WEEK 7 Group Dynamics, Teamwork & Group Decision-Making Flashcards

1
Q

1) Temporarily organized groups that are formed to achieve particular goals or solve particular problems are
called
A) task forces.
B) work groups.
C) self-managed teams.
D) informal groups.

A

Task forces due to the fact it is temporary

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2
Q

2) According to behavioural scientists,
A) groups have at least five members.
B) group members must interact face-to-face.
C) group members have a common goal and interact with each other.
D) members of larger groups tend to report higher levels of satisfaction.
E) informal groups are shown on organizational charts.

A

(C) because interaction and having a goal as a group is a behavioral definition of group work.

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3
Q

3) As a group size increases
A) members become less inhibited about participating in group activities.
B) the group becomes more socially elaborate.
C) members become more satisfied with group membership.
D) performance on conjunctive tasks improves.
E) the group consistently performs better.

A

(B) As groups memebrs increase, The groups become more social.

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4
Q

4) Identify the proper sequence of group development activities.
A) Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.
B) Norming, forming, storming, performing, adjourning.
C) Storming, forming, norming, performing, adjourning.
D) Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning.
E) Forming, storming, performing, norming, adjourning.

A

(A)

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5
Q

5) During which stage of group development is conflict likely to develop?
A) Performing
B) Forming
C) Norming
D) Adjourning
E) Storming

A

(E) During storming conflict occurs due to sorting our responsibilities and duties

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6
Q

6) Which of the following equations is accurate?
A) Process losses = potential performance + actual performance
B) Potential performance = actual performance + process losses
C) Potential performance = actual performance - process losses
D) Actual performance = potential performance - process losses
E) Process performance = actual performance - process losses

A

(D) The equation is made to calculate the Actual performance= Potential Perf- Process Losesss

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7
Q

7) A group performing a disjunctive task will perform at the level of
A) the relative process loss.
B) its worst member.
C) the average performance of all its members.
D) the member who is most friendly to other members.
E) its best member.

A

(E) In a disjunctive task such as curing cancer, You are only as good as your best member

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8
Q

8) One reason for members reporting less satisfaction in larger groups is
A) people are less inhibited about participating in larger groups.
B) they have more time to develop friendships with other group members.
C) conflict and dissension are less likely in larger groups.
D) opportunities for participation increase in larger groups.
E) individual members can identify less easily with the success of the group.

A

(E) Harder for people to identify themselves in larger groups and go unacknowledged

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9
Q

9) Which of the following is a primary feature of virtual teams?
A) Diversity of members.
B) Small group size.
C) Team member stability.
D) Superordinate goals.
E) Lack of face -to-face contact

A

(E) as it is a virtual meeting They lack FACE TO FACE contact

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10
Q

10) A manager recommends an employee for a promotion because the employee stood up for the manager during a
leadership crisis. Which reward allocation norm led the superior to recommend this employee for promotion?
A) Social responsibility
B) Reciprocity
C) Equity
D) Equality
E) Performance

A

(B) This is the manager helping out the employee for helping him out (Reciprocal Help)

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11
Q

11) On which task is the presence of only one poor performer most likely to damage group performance?
A) Additive
B) Disjunctive
C) Conjunctive
D) Reflexive
E) Complexive

A

(C) Because Conjunctive limits your performance to the poorest member. Tv show with no audio as an example.

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12
Q

13) Which of the following statements is most indicative of a process loss?
A) Carly was clearly the star of the group and they could not have completed the project on time without her
participation.
B) As the task force got bigger, it encountered more coordination problems.
C) Nan experienced role conflict when her boss told her to do something that she felt was unethical.
D) Bill forgot how to program FORTRA N computer language because he hadn’t used it in ten years.
E) Zeke worked harder when his colleagues were present than when he was alone.

