

• Fever in B, V, M pneumonia? Onset? Myalgia? Toxicity?

A

o F: High; low/absent; varies
o O: Rapid; gradual/mild; gradual
o M: Absent; present; varies
o T: present; absent; absent

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43
Q

• CXR for B, V, M pneumonia?

A

o Pulmonary infiltrate, consolidation, unilateral
o Varies, interstitial pneumonia
o WNL, may be diffuse lower lobe infiltrate, may be consolidation

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44
Q

• WBC for B, V, M, pneumonia?

A

o 15,000+ count
o Low, WNL or slight increase
o WNL or slight inc

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45
Q

• What are the 4+ types of fungal pneumonias?

A

o Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly P carinii)
o Coccidioidomycosis (San Joaquin Valley fever or desert rheumatism)
o Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
o Histoplasmosis “spelunker’s lung”
o Other: blastocystis hominis, candida

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46
Q

• What is etio of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia?

A

o ubiquitous unicellular eukaryote, P jirovecii (usu. dormant in a host lung)
o frequent cause of morbidity and mortality in persons who are immunocompromised, may be AIDS-defining diagnosis. Rare in general population

47
Q

• what are ssx of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia? Complications?

A

o usually insidious onset of malaise, weight loss, night sweats and low-grade fever associated with a dry cough (sputum is too viscous to expectorate)
o may be more severe: dyspnea cyanosis, respiratory distress, chest pain, productive cough
o Complications: spontaneous pneumothorax and hypoxemia; Can also affect the liver, spleen and kidney.

48
Q

• What is etio of coccidioidomycosis pneumonia?

A

o Coccidioides immitis, a soil fungus particularly adapted to arid conditions
o Southwest US (Utah, Ariz.), Mexico, S. America
o Spores become airborne with soil disruption: construction, farming, quakes

49
Q

• What are ssx of coccidioidomycosis pneumonia?

A

o self-limited respiratory tract infection, occurs 1-3 weeks after exposure.
o most cases subclinical, never reaching the attention of a physician
o common complaints are nonspecific: fever, cough, chest pain, fatigue, dyspnea, headache, arthralgias, and/or myalgias
o May disseminate to other body systems in those immunocompromised

50
Q

• What is found on PE for coccidioidomycosis pneumonia?

A

o Pulmonary: findings are generally nonspecific: crackles, pleural rubs, wheezing, and decreased breath sounds from effusions
o Disseminated disease:
o Dermatologic: erythema Nodosum
o CNS: disseminated CI may lead to meningitis - fever, headache, meningismus, N/V, and altered mental status.
o CV: endocarditis (rare but serious if involved)
o MS: osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, and synovitis.

51
Q

• What is the work-up and findings for coccidioidomycosis pneumonia?

A

o CBC - leukocytosis with eosinophilia, lymphocytosis, or monocytosis.
o CXR: Infiltrates can range from segmental or lobar to diffuse reticulonodular
o Skin testing - delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions may become pos in 1-3 wks.
o Serology tube precipitin assays for IgM may detect acute infection.
o Sputum culture results are usually delayed (5- to 7-day incubation period)

52
Q

• How is coccidioidomycosis pneumonia diagnosed? Px?

A

o Dx: clinical suspicion and history of possible exposure or travel to an endemic area.
o Dx: General good, but poor if the patient is immunocompromised

53
Q

• What is Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis pneumonia? Findings?

A

o Eosinophilic pneumonia: Type I and II allergic rx. to Aspergillosis nigra or fumigatus
o Fungus found in soil, decaying vegetation, dust, water
o Typical patient already has asthma- then develops cough, wheezing, dyspnea worse than normal, low-grade fever
o Sputum: extremely tenacious, forms plugs with brown flecks filled with aspergillosis (colonized in the mucus)
o CBC- diff. > 50% eosinophils, increased IgE, pos RAST skin test to aspergillosis
o CXR shows bronchiectasis, infiltrates (Alveoli packed with eosinophils)

54
Q

• What is etio of histoplasmosis pneumonia?

A

o Histoplasma capsulatum, a fungus found in soil enriched with bird or bat droppings (caves) In US: Ohio and Mississippi river valleys, and Southeast. (Up 80 % of persons living in these areas have a positive skin test)
o Spores inhaled into alveolar spaces, budding yeast seen within cells
o Infection varies in symptoms and seriousness (short-term, treatable infection to a disseminated disease)

55
Q

• What are ssx of histoplasmosis pneumonia (types)?

