Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VET433B > Week 7 - Dermatology > Flashcards

Week 7 - Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the etiology of a FOOD ALLERGY?

A

-Uncertain, but publications have supported both cell- and antibody-mediated mechanisms

-immunologically-based reaction to food

-In adult dogs, most offending diets fed for >2 years

-theorized that most food allergens are proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is FOOD INTOLERANCE?

A

-adverse reaction to food that does not have
an immunologic basis, including food poisoning (caused by the direct action of a toxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What’s the signalment for CAFR/cutaneous adverse food reaction)?

A

-Age at onset: 4 months to 12.5 years
-Age of onset: 33% of dogs are 1 year of age or less
-Breeds: retrievers, terriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CS of CAFR/cutaneous adverse food reaction? in dogs

A

DOGS
-Pruritus (usually directed at feet or ears)
–Generalized / pododermatitis
–Otitis externa
-Scaling, papules, erythema
-most often manifest as bacterial skin infections
-signs similar to atopic dermatitis

GENERAL
-non-seasonal pruritus which is usually generalized
-GI signs

most common primary dermatologic lesions: -papules
-erythema
-common secondary lesions are epidermal collarettes (usually indicating a pyoderma)
-pyotraumatic dermatitis (‘hot
spots’)
-hyperpigmentation
-seborrhea

-idiopathic onychodystrophy (misshapen,
splitting claws)

-Cocker Spaniels - idiopathic seborrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CS of CAFR/cutaneous adverse food reaction? in cats

A

-Pruritus, alopecia
–face/neck in 40-50%
-Papules, miliary dermatitis (papules with crust)
-Eosinophilic granuloma complex
-Self-induced alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What GI signs can you see with CAFR/cutaneous adverse food reactions? dogs and cats

What other CS are there with CAFR?

A

-Diarrhea, vomiting: concurrent in only 10% of cases
-GI plus pruritus in cats = food allergy
-Mild colitis (dogs)
-Lymphocytic-plasmacytic colitis (cats, cheetahs)

-Neurologic
–Malaise
–epilepsy (dogs)
-Respiratory
–Asthma-like signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Common Food Allergens in North America

A

Dogs
-beef, cow’s milk, chicken, chicken, eggs, corn, soy, wheat
-Most allergic to <3 allergens

Cats
-Fish, milk, milk products, beef

–

Dogs: beef, dairy, wheat, lamb, egg, chicken
Cats: beef, dairy, fish, poultry, rabbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are food antigens?

A
  • Glycoproteins with a molecular weight of 10 - 70 KDaltons
  • Typically attributed to “protein sources”
  • Found in meat, legumes, tubers, grains, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What should you consider when choosing an Elimination Diet?

A

-Diet History! Every patient, every visit

-Ingredients that are NOVEL to this patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should a diet history contain?

A
  • Ingredient lists of all prior diets/treats
    –Supplements/meds (and how given!)
  • Meat or meat by-products: bovine, ovine, porcine, caprine
  • Poultry, meat, fish, animal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are elimination diet options?

A
  • Home-cooked limited ingredient combinations (ensure balanced if long term)
  • Commercial hydrolyzed diets
    -Average molecular weight <10-12 kDaltons
  • Commercial limited/uncommon antigen diets
    -Rabbit, venison, duck, fish, kangaroo, alligator
    -All of these are found OTC!

novel or hydrolyzed approach, homemade or commercial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the goal of elimination diets?

A
  • Goal: limited number of uncommon (and ideally
    known to be novel) ingredients
  • Many OTC diets have an extensive ingredient list (ie they are not limited diets despite the claim!)
    -include more common ingredients
    -More difficult to troubleshoot
  • OTC not ideal for elimination diets or for maintenance of patients with confirmed food allergy
    -i.e. Don’t use for diagnosis or treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are veterinary therapeutic diets?

A

*Veterinary diets are successful for diagnosis
food allergy
-prescription diets

  • No one diet works for every animal!
    –Monitor response
    –Some evidence hydrolyzed diets more effective
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are other sources of antigens?

A
  • Treats
  • Toys
  • Toothpaste
  • Supplements and medications
    –Gelcaps made from gelatin (pork or beef)
    –Flavoring
    –How meds given
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long should an elimination trial last?