A

(B) As task force increases, Coordination gets mixed up leading to process loss

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13
Q

14) The relationship between group size and group __________ is particularly complex and highly contingent upon
the task being performed.
A) member satisfaction
B) cohesiveness
C) performance
D) norms
E) member participation

A

(C) Because the relation is between the size and the performance

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14
Q

15) Which of the following is an example of process loss?
A) The source of the quality problems could have originated in any one of three separate departments.
B) After they failed to land the big contract, the status of the sales staff decreased.
C) Because the group was so large, communication became a problem.
D) After losing the game, the team was much less cohesive.
E) No one in the group could remember how to work the video machine.

A

(C) increase in group causes coordination problem

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15
Q

16) As a group performing an additive task gets bigger
A) potential group productivity decreases.
B) process losses decrease.
C) the average productivity per member decreases.
D) group cohesiveness should increase.
E) the performance of the best member becomes more critical to group success.

A

(C) As additive task is relying on the sum of all performances. The more people the less valued work, lowering productivity

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16
Q

17) Which of the following is an additive task for a group?
A) Looking for a single error in a complicated computer program.
B) Passing water buckets along a human chain.
C) Picking grapes at harvest.
D) Working in a self- managed group.
E) Writing a short story.

A

(C) Picking grapes at harvest, as the sum of all peoples work.

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17
Q

18) Diverse groups tend to develop more __________ than less diverse groups.
A) poorly
B) loyalty norms
C) quickly
D) slowly
E) roles

A

(D) Slowly as there is low similarities

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18
Q

19) Tasks that depend on the performance of the best group member’s performance are
A) disjunctive.
B) conjunctive.
C) complexive.
D) injunctive.
E) reflexive

A

(A) Definition of Answer

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19
Q

20) Which of the following is an example of a process loss?
A) reduced status
B) performance norm
C) loyalty norm
D) social loafing
E) disjunctive task

A

(D) Social Loafing is someone who basically holds back his efforts in groups

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20
Q

21) The group had trouble coordinating its efforts because it was so big. This is an example of
A) a conjunctive task.
B) punctuated equilibrium.
C) a process loss.
D) role ambiguity.
E) social loafing

A

(C) A process loss as it is causing issues to the potential performance

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21
Q

22) In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, a critical point occurs
A) when the group enters the storming stage.
B) toward the end of Phase 2.
C) at the midpoint of the group’s allotted time until deadline.
D) at the midpoint of the volume of work that has to be accomplished.
E) at the middle of Phase 1.

A

(C) Midpoint transition is when groups realize and start to show performance, if not shown they fail

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22
Q

23) In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, the midpoint transition occurs
A) at the beginning of Phase 1.
B) as the group enters the storming stage.
C) at the end of Phase 2.
D) when half the group’s work is done.
E) when half the group’s time is elapsed.

A

(E) Midpoint transition is when groups realize and start to show performance, if not shown they fail`

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23
Q

24) In the stage model of group development, conflict is a particular problem
A) in the stage after norming.
B) in the forming stage.
C) in the stage before norming.
D) in the performing stage.
E) in the adjourning stage.

A

(C) Storming is when problems occur as roles and duties are sorted

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24
Q

25) Lisa is a very religious person whose boss tells her to offer an illegal bribe to a government official to obtain a
lucrative contract. What kind of role conflict is she experiencing?
A) Interrole
B) Intersender
C) Intrasender
D) Person-role
E) Role ambiguity

A

(D) Person role as it is between personality and Job

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25
Q

26) Darlene is a physician who is employed as the director of research for a large drug company. She often worries
that her actions as a manager could possibly violate the physicians’ code of professional conduct. This is most
clearly an example of __________ conflict.
A) intersender
B) interrole
C) intrasender
D) role ambiguity
E) person-role

A

(B) Interrole as The violation of this code could be personal, or professional, or cheating

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26
Q

27) Who is experiencing interrole conflict?
A) The plant manager debated in his mind whether he should open the valve and risk polluting the
environment.
B) Jack is vice- president of sales and marketing.
C) The head of engineering told Jan to do one thing and the head of design told her to do the opposite.
D) Michael’s boss told him to relax as he handed him another report to finish by the end of the day.
E) The straw boss on the construction job was unsure if he was a worker or a supervisor.