A

o Acute (short term, mild): fatigue, fever, chills, chest pain, dry cough (~10 d post exp)
o Chronic (long term, serious): like TB; occurs mostly in those with prev lung dz
o It can progress/relapse over mos or yrs, leading to lung scarring.
o Disseminated histoplasmosis leads to serious symptoms, multiple body organs

56
Q

• What is found on PE for acute pulmonary histoplasmosis? Chronic?

A

o Lung auscultation: crackles or wheezes (rarely)
o Heart auscultation: may be pericardial friction rub (~5% of pts develop pericarditis)
o Skin: erythema multiforme or erythema Nodosum (~5-6% of pts develop)
o Chronic: Lung auscultation: crackles, wheezes

57
Q

• What is found on PE for Chronic progressive disseminated histoplasmosis?

A

o Mouth: ulcers on the buccal mucosa, tongue, gingiva, and larynx.
o Eyes: May be vision loss
o Abdomen: hepatosplenomegaly is possible

58
Q

• What is the work-up for histoplasmosis pneumonia? Results?

A

o sputum culture for the organism
o positive histoplasma skin test, useful only for outbreak investigations
o PCR to identify DNA
o CXR: calcified hilar lymph nodes, lung scarring seen in chronic forms

59
Q

• What is prognosis for histoplasmosis pneumonia (types)?

A

o acute pulmonary histoplasmosis is associated with a good outcome
o chronic progressive disseminated histoplasmosis has a protracted course, lasting up to years, with long asymptomatic periods. If untreated may result in death

60
Q

• what are the non-infectious causes of pneumonia?

A

o Aspiration

o Lipoid aspiration

61
Q

• What are the aspiration types of pneumonia? Course? Dx? Tx?

A

o From esophageal dz., seizures, chronic hiccups, CNS dz., while under general anesthesia, after surgery, alcoholism, drug abuse, disturbances of consciousness, vomiting
o very severe, high mortality
o dx based on history.
o tx: suction of aspirate

62
Q

• what is lipoid aspiration pneumonia? Ssx? CXR?

A

o Fat or oil: e.g. mineral oil (elderly pt.), nasal ointments, nose drops, furniture polish into lungs
o Oil causes inflammation, secondary infection
o Ssx: acute: fever, cough, oil droplets in sputum, chronic wt loss, night sweats
o CXR reveals infiltrates throughout lung

63
Q

• What are lung abscesses with pneumonia? Ssx? Work-up?

A

o complication of pneumonia
o Sequestration of anaerobic bacteria leading to necrosis of lung parenchyma, typically as a complication of aspiration pneumonia, or severe bacterial pneumonia
o SSX: history of unresolving pneumonia, fever, cough, sour-tasting sputum for > 2wks; night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis, pleurisy
o Work-up: Seen as cavitation on CXR and CT

64
Q

• What is pulmonary tuberculosis?

A

o Mycobacterium tuberculosis infx can spread through the lymph nodes and bloodstream to any organ but commonly the lungs.. The bacteria can live in tubercules (in an inactive form) in the body.

65
Q

• What is incidence of pulmonary tuberculosis?

A

o US, Canada: ~ 25,000 cases/yr (40% in immigrants from endemic countries); ~ 650 deaths/yr
o Worldwide: on the top 10 list for all-cause, all-age mortality; prevalence ~2 billion people; 9 million new cases/yr; ~2 million deaths/yr
o Clinical illness (active TB) often from reactivation of infection not adequately treated
o 7% of pop. have positive skin tests, indicating previous infection/ exposure

66
Q

• Which populations have higher prevalence of TB?

A

o Homeless or marginally housed persons; Foreign-born or freq travel to endemic areas; correctional facilities, shelters; Elderly
o Health care workers serving high risk grps; Medically underserved, low income
o Children exposed to adults at high risk

67
Q

• Which populations have higher risk of progression to active TB?

A

o Those infected within 2 previous years
o Kids < 4 yrs
o history of untreated/undertreated TB
o Immunocompromised: HIV, CA, organ transplant, corticosteroid use
o Underlying medical conditions: silicosis, DM, CKD, gastrectomy, underweight

68
Q

• Epidemiology of Tb (sex and age)?

A

o Sex: In the US: M>F 2:1

o Age: Most 25- 44 yrs, especially in minority population. In non-minorities, the median age of onset is 62 years

69
Q

• What is etiology of TB?

A

o Mycobacterium tuberculosis (acid fast organism- needs Ziehl- Neelsen stain)
o Different types- human, bovine, avarian
o Transmission occurs mainly person-to person, inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei, (from sneezing, coughing from infected person). To be at risk, exposure to the organisms must be constant– living or working in close quarters with someone with active TB (eg Contact 8h/d x 6 mos or 24h/d x 2mos = 50% chance of infection)

70
Q

• What are the 4 different types of TB infection?