A

*Should last at least 8 weeks
->90% dogs and cat with food allergy show complete remission

  • Challenge process
    -Reintroducing the original diet can help confirm food allergy (vs. seasonal atopy that happened to resolve for example)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a diagnosis is confirmed for food allergy via an elimination trial, then:

A
  • Continue to feed test diet, if balanced

OR

*While back on test diet, challenge animal with
most common allergens (that are also present
in individual diet history), 1-2 weeks each – to figure out what they’re actually allergic to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are topicals important?

A

■ Can be sole or adjunctive treatments for numerous skin conditions

■ Relatively cheap (usually) compared to oral medications

■ Direct delivery of a specific ingredient to the skin surface

■ Because owners will ask you “How do you feel about (insert random topical product here)? quite often

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What if oral antibiotics are not an option?

A

■ Some skin infections don’t give you many (or any) systemic antibiotic options
■ Topicals are usually your best option for resistant skin infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the types of topical products?

A

§ Shampoos
§ Conditioners
§ Rinses/dips
§ Wipes
§ Mousses
§ Sprays
§ Powders
§ Lotions
§ Creams
§ Ointments
§ Gels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Shampoos can be used as topical treatments

A

■ Medicated shampoos require minimum contact time of 10 minutes

■ Rinse off with cool water and towel dry

■ During bathing, only wash hair in direction of hair growth

■ Depending on the product and purpose, can be used daily to every other week
– More frequent for treatment of pyoderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Conditioners can be used as topical treatments

A

■ Conditioners contain cationic surfactants > bind to damaged, negatively-charged hair shafts > reduce static electricity, flatten hair shaft cuticles, increase light reflectance, etc.

■ Depending on agents, replaces oils lost by bathing with medicated shampoo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Risnes/dips can be used as topical treatments

A

■ Concentrated solutions or powders mixed with water

■ Poured, sponged or sprayed onto animals - usually for full-body coverage

■ Deliver various agents – usually antiparasitic, antifungal, antibacterial, and/or antipruritic

■ Usually not absorbed well – mainly surface effect

■ Do NOT rinse off after use (as such, “dip” is a better term to use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sprays can be used as topical treatments

A

■ Can be aerosol or pump-based

■ Can carry a variety of different
agents

■ Easy to use – least time consuming

■ Best for focal areas, but can provide
full-body coverage

  • May be alcohol-based – can sting
  • Noise/sensation may frighten pets
  • Not ideal for well-haired areas
  • Do NOT rinse off after use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Powers can be used as topical treatments

A

■ No longer commonly used in veterinary medicine
– Except for a few large animal antiparasitic products

■ Antiseptic powders useful for focal, moist lesions (such as ”hot spots” or acute moist dermatitis)

■ Neo-Predef with tetracaine powder
– Neomycin, isoflupredone, and tetracaine

■ Powders create thick, messy barriers if not removed regularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some ACTIVE INGREDIENTS/AGENTS

A

Antibacterial
Antifungal
Antiparasitic
Keratomodulating (antiseborrheic)
Antipruritic
Anti-inflammatory
Moisturizing
AND MORE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What do antibacterial agents do?

A

-treat pathogenic bacteria

  • Chlorhexidine
  • Benzoyl peroxide
  • Ethyl lactate
  • Mupirocin
  • Silver sulfadiazine
  • Combo antibiotic products
  • Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
  • Povidone-iodine
  • Coal tar
  • Boric acid
  • Acetic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do anti fungal agents do?

A

-Treat pathogenic fungal organisms

  • Imidazoles
  • Nystatin
  • Thiabendazole
  • Terbinafine
  • Selenium sulfide

■ Typically used for Malassezia dermatitis and
dermatophytosis
– Not all agents active against both

■ Some antibacterial agents also have antifungal
properties
– Chlorhexidine, povidone-iodine, silver
sulfadiazine, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do antiparasitics do?

A

-Treat skin parasites

■ Lime Sulfur
■ Amitraz
■ Imidacloprid
■ Selamectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a Keratomodulating Agent?