A

(E) The Straw boss means a junior supervisor with little authority. His Conflict occurred when not knowing what exact role he is

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27
Q

28) The members of a work group are paid a group bonus according to the productivity of the group. Because of
this, each member expects the other to perform at the highest level. This expectation is an example of which
aspect of group structure?
A) A role
B) A norm
C) Cohesiveness
D) Status
E) A disjunctive task

A

(B) Collective expectations that members of team have regarding the behavior of each other

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28
Q

29) Which of the following statements about norms is true?
A) Norms are generally unrelated to attitudes.
B) Roles are made up of “packages” of norms.
C) Norms cannot be targeted at a specific individual.
D) A person can have his or her own private, personal norm.
E) Norms are not an aspect of group structure.

A

(B) Skill pay, and Pay gap is determined by Norms creating ROLES

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29
Q

30) The workforce petitioned management to be paid on an individual piece rate basis. Which reward allocation
norm do the workers favour?
A) Loyalty
B) Social responsibility
C) Equality
D) Reciprocity
E) Equity

A

(E) Equity means it is fair, Getting paid depending on how skilled you are

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30
Q

31) The boss who constantly changes his mind can cause uncertainty for an employee. To put this another way,
A) role ambiguity can cause interrole conflict.
B) role ambiguity can cause intersender role conflict.
C) intersender role conflict can cause interrole conflict.
D) intrasender role conflict can cause role ambiguity.
E) person-role conflict can cause role ambiguity.

A

(D) Intrasender is someone always changing their minds which leads to role amiguity (Boss not knowing how/what to do)

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31
Q

31) The boss who constantly changes his mind can cause uncertainty for an employee. To put this another way,
A) role ambiguity can cause interrole conflict.
B) role ambiguity can cause intersender role conflict.
C) intersender role conflict can cause interrole conflict.
D) intrasender role conflict can cause role ambiguity.
E) person-role conflict can cause role ambiguity.

A

(D) Intrasender is someone always changing their minds which leads to role ambiguity (Boss not knowing how/what to do)

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32
Q

32) Which aspect of group structure most closely reflects the way members evaluate each other?
A) Roles
B) Diversity
C) Norms
D) Status
E) Size

A

(D) The status reflects the members the most

33
Q

33) Higher status group members __________ than lower status members.
A) have more influence
B) communicate more
C) are addressed more frequently
D) participate more
E) all of the above

A

(E) Acquired more influence and more power

34
Q

34) Which of the following statements about status and communication is true?
A) Most people like to communicate with others at their own status or lower.
B) People can be inhibited from communicating upward if status differences are large.
C) Communication has a tendency to move down the status hierarchy.
D) Lower- status members do more talking.
E) Status has very little relation to communication in organizations.

A

(B) People could feel to little when talking to people with a Large gap in status

35
Q

35) Janice thought that her summer job as a municipal garbage collector would be easy. Unfortunately, her
supervisor tells her to do one thing one day and the exact opposite the next day. Janice’s role ambiguity
A) is inherent in the job she performs.
B) stems from a role sender.
C) is a function of person-role conflict.
D) is a function of intersender role conflict.
E) stems from the social facilitation effect.

A

(B) Her not knowing how/what to do is because of her supervisor (Role Sender)

36
Q

36) Which of the following statements about status is true?
A) All organizations have both formal and informal status systems.
B) In organizations, status symbols are more a part of the informal status system than the formal status
system.
C) In most organizations, formal and informal status systems are equivalent.
D) Most organizations try not to tie status symbols to assigned roles.
E) Informal status in the organization is more likely than formal status to carry over into the community.

A

(A) There are both formal and informal status in organizations

37
Q

37) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Equity norms allocate rewards equally to everyone in the group.
B) People with similar attitudes are less likely to form a group than those with different attitudes.
C) The “class clown” fills an emergent role in his or her school.
D) A group has at least three members.
E) Moving a heavy crate is a disjunctive task.

A

(C) Class Clown is displayed as a role in school

38
Q

38) Positions in a group that have attached to them a set of expected behaviours are called
A) norms.
B) roles.
C) status symbols.
D) conjunctive tasks.
E) attributes.