A

o Primary
o Active
o Latent and reactivation (post-primary)
o Multi-drug Resistant TB (MDR-TB)

71
Q

• What is a primary TB infection?

A

o Organism enters lungs, inflammatory reaction holds organisms in check
o Only 10% of people infected with TB will develop active disease
o Remaining 90% will show no signs of infection, nor will they spread the disease to others (latent TB)

72
Q

• What are ssx of active TB?

A

o Chronic productive cough (>3 wks duration)
o yellow-green sputum – usu in AM (late in dz)
o hemoptysis (late in dz)
o malaise, fatigue, anorexia, wt loss
o low grade fever coming on in late afternoon
o night sweats
o Note: classic symptoms are often absent, esp in patients who are elderly or immunocomp

73
Q

• What is found on PE for active TB?

A

o Fever; cachexia; hypoxia; tachycardia; lymphadenopathy; abnormal lung sounds

74
Q

• What may active TB progress to? What if there are no findings?

A

o TB Pleurisy: Pleuritic chest pain, fever, SOB—may produce an exudative pleural effusion
o Note: absence of any significant physical findings does not exclude active disease. In the high-risk patient, respiratory isolation and sputum sampling are essential.

75
Q

• What labs are done for active TB?

A

o PPD test
o acid fast stain of sputum
o culture takes 3-6 wk. to grow
o gastric aspirates after a 6 hr fast better than sputum (esp non-HIV pts)
o WBC usually normal; may see normochromic, normocytic anemia

76
Q

• What imaging studies are done for active TB?

A

o Radiographic findings consistent with active primary TB are similar to those of lobar pneumonia with ipsilateral hilar adenopathy, often accompanied by atelectasis, typically in upper lobes
o Note: CXR consistent with TB indicates active disease in the symptomatic patient even in the absence of a diagnostic sputum smear result. Similarly, normal chest radiography in the symptomatic patient does not exclude TB, particularly in an immunosuppressed person

77
Q

• What is the course of active TB?

A

o 14% of cases can progress to Miliary TB (extra-pulmonary or disseminated TB)
o Hematogenous and lymphatic spread to target organs—kidneys, bones, meninges, pericardium, liver, GI tract, skin, adrenals—with resultant sx

78
Q

• What is Latent Tuberculosis Infection (LTBI) and Reactivation TB (post-primary)?

A

o LTBI-Most common clinical form, in elderly or debilitated pt, up to 90% of those infx
o Asymptomatic, bacteria are alive but inactive (latent) in walled-off tubercles.
o Reactivation risk greatest in first few yrs after initial infx, in childhood, adolescence, in immunocompromised

79
Q

• What labs and imaging are done for latent TB?

A

o Lab: QuantiFERON-TB Gold or PPD (positive in 80%)
o Imaging: Chest X-ray: on routine chest film may see small tubercle- healed over area
o Pulmonary lesions are often located in the posterior segment of the RUL, apicoposterior segment of the LLL, and apical segments of the Lower Lobes.

80
Q

• What are the 2 types of TB testing?

A
o	PPD (purified protein derivative) skin test—Mantoux test  
o	QuantiFERON-TB Gold QFT-G  (an IGRA—interferon gamma release assay)
81
Q

• How is the PPD test done?

A

o intradermal injection of 0.1 ml tuberculin purified protein derivative PPD
o Test interpreted 48-72 hrs after injection

82
Q

• How is the PPD test interpreted?

A

o based on diameter of induration (palpable, raised, firm swelling)
o >5 mm is considered positive in HIV infected, contact of known TB, hx prev TB, those with organ transplants; those taking immunosuppressant drugs
o >10mm positive in recent immigrants, IV drug user, workers/residents in congregate settings, kids< 4 yo, children with exposure to high risk adults
o >15mm considered positive in any person
o Falsely positive in those who have received the TB vaccine
o Falsely negative in those with sarcoidosis, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, malnutrition
o Clinical evaluation and additional tests (such as a chest radiograph, acid-fast sputum smear, and culture) are needed to differentiate between a diagnosis of active TB or latent TB

83
Q

• What is the QFT-G test?

A

o whole-blood test used in diagnosing Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection, including latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI)
o blood samples are mixed with antigens and controls. After incubation of the blood with antigens, the amount of interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) is measured.
o if the patient is infected with M. tuberculosis, their wbc’s will release IFN-gamma in response to contact with the TB antigens

84
Q

• what are advantages to the QFT-G test?