A

-KERATOLYTIC (remove excess scale (dandruff))
* Decrease cohesion between keratinocytes, increasing desquamation

-KERATOPLASTIC (reduce scale production)
* Decrease mitotic rates of basal keratinocytes, normalizing epidermal turnover rate

-Some keratomodulating agents are “anti-seborrheic”
* Anti-seborrheic agents - “degreasing” by inhibiting/reducing sebum production and clearing glandular ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the epidermal average turnover rate?

A

~21 days

31
Q

What do anti-inflammatory agents do?

A

-reduce inflammation

-usually think steroids, but other agents have anti-inflammatory properties too

  • Higher the potency/concentration/volume/frequency of application of the topical steroid, higher the risk of side effects
  • Side effects can be local or systemic (iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism if excessive percutaneous absorption or ingested)
  • Skin atrophy with prominent dermal vasculature
  • Scaling
  • Alopecia
  • Comedones (blackheads)
  • Milia (whiteheads)
  • Pyoderma
  • Demodicosis
32
Q

What do moisturizing agents do?

A

-Increase epidermal hydration

-moisturizers decrease transepidermal water loss (TEWL) by replenishing intercellular lipids (“mortar”, “cement”) and increasing corneocyte water retention capacity

  • EMOLLIENTS – usually lipid-based
    -improve skin barrier function, cell membrane fluidity, and keratinocyte cell-signaling
  • Examples: ceramides, essential fatty acids, cholesterol, etc.
  • HUMECTANTS – non-oily, hygroscopic agents
    -Bind to corneocytes and attract water (from dermis and/or environment)
    -Examples: glycerin, sorbitol, urea, propylene glycol, lactic acid, amino acids, etc.
33
Q

What do astringent agents do?

A

-They’re drying agents

■ Precipitate proteins on skin surface

■ Decrease exudation by constricting superficial blood vessels

■ Useful in exudative dermatoses

■ Generally do not penetrate deeply

34
Q

What does Chlorhexidine do?

A

Antibacterial, antifungal* (at 3% or greater)

■ Antibacterial at any concentration
■ *Antifungal (anti-yeast) at 3% concentration or greater
– Not effective for dermatophytes as sole topical agent
■ Fast-acting (efficacy within 20-30 seconds) and residual activity (~48 hours)
■ Indications: superficial pyoderma, Malassezia dermatitis
– Often used once daily for treatment, then once to twice weekly for
maintenance
■ 4% or less usually non-irritating
■ Can delay healing of granulation tissue
■ Toxic to the cornea
– Use very dilute products

35
Q

What is Benzoyl Peroxide?

A

-Antibacterial, keratolytic, degreasing

■ Breaks down keratin – unclogs hair follicles and allows better sebum flow

■ May have some residual activity (up to 48 hours)

■ Comes in gel (human products - range from 2.5 - 10%) and shampoo (2.5%)
– Usually applied once to twice daily

36
Q

What is Ethyl Lactate?

A

-antibacterial, astringent

-■ Breaks down to lactic acid and ethanol (both antibacterial)

■ Common veterinary product = BioSeb mousse and shampoo (10% ethyllactate)
– Usually well-tolerated – good option if not tolerating chlorhexidine-based products

– Low residual activity

■ Indications: superficial pyoderma

37
Q

What is sodium hypochlorite/bleach used for?

A

-Antibacterial, antifungal

■ Action is thought to be due to liberation of
hypochlorous acid

■ Bactericidal, fungicidal, sporicidal, & virucidal
– Most commonly used for generalized,
resistant superficial pyoderma (MRSP)

■ Standard bleach products between 5.25% - 8.25% - dilute 1:10 to 1:20 with water
– SPOT-TEST – ensure no severe irritation
prior to soaking the pet

■ Presence of organic debris reduces
antimicrobial activity

■ Shampoos with sodium hypochlorite

38
Q

What is Mupirocin?

A

-topical antibiotic

■ Antibiotic in its own class
– Unique MOA limits cross-resistance with other antibiotics

■ Mostly gram-positive activity
– Very minimal gram-negative activity

■ Excellent for (focal) resistant Staph pyoderma

  • Available as brand-name and generic
    ointment/cream (2%)
  • Great for focal lesions
  • Usually applied twice daily
  • Excellent skin penetration
39
Q

What is Silver sulfadiazine (SSD)?