A

(B) Roles such as doctors and nurses and managers and employees

39
Q

39) Robin is a member of a task force that may do away with her own department. Robin is most obviously
experiencing
A) person-role conflict.
B) intrasender role conflict.
C) interrole conflict.
D) intersender role conflict.
E) role ambiguity.

A

(C) Interrole conflict

40
Q

40) Which of the following types of role conflict is most likely to provoke role ambiguity?
A) Interrole conflict
B) Intrasender role conflict
C) Status-role conflict
D) Intersender role conflict
E) Person-role conflict

A

(B) Intrasender role is changing mind and causing miscommunication

41
Q

41) The first-line supervisor who serves as the interface between “management” and “the workers” is most likely to
experience __________ role conflict when labour relations are poor.
A) intersender
B) boundary
C) status
D) intrasender
E) person-role

A

(A) Intersender is the level of communication from the middle man

42
Q

42) Which of the following factors is most influential in achieving formal organizational status?
A) Assigned role in the organization
B) Nationality and religion
C) Ability to perform disjunctive tasks
D) A ge
E) Loyalty norms

A

(A) Assigned roles is the most influential

43
Q

43) The task force is large, successful, and experiencing moderate threat. Which factor would most likely prevent
the task force from being cohesive?
A) The threat
B) Its tough initiation procedures
C) Its homogeneous makeup
D) Its success
E) Its size

A

(E) the size of the group affects how cohesive the group is

44
Q

45) Which factor is least likely to promote group cohesiveness?
A) Small group size
B) Losing a contest
C) Competing in a contest
D) Experiencing a tough initiation into the group
E) Winning a contest

A

(B) Losing the contest helps assure trust in all teammates that its ok to lose

45
Q

46) Highly cohesive groups tend to be __________ than less cohesive groups.
A) larger
B) more or less productive
C) more conflict-ridden
D) less productive
E) more productive

A

(B) Too much cohesion could either lead to good producitvity or to much distractions

46
Q

47) Which of the following statements concerning group cohesiveness is false?
A) Smaller groups generally have a more difficult time becoming and staying cohesive.
B) Under extreme threat or loss of a contest, group cohesiveness is likely to suffer.
C) Groups that are tough to get into should be more attractive than those that are easy to join.
D) Voluntary turnover from highly cohesive groups should be low.
E) A group becomes more attractive to its members when it has successfully accomplished some important
goal.

A

(A) is false because smaller groups could actually stick to each other more as communication flows freely and is acknowledged

47
Q

48) Organizations that allocate rewards to those who truly need the rewards have adopted a reward system that is
based on a(n) __________ norm.
A) loyalty
B) social responsibility
C) reciprocity
D) equity
E) equality

A

(B) Social Responsibility is rewarding those who are in need for the rewards

48
Q

49) Social loafing is an example of
A) punctuated equilibrium.
B) a disjunctive task
C) role ambiguity.
D) a process loss.
E) role conflict.

A

(D) A process loss as it is a part of the process loss

49
Q

50) Conventional specialized __________ usually disappear when effective self- managed teams are used by
organizations.
A) tasks
B) aspirations
C) roles
D) values
E) norms

A

(C) Self managed teams are teams with no supervision meaning ROLES disappear

50
Q

51) A successful self- managed work team would probably not be
A) high in expertise.
B) high in social skills.
C) performing an interesting task.
D) extremely large.
E) highly cohesive.

A

(D) Extremely Large as to much size could lead to miscommunication

51
Q

52) Which factor is most important in leading to the success of a self- managed work team?
A) Large size
B) An interesting task
C) Great similarity of members
D) Extra pay
E) Great diversity of members

A

(B) Interesting task (Self managed means there is self interest and benefit included)

52
Q

53) Self-managed work groups typically
A) are used only for white-collar work.
B) suffer from the free rider effect.
C) have highly specialized, carefully defined roles within the group.
D) must have stable membership to be effective.
E) perform best when assigned to very routine tasks.

