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Security Information > Week 7 > Flashcards

Week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

How many title statues HIPAA has?

A

5

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2
Q

What is title one?

A

Portability: preventation of discrimination in health care insurance enrollment and premiums. Health insurance coverage and protecting individuals and their dependence from losing coverage when they leave or otherwise change jobs

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3
Q

What is title two?

A

Administrative Simplification: Efforts by HIPAA to standardize the healthcare industry’s capricious and inefficient business practices. Prevention of abuse and healthcare fraud

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4
Q

Are all providers covered entities?

A

No, not all providers are cover. Per definition, a health care provider who transmits any information pertain a certain transaction in electronic form.

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5
Q

Security Rule

A

Defines a facility as the physical premises and the interior and exterior building

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6
Q

Role- Based Access Control

A

Gives access to users based on their roles as member of the organization and users are aligned to a preestablished group with it with certain access priviledge based on the groups need to access the information

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7
Q

Based on the US department of Health and Human Services, how many people are effect by laptop theft resulting to a health information breach?

A

500 or more individuals

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8
Q

True or False: Erasing or deleting a file does not sufficiently remove EPI.

A

True

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9
Q

Encryption

A

scrambles or encodes data, protecting it from being comprehend by unauthorized individuals

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10
Q

Public Key Infrastructure

A

is a more secure method of encryption technology because it use two keys encrypt transmit and send message

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11
Q

Audit Control

A

Requires installation of hardware, software, or manual mechanism to examine and record activity in systems that contain ePHI

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12
Q

Firewall

A

is a buffer between an organization internal trusted network and the internet which is considered an untrusted network

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13
Q

Risk Management

A

Applies to all aspects of an organization’s operational and focuses on identifying, evaluating, and controlling risk that can expose the organization to financial liability,

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14
Q

HIPAA has three primary documents to inform patients and give them control over their PHI

A

Notice of Privacy Practice, Authorization, and Consent

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15
Q

Notice of privacy practices written in________ and explains how a covered entity will use his or her PHI

A

Plain Language

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16
Q

Use and disclosure permitted with authorization

A

Facility Directory
Disclosure of Relevant

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17
Q

Facility Directory

A

If a patient agrees to disclose to those who ask to for the individual by name
Emergencies
Clergy of individual’s religious affiliation may receive list

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18
Q

Disclosure of Relevant PHI

A

To family members, relatives, or close friends involved in individual care or payment
If individual unable to agree or object covered entity may use professional judgment to decide if it is in the individuals best interest

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19
Q

True or False: 16 circumstances where written authorization and verbal agreement or objection are not required

A

True

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20
Q

What are the first 12 of the use and disclosure permitted without authorization is referred as?

A

Public interest and benefit

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21
Q

Public health activities

A

No written authorization is required for disclosure of student immunization records from cover entity

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22
Q

Decedents

A

HIPAA privacy act protection survive as individual’s per HITECH for 50 years after death

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23
Q

Business Associate

A

A person or organization not a part of the cover entity’s workforce, that performs a function or activities on behalf of or affecting a covered entity involving use or disclosure of individual identifies health information

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24
Q

Business Associate Agreement

A

Under HIPAA, as originally written business associates as business associates once they were identify as covered entity business associate through a contracted
- even without a contract
-allows covered entity to lawfully disclose protected health information to business associate

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25
Q

Workforce

A

is any individual working under the covered entity’s direct control regardless of whether they are paid by the covered entity or not

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26
Q

PHI three part test

A

Identify the person
Future present and past
it held or transmitted by a covered entity or its business associate in any form of medium

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27
Q

Limited Dataset

A

is PHI that does not completely de-identified individual but excludes most direct identifiers of the individual and individual’s relative employers or household members

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28
Q

What is covered by HIPAA?

A

Privacy Rule: electronic, oral, written

Security Rule: Electronic only

29
Q

Calling out patient’s name in a physician’s office or hospital visitor walking down the hallway and called a patient’s name is an example of?

A

Incidental uses and disclosures

30
Q

Preemption

A

Federal law trumps state law unless state law is “stronger”. Covered entity mu

31
Q

Can a covered entity deny the request ?

A

Yes, if it determines that PHI or the record either was not available for inspections or is already accurate and complete

32
Q

Individual Amendments

A

it must identify the records in the DRS that are affected by the amendment and append the information or the link to the amendments location

33
Q

Willful neglect

A

intentional failing comply or reckless indifference. Corrected min $10,000 /max $50,00 per violation
Uncorrected: min $50,000/ max $50,000

34
Q

Prior to HIPAA, how was HIPAA violations detected?

A

Solely complaint driven

35
Q

Breach notification

A

the requirements are significant becaise they require both covered entity and business associates to complete breach

36
Q

OCR

A

has discretion to pursue corrective action without assessing penalties for unknowing violations and where reasonable diligence would not have revealed the violation

37
Q

General Concepts of the security rule

A

Flexible, Scalable, technology netural

38
Q

Flexible

A

Any security measures may be used that allows a covered entity to reasonably and appropriately implement the requirement

39
Q

Scalable

A

it is written to accurate and apply yo org of any size

40
Q

Technology neutral

A

it does not require or prescribe technology

41
Q

addressable specification

A

is met if the organization either a determines that the specification is reasonable and appropriate and implements it as written, reasonable and appropriate alternative or document why it is not reasonable and appropriate to implement the specification

42
Q

Designated Record Set

A

In each case, the records are used in whole in part to make decisions about individual

43
Q

Risk analysis framwork has two primary

A

disaster recovery and risk anlysis

44
Q

Risk Anlysis First step

A

systematic characteristeric: focuses on what the organization possess by identifying which information asset needs portection

45
Q

2nd step of risk analysis

A

identfiying threats: focus on threats * humans are the most constant threat to health information intergrity

46
Q

5th step of risk analysis

A

Impacy Analysis: See how great of a threat it may impact the organization

47
Q

Risk Determination

A

quanifies threats enabling to prioritize risk and allocate limited resources like money, people, and time

48
Q

Result Documentation

A

org should be aware of residual risk which are risk that contribute to exit even after the organization has applies safeguards and control
* must retained for 6 years

49
Q

Disaster REcovery Plan

A

Defines resource, action, task and data required to restore critical service quickly to manages business recovery processes after major events

50
Q

Data REcovery

A

effort should be minimal for electronic information as long as thorough and consistent data back up and storage methods or follows

51
Q

Emergency Mode Operation

A

describes the processes and controls that will be followed until operation are fully restored following an event

52
Q

Are PHR portal is about to be edited by patient?

A

patients are able to control and create the content of their own PHR

53
Q

Cyber security

A

activties and process that protects information systems against threats

54
Q

Dangers of Malware

A

Patient safety and confidentiality of patient information

55
Q

Malious Software

A

can be destroyed or disrupt a information system introduced through system vulnerabilities by hackers

56
Q

Zero Day Exploit

A

Sometimes attackers can exploit a software vulernability that software vendor is not yet aware of or has not been able to warn user about

57
Q

Worm

A

is type of virus that does not need human interaction to spread

58
Q

spyware

A

is a malware that is primary designed to attach to the host it has infected. Installed without the computer user’s ,permission in order to collect information about their user and browsing habits

59
Q

Cookies

A

identify the user’s computer to that website and it sort of service as electronic information

60
Q

Session cookies

A

stores information about their user for only the period of the session

61
Q

Persistent cookie

A

remained stored on a computer to allow personal information to be retain

62
Q

Scareware

A

uses ficitious threat to trick users information malware infected

63
Q

Whaling

A

aimed at an executive in an organization

64
Q

Unsecured wireless network

A

when accessed they can introduced malware and it users create accounts using the same email address and password thet use for other services the attackers can than hack into the other services like the user’s bank account

65
Q

Denial of Services

A

Attacker takes control of the device or network with traffic jams

66
Q

Distributes Denial of Services

A

Attacker uses one or more originating computers with vulnerabilities to attack other computers

67
Q

Ransomware

A

Resembles scare ware however the threat is real. The attacker will kidnap information for exchange of money

68
Q

Data backup

A

does not resolve problems that are created when ransomware blocks a computer functionality

69
Q

VPN

A

Virtual private network. Remote workers utilizes VPN because it has secure tunnels

Security Information (1 decks)

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