A

o Requires a single patient visit to draw a blood sample.
o Results can be available within 24 hours.
o Does not boost responses measured by subsequent tests, which can happen with tuberculin skin tests
o Is not subject to reader bias that can occur with skin tests
o Is not affected by prior BCG (bacille Calmette-Guérin) vaccination

85
Q

• What is Multi-drug Resistant TB (MDR-TB)?

A

o Develops in the course of TB treatment, with inappropriate doses or incomplete dosing
o More common in immunocompromised, indigent populations. Mortality rate up to 80%
o Typical first-line anti TB meds (isoniazid, rifampacin) are insufficient to kill 100% of organisms. Tx is using 4 different antibiotics over 18-24 mos

86
Q

• What is the TB vaccine?

A

o bacillus Calmette-Guèrin (BCG)

o Immunity decreases after 10 years

87
Q

• What is the ddx for TB?

A

o pneumonia, lung abscess, pulmonary mycosis, CA, non-TB mycobacterium, histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, silicosis, sarcoidosis

88
Q

• what are the pleural disorders?

A

o Pleurisy
o Pleural effusion
o Pleural empyema
o Pneumothorax

89
Q

• What is pleurisy?

A

o Inflammation of the pleura, may lead to pleural effusion (fluid in pleural space)
o Layers of pleura rub with inhalation, causing sharp pain ie “pleuritic chest pain”

90
Q

• What are etiologies of pleurisy?

A

o infections: bacterial, TB, fungus, parasites, or viruses (most common)
o inhaled chemicals or toxic substances
o collagen vascular diseases: lupus SLE, rheumatoid arthritis RA
o cancers - spread of lung cancer or breast cancer to the pleura
o tumors of the pleura – mesothelioma (from asbestos exposure) or sarcoma
o congestion: heart failure (CHF)
o pulmonary embolism (PE)
o obstruction of lymph channels - as a result of centrally located lung tumors
o trauma - rib fractures or irritation from chest tubes used to drain air or fluid from the pleural cavity in the chest
o drugs that can cause lupus-like syndromes (eg Hydralazine, Procaine, Dilantin)
o abdominal conditions such as pancreatitis, cirrhosis of the liver
o lung infarction: lung tissue death due to lack of oxygen from poor blood supply

91
Q

• what are ssx of pleurisy?

A

o usually sudden onset of pain (vague or sharp stabbing pain)
o pain < coughing, deep breathing—leading to rapid, shallow breathing, holding breath, splinting of chest
o pain may be referred to shoulder or diaphragm
o SOB, painful cough
o may have sore throat
o when there is effusion- pain usu. subsides, increased dyspnea

92
Q

• what is found on PE for pleurisy?

A

o fever if infectious cause, tachycardia
o limited chest motion on that side
o decreased breath sounds
o Pleural friction rub is characteristic, may not hear until 24-48 hrs after onset of pain. (crackles, harsh grating, or leathery creaking on inspiration and expiration)
o Compared to Pericardial friction rub– pathognomonic for pericarditis (rub will be constant, have pt hold breath and the sound will persist)
o With pleural effusion, decreased or absent breath sounds, percussion dullness, decreased tactile fremitus, egophony at upper border of fluid

93
Q

• What labs are done for pleurisy? Imaging?

A

o Lab: CBC, Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
o CXR: may be normal, fluid blunting of costo-phrenic angle if effusion
o Ultrasound can detect the presence of pleural fluid
o CT scan can be very helpful in detecting trapped pockets of pleural fluid

94
Q

• What is ddx for pleurisy?

A

o acute abdomen- N/V, abd. Pain
o intercostal neuritis- no friction rub
o costo-chondritis- hx of trauma?, localized pain, reproducible with palpation
o herpes- if no eruptions yet may be difficult to tell!
o MI- location of pain, concomitant sx, risk history, cardiac enzymes
o pneumothorax- tracheal deviation, R/O by x-ray
o pericarditis- rub with heart beat (constant) instead of breath, precordial pain radiating to neck, shoulders, also < resp, cough, heart sounds are lowered as fluid in sac muffles heart sounds

95
Q

what is pleural effusion? Causes?

A

o excess fluid in pleural space, usu. 10-20 ml is present.
o The normal pleural space contains approximately 1 ml of fluid, balancing
o (1) hydrostatic and oncotic forces in the visceral and parietal pleural vessels and
o (2) lymphatic drainage

96
Q

• What are the 2 pleural effusion classifications?

A

o transudate - from increased microvascular pressure or decreased oncotic pressure
o exudate – local pleural inflammation with increased permeability of pleural space to protein

97
Q

what are the 4 types of pleural fluid?