A

-Antibacterial, antifungal

-■ Sulfa-derived antibiotic with silver
– Damages cell membrane and cell walls

■ Extensive broad-spectrum activity
– Gram+ and gram- bacteria, yeast
– Very useful for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections (0.1 – 1% concentrations)

  • May enhance re-epithelialization, but can inhibit granulation and wound contracture
  • Commonly used for burns and shallow wounds
  • Avoid in dogs with potential sulfa-drug sensitivities
  • Available in skin cream and otic medication
  • Usually applied once to twice daily
40
Q

What are Imidazoles used for?

A

-Antifungal

-■ impair fungal cell membranes

■ Examples: Miconazole, Ketoconazole, Clotrimazole, Climbazole, Posaconazole

■ Synergistic with chlorhexidine

■ Formulated in many otic products, shampoos, mousses, etc.

■ Indications: Dermatophytosis, Malassezia dermatitis

41
Q

What is Lime Sulfur used for?

A

-Antifungal, Antiparasitic, keratolytic, keratoplastic

-DOES NOT treat demoted or fleas

■ Mixture of calcium and sulfur

■ Safe to use in basically any pet

■ Available in rinses/dips

■ Indications: dermatophytosis (most common), but can also be used for most ectoparasites

  • For dermatophytosis:
  • Good option in cat shelters
  • Used every 5-7 days (need to bathe first)
  • Do NOT rinse off after use

CAUTION/CONS:
■ Stains skin, hair, fabric, any porous surface (jewelry, countertops, etc.) YELLOW-GREEN > Wear gloves, take off jewelry, don’t let pet roam

■ Can cause skin irritation and excessive dryness

■ Can cause mucous membrane ulcers
– Avoid the eyes and mouth!
– Prevent grooming post-rinse!

■ Smells terrible – use only in well-ventilated areas

42
Q

What is Tris-EDTA used for?

A

-Antibacterial, antifungal, anti-biofilm

■ De-stabilizes bacterial/yeast cell walls and biofilms by chelating metal ions

■ Alkalinizing (pH ~ 8) – potentiates efficacy of several antibiotics

■ Synergistic with chlorhexidine

  • Inhibits ulcerative bacterial enzymes
  • Considered safe for the middle ear
  • Used as buffer in many ear cleaners, shampoos, sprays, etc.
43
Q

What is Colloidal Oatmeal used for?

A

-Antipruritic, humectant, mildly anti-inflammatory

■ Contains high concentrations of starches and beta-glucan (polysaccharides) > bind to corneocytes and retain water (humectant)

■ Inhibit production of pro-inflammatory cytokines (anti-inflammatory, antioxidant, antipruritic)

■ Present in several veterinary shampoos and sprays

■ Indications: maintenance topical for allergic dermatitis; seborrhea sicca

44
Q

As topicals, what do Essential Fatty Acids and Ceramides do?

A

-Emollients, anti-inflammatory

■ Essential fatty acids (EFAs)
-Improve skin barrier
-Examples: omega-6’s (gamma-linoleic acid, etc.) and omega-3’s (EPA, DHA, etc.)

■ Ceramides – specific form of fatty acids
– Make up 50% of the corneocyte lipid envelope – vital for healthy skin barrier
– Phytosphingosine, ophytrium - most common ceramide in topical products

45
Q

As a topical, what does Salicylic acid do?

A

Keratolytic, keratoplastic, humectant, astringent, bacteriostatic, ceruminolytic

■ Increases ability of corneocytes to absorb water (humectant) while drying out
the skin surface (astringent)

■ Promotes desquamation (keratolytic)

■ Indications: excessive scale
– May be less drying than chlorhexidine

46
Q

What flea has a host preference for a cat?

A

Ctenocephalides felis felis

  • Commonly called Cat Flea
  • The MOST common type of flea in small
    animals
    -92% prevalence in dogs, 97% prevalence in
    cats
  • Found worldwide
  • Can live on a wide range of mammals
47
Q

What flea has host preference for a dog?