A

(D) A stable membership means they can self manage themselves

53
Q

54) What kind of tasks are most appropriate for self- managed work groups?
A) Conjunctive
B) Blue-collar
C) Complex and challenging
D) Routine and boring
E) White -collar

A

(C) This causes the team to be much more creative and invested, Gives a rush that helps focus, Instead of doing what your boss tells you what to do

54
Q

55) All relevant specialties should be included when designing
A) virtual teams.
B) self-managed teams.
C) cross-functional teams.
D) task forces.
E) any kind of team.

A

(C) When cross functions occur, Specialties will be all over the place.

55
Q

56) The technologies used by virtual teams tend to be
A) asynchronous ones.
B) synchronous ones.
C) chat and groupware.
D) email, faxes, and voice mail.
E) either asynchronous or synchronous ones.

A

(E) Could be independent or set with a group of workers.

56
Q

57) Virtual teams are
A) groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate across time, space, and organizational
boundaries.
B) groups of individuals who are always available when the organization needs to form a team.
C) groups that use technology to accomplish their tasks and communicate with other groups in the
organization.
D) groups of people who have expertise in technology and are always available when needed to complete a
task.
E) groups that exist throughout an organization and include customers and suppliers

A

(A)

57
Q

58) Which of the following is the most accurate statement about virtual teams?
A) Although the were once a dream, it now appears that they will never deliver the benefits that many had
hoped for.
B) Although they were once a dream, they are now being used by a small and select group of companies.
C) Although they still remain a dream, some companies plan to begin using them in the next five to ten years.
D) Although they still remain a dream, some companies are now experimenting with them.
E) Although the were once a dream, they are now spreading and are used by numerous companies.

A

(E) Not a dream anymore they are spreading everywhere

58
Q

59) Which one of the following is not an advantage of virtual teams?
A) Reduced travel time.
B) Trust.
C) Around -the- clock work.
D) Larger talent pool.
E) Reduced cost.

A

(B) Trust, hard to trust someone through a screen

59
Q

60) Research on virtual teams has found that they reduced instances of
A) discrimination.
B) personality conflicts.
C) stereotyping.
D) the formation of cliques.
E) All of the above.

A

(E) All of the above

60
Q

61) A major disadvantage of virtual teams is that they increase
A) personality conflicts.
B) instances of discrimination.
C) miscommunication.
D) stereotyping.
E) the formation of cliques.

A

(C) Miscommunication occurs a lot because it is hard to read other body or sign languages for example

61
Q

62) Work groups that bring people with different functional specialties together to better invent, design, or deliver a
product or service are called
A) virtual teams.
B) task forces.
C) self-managed teams.
D) cross-functional teams.
E) formal teams.

A

(D) Different specialties is cross functional teams

62
Q

63) What does Rubbermaid, Thermos, Ford, and Rolls-Royce have in common?
A) They have all used task forces.
B) They have all used self- managed teams.
C) They have all used virtual teams.
D) They have all had bad experiences with teams.
E) They have all used cross-functional teams.

A

(E) Cross functional teams, Team for wheels, Team for comfort etc….

63
Q

64) Superordinate goals are an important factor that contribute to the effectiveness of
A) informal groups.
B) virtual teams.
C) cohesive groups.
D) cross-functional teams.
E) self-managed teams.

A

(D) Superordinate goals helps combine Cross functional teams to increase effectiveness

64
Q

65) What is the most important function of norms?
A) to provide regularity and predictability of behaviour
B) to prevent social loafing
C) to increase group cohesiveness
D) to prevent intersender role conflict
E) to prevent interrole conflict

A

(A) Norms could be though as Norms= Normal. Such as norms of appearance and norms of rewards. Norms help make predict actions.