A

o Lymph: chylothorax
o Pyogenic: empyema
o Blood: hemothorax
o Serous: hydrothorax

98
Q

What are ssx of pleural effusion?

A
o	Dyspnea (most common) related more to distortion of the diaphragm and chest wall during respiration than to hypoxemia. 
o	mild, nonproductive cough, chest pain
99
Q

• what is found on PE for pleural effusion?

A

o do not usually manifest until pleural effusions exceed 300 mL
o decreased breath sounds; dullness to percussion; decreased tactile fremitus
o egophony (E-to-A change) (at top of fluid)
o pleural friction rub with breathing
o mediastinal shift away from the effusion (with effusions >1000 mL)

100
Q

• what labs are done for pleural effusion?

A

o CMP (protein, albumin, LDH)

101
Q

• What is thoracentesis, done for pleural effusions?

A

o Removal of pleural fluid; essential in diagnosing (referral to perform)
o Analysis of fluid color, consistency, and clarity; presence of organisms and/or cancer cells
o Fluid analysis will clarify if it is an “exudate” (high in protein, low in sugar, high in LDH enzyme, and high WBCs; characteristic of a local inflammatory process) or a “transudate” (containing normal levels of these body chemicals, from a systemic problem).

102
Q

• Main causes of exudate vs. transudate? Fluid appearance? Specific gravity? Fluid protein?

A

o Local inflammation; increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased osmotic pressure
o Cloudy; clear
o >1.020; 35 g/L; <25 g/L

103
Q

• What is fluid/serum protein of exudate vs. transudate? Difference of fluid and serum albumin? Fluid/serum LDH?

A

o >0.5; 1.2 g/dL

o >2/3; <2/3(0.6)

104
Q

• What are causes of exudate pleural effusions?

A
o	Lung infections
o	Malignancy (carcinoma, lymphoma, mesothelioma)
o	Pulmonary embolism
o	Collagen vascular (RA, SLE)
o	TB
o	Asbestos
o	Chest trauma
o	Esophageal perforation
o	Radiation pleuritis
o	Sarcoidosis
105
Q

• What are causes of transudate pleural effusions?

A
o	Congestive heart failure CHF
o	Cirrhosis (hepatic hydrothorax)
o	Atelectasis (malignancy, pulmonary embolism)
o	Hypoalbuminemia
o	Nephrotic syndrome
o	Peritoneal dialysis
o	Myxedema
o	Constrictive pericarditis
106
Q

• What is a thoracostomy tube?

A

o Depending on cause/course, a thoracostomy tube “chest tube” is used to drain accumulating fluid

107
Q

• What is etiology of pleural empyema?

A

o infective pneumonia, chest wound, chest surgery, lung abscesses, or a ruptured esophagus.
o infective organism enters pleural cavity either through the bloodstream or other circulatory system, in secretions from lung tissue, or on the surfaces of surgical instruments or objects that cause open chest wounds.
o common organisms: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and S aureus.

108
Q

• What are ssx of pleural empyema?

A

o symptoms of pneumonia: fever, cough, fatigue, SOB, chest pain, bad breath
o In severe cases: may become dehydrated, cough up bloody or greenish-brown sputum, fever as high as 105°F or lapse into coma.

109
Q

• What is pneumothorax? 2 types?

A

o free air or gas in the pleural cavity between the visceral and parietal pleura, entering through a perforation in chest wall from injury or rupture, resulting in collapse of the lung on the affected side.
o spontaneous and traumatic

110
Q

• what is etio of spontaneous and traumatic pneumothorax?

A

o Spontaneous- idiopathic: 2° to emphysema, interstitial lung dz., cystic fibrosis, asthma, abscess, TB, Cancer. Tall, thin people are at increased risk of developing
o Traumatic- chest trauma, lung biopsy, mechanical ventilation (e.g. anesthesia), fluid in sac muffles heart sounds

111
Q

• What are ssx of pneumothorax?

A
  • vary from minimal to severe dyspnea
  • sudden sharp pain (90%), dyspnea (80%), occ. dry, hacking cough at onset
  • may refer pain to shoulder, or abdomen
112
Q

what is found on PE for pneumothorax? Imaging?

A

o decreased vocal fremitus, decreased or NO breath sounds on affected side
o tympany on percussion if a lot of air in pleural space
o tracheal deviation to the opposite side
o CXR: see air between lung and pleura; mediastinal shift

113
Q

• What is the course of pneumothorax?

A

o 50% recur within 2 yr. if not surgically repaired

o idiopathic type low mortality, if underlying dz. 15% death rate