A

Ctenocephalides canis

  • Dog Flea
  • Less common in dogs than C. felis
  • May see more C. canis in kenneled working dogs
  • Wide geographic distribution
  • Has a similar life cycle to C. felis
  • Treat the same way you would C. felis
48
Q

ECHIDNOPHAGA GALLINACEA is a flea with a preference for ____

A

POULTRY and DOGS

  • Found most commonly on domestic
    poultry
  • Can also be found on other species
  • Found primarily in tropical regions
  • Female fleas burrow into areas of bare
    skin and attach themselves
49
Q

What’s the life cycle of a flea?

A

Adult
Egg
First stage larva
Second stage larva
Third stage larva
Pupa
Adult

50
Q

Female starts laying eggs within 24 hours of
her first blood meal.

A
  • Can lay 40-50 eggs per day
  • Eggs are not sticky
  • Fall off host into environment
  • Development is dependent on ambient
    temperature & relative humidity
  • Usually hatch within 2-5 days
51
Q

How many larva stages are there?

A
  • 3 stages
  • Molt in between stages
  • Each stage lasts 5-11 days
  • Feed on organic matter, flea feces and dried blood
  • Negatively phototactic, positively geotactic
    –away from light, likes gravity
  • Most likely to be found in carpet, cracks in floor, under baseboards, etc
52
Q

75 adult fleas can ingest ____ml of blood/day

A

1ml

53
Q

What is FAD?

A

flea allergic dermatitis

  • Hypersensitivity to flea saliva, must have flea bite to initiate reaction
  • More hypersensitive animal, fewer bites needed for reaction
  • May not see fleas or flea dirt
  • Important consider as part of allergy management
54
Q

What is Canine FAD?

A
  • Any age, breed can be affected
  • Seasonal or nonseasonal
  • Clinical signs noted on caudal half
  • pruritus, erythema, papules, alopecia
  • May have secondary pyoderma
55
Q

What is Feline FAD?

A
  • Any age, any breed can be affected
  • Seasonal or nonseasonal
  • Clinical signs may be anywhere
  • Especially head & neck
  • Pruritus, erythema, alopecia, plaques,
    miliary dermatitis
  • Cannot distinguish between allergic dermatitis based on location of itch
56
Q

How do you DIAGNOSE fleas?

A
  • History
  • Flea Comb
    -If you find flea dirt, there are adults
    -Collect on paper towel and dampen- turns
    red/brown
  • Location of itch
    -Often focused at tail head
  • Treatment Trial
57
Q

How do you TREAT fleas?

A
  • Control the life cycle!
  • All animals must be on excellent flea
    control
  • May have concurrent food or
    environmental allergies
58
Q

When treating fleas, you can use INSECT GROWTH REGULATORS

A

-FOCUS ON: preventing larvae or pupae from becoming adults

-2 types
–Juvenile Hormone Analog
–Chitin Synthesis Inhibitor

  • Methoprene - Frontline Plus®
  • Pyriproxyfen - Nylar®, Advantage II®,
    Advantix II®, Vectra 3D
  • Lufenuron - Program®/Sentinel®, Novartis
59
Q

When treating fleas, you can use ADULTICIDES

A
  • Kills adults, prevent them from further laying eggs
    –Kill female within 24-48 hours
  • By preventing females from laying eggs, you disrupt the life cycle
60
Q

When treating fleas you can use TOPICAL PRODUCTS

A
  • The more the animal gets wet, the less effective
    any topical
  • Most topicals have about the same speed of kill
  • Avoid pyrethroid/pyrethrin products in felids
    –Toxic - can cause severe neurologic signs & death
    –Ex: permethrin
    –Exception: Flumethrin (ie in Seresto collars)
61
Q

SELAMECTIN+SAROLANER (REVOLUTION PLUS®) – a topical for fleas

A
  • Selamectin activates glutamate gated
    chloride channels
  • Kills flea adults, Otodectes, Sarcoptes
    Notoedres, Cheyletiella, internal parasites,
    some ticks
  • > 8 weeks of age
  • Selamectin alone
  • Safe for rodents, rabbits,
62
Q

FIPRONIL (FRONTLINE ®) – a topical for fleas

A
  • Binds GABA receptors & blocks transfer of chloride ions
  • Uncontrolled stimulation of CNS & death
  • Kills fleas, ticks and lice
  • Frontline Plus also has s-Methoprene
  • > 8 weeks of age
  • Do NOT use in rabbits or hedgehogs
63
Q