65
Q

66) Connie Gersick’s research resulted in which of the following?
A) model of group cohesiveness
B) punctuated equilibrium model
C) typical stages of group development
D) model of factors that influence work group effectiveness
E) model of the role assumption process

A

(B) Connie invented the Phase 1- Midpoint - Phase 2 Model

66
Q

67) What did Connie Gersick study to learn about the development of groups?
A) workers at Federal Express improving billing accuracy and reducing lost packages
B) student groups doing class projects
C) teams at Rubbermaid that invent and design innovative household products
D) a team at Thermos that invented an ecologically friendly electric barbecue grill
E) sales teams at UPS that sell and deliver products and services

A

(B) Students groups doing class projects. Relized the developement of groups from phases to midpoint

67
Q

69) Diverse groups are least likely to perform better when
A) the task is routine
B) the task is creativity - demanding
C) the task is cognitive
D) the task involves proble

A

(A) as the benefit of a diverse group is to increase creativity and thoughts

68
Q

70) What kinds of roles develop in organizations?
A) designated roles and informal roles
B) formal roles and informal roles
C) designated roles and emergent roles
D) assigned roles and informal roles
E) designated roles and assigned roles

A

(C) Desiganted roles such as supervisor and manager and Emergent roles such as “the gossip guy”

69
Q

71) Selma and Sam have just started new jobs at the same company. After one month, Selma has become known by
her coworkers as the new software engineer and Sam has become known as the office gossip. What kind of roles
are these?
A) Selma’s role is assigned and Sam’s role is designated
B) Selma’s role is designated and Sam’s role is assigned
C) Selma’s role is designated and Sam’s role is emergent
D) Selma’s role is designated and Sam’s role is designated
E) Selma’s role is emergent and Sam’s role is emergent

A

(C) Selma’s role is a software engineer meaning she has a designated role while Sam is emergent as he is a gossiper

70
Q

72) What elements can lead to role ambiguity?
A) organizational factors, role senders, focal person
B) organizational factors, individual factors, role senders,
C) organizational factors, individual factors, focal person
D) individual factors, group factors, organizational factors
E) individual factors, role senders, focal person

A

(A) Role senders being slow, Focal person picking and deciding on your behalf and organizational factors

71
Q

73) All of the following are frequent outcomes of role ambiguity except
A) absenteeism
B) dissatisfaction
C) intentions to quit
D) reduced organizational commitment
E) job stress

A

(A) Absenteeism is a individual factor

72
Q

74) Employees who straddle the boundary between the organization and its clients or customers are especially
likely to encounter what form of role conflict?
A) interrole conflict
B) intrasender role conflict
C) intersender role conflict
D) person-role conflict
E) all of the above

A

(C) Intersender role conflict as it reflects being the middle man

73
Q

75) Whistle- blowing is often a signal of what form of role conflict?
A) intrasender role conflict
B) person-role conflict
C) intersender role conflict
D) interrole conflict
E) none of the above

A

(B) whistle blowing means calling something out, Which could be personal and not even related to the job

74
Q

76) The executive team at Levi Strauss & Co. wears examples of its own informal clothing line in order to
A) lower role ambiguity
B) create group cohesiveness
C) lower role conflict
D) communicate dress norms
E) reduce status barriers

A

(E) Reduce status to become more approachable

75
Q

77) What are the two forms of social loafing?
A) the free rider effect and the sucker effect
B) the free rider effect and the loafer effect
C) the free loader effect and the sucker effect
D) the free loader effect and the free rider effect
E) the free rider effect and the solo effect

A

(A)Free rider effect is someone doing nothing and still receiving benefit and also sucker effect is someone who lowers his effort as groups solve

76
Q

78) All of the following are ways to counteract social loafing except
A) establish a superordinate goal
B) increase feelings of indispensability
C) make sure that the work is interesting
D) increase performance feedback
E) make individual performance more visible

A

(A) Social loafing do not care about a goal with cross functions

77
Q

79) What do 3M, Federal Express, Kodak, and General Mills have in common?
A) they make extensive use of cross-functional teams
B) they make extensive use of virtual teams
C) they downplay status barriers
D) they make extensive use of self-managed teams
E) they have strong group norms

A

(D) Extensive use of self managed teams (remember)

78
Q

80) All of the following are common areas of training for self- managed teams except for
A) technical training
B) language skills training
C) business training
D) social skills training
E) quality control training

A

(E) You can train everything and script everything except creativity and quality of decisions