IMIDACLOPRID WITH MOXIDECTIN (ADVANTAGE-MULTI®; BAYER) - a topical for fleas

A
  • Binds post synaptic nicotinic receptor-
    blocks impulse transmission
  • Kills fleas, Heartworm, intestinal parasites,
    and Otodectes cynotis (in cats)
  • Canine and feline demodicosis
  • Useful with concurrent CNS disease
  • > 7 weeks of age
  • Don’t use in birds – moxidectin is ok but imidacloprid is toxic in avians
64
Q

FLURALANER (BRAVECTOTM MERCK) - topical for fleas

A
  • Bravecto topical for cats
  • Can also use canine oral
    Bravecto in cats, but must
    change dose
  • Also lasts 3 months as in dogs
  • Well tolerated
  • > 6 months of age
  • Now have Bravecto Plus
65
Q

When treating fleas, you can use ORAL products

A
  • Are quicker to kill fleas
  • Often easier to administer
  • Many should be given with a meal
  • Often flavored
66
Q

Isoxazolines are used as oral products to treat fleas

A
  • Inhibits GABA gated chloride ion channels
    -Blocks pre and post synaptic transfer of ions
  • Results in prolonged hyperexcitation and death of insects and acarines
  • CNS signs have been reported (ataxia, tremors, seizures)
    -Resolve within 24 hours
67
Q

AFOXOLANER (NEXGARDTM MERIAL) is an isoxazoline - used as an oral product to treat fleas

A
  • Oral chewable
  • Kills fleas and ticks
  • Effective (but not yet approved) against Demodex and scabies
  • > 8 weeks of age
  • Soy protein
  • Avoid in animals with a history of seizures
68
Q

FLURALANER (BRAVECTOTM MERCK) is an isoxazoline - used as an oral product to treat fleas

A
  • Oral chewable or topical
  • Kills fleas and ticks
  • Lone Star Tick up to 8 weeks
  • Effective (but not yet approved) against Demodex and scabies
  • > 6 months of age*
  • Hydrolyzed pork
  • Avoid in animals with a history of seizures
69
Q

SAROLANER (SIMPARICATM,ZOETIS) is an isoxazoline - used as an oral product to treat fleas

A
  • Oral chew for fleas and ticks
  • Effective (but not yet approved) against scabies,
    Demodex, and Otodectes cynotis
  • > 6 months
  • Chicken liver flavor
  • Simparica Trio is now available – added heartworm
    preventative
  • Avoid in animals with seizures
  • Revolution Plus for cats now contains sarolaner
70
Q

LOTILANER (CREDELIO®) - is an isoxazoline - used as an oral product to treat fleas

A
  • Oral chewable
  • Kills fleas and ticks
  • Effective (but not yet approved) against Demodex and scabies
  • > 8 weeks of age
  • Pork liver and soy
  • Avoid in animals with a history of seizures
71
Q

SPINOSAD (COMFORTISTM, ELANCO) - an oral product to treat fleas

NOT Isoxazoline

A
  • Activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
  • Once monthly chewable
  • > 8 weeks
  • Pork liver and soy
  • Do not give with daily ivermectin
72
Q

MILBEMYCIN/SPINOSAD (TRIFEXIS®, ELANCO) - an oral product to treat fleas

NOT Isoxazoline

A
  • Milbemycin binds glutamate gated chloride
    channels
  • Kills heartworm, fleas, intestinal worms
  • Once monthly chewable
  • > 8 weeks of age
  • Pork and soy
  • Avoid giving in combination with ivermectin
73
Q

NITENPYRAM (CAPSTARTM) - oral product to treat fleas

A
  • Acts on postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
  • Paralysis, hyperexcitability and death
  • kills adult fleas; 100 % within 6
    hours
  • Can be given orally every 24-72 hours
  • > 4 weeks of age
74
Q

What environmental treatment would you do for fleas?

A
  • Vacuum and throw bag away
  • Avoid steam cleaning carpet or cloth
    -Kills larva but raises humidity for future generations
  • If severe infestation, hire professional exterminators
  • “Flea bombs” are of little benefit
  • By treating the animal, you will help treat the
    environment

VET433B (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions