Week 6 - Optho Flashcards

1
Q

What are the afferent and efferent parts of the PLR?

A

A: CNII
E: CNIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the afferent and efferent parts of the menace response?

A

-remember - NOT a reflex

-A: CNII
-E: CNVII and obicularis oculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the afferent and efferent parts of the Palpebral reflex?

A

A: CNV
E: CNVII and obicularis oculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the Pupillary Light Reflex?

A

A reflex to a bright light stimulus

  • Direct PLR – stimulated eye constricts
  • Consensual PLR – non-stimulated eye constricts
    –Less strong than the direct PLR
    –Domestic animals only (absent in birds)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the tips for PLR?

A

-perform under bring and dim conditions

-false negatives
–high sympathetic tone - STRESS
–iris atrophy - difficult for sphincter to constrict
–posterior synechiae (wont see PLR bc of mechanical reasons)

-will be present at birth
-intact WITH BLINDNESS
-consensual PLR - useful for opaque ocular media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Menace Response?

A
  • A learned response to a threatening gesture - absent at birth
    –Absent in young animals (<3 months in cats & dogs)
    –learned around 3-4 months
  • CNs II, VII, cortex & cerebellum

-CRUDE test of vision

-could better test vision with maze tests, cones, anything on a string for a cat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are tips for a menace response?

A

-check each eye separately
-cover opposite eye while testing
-avoid touching vibrissae or creating air currents
-perform PALPEBRAL reflex immediately prior - increases patient’s awareness

-inconsistent or absent in patients that are:
–stoic
–depressed
–stressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Palpebral & Corneal Reflexes are reflexes following touch of:

A
  • Periocular skin (palpebral)
    –Stimulate both medial & lateral canthi
    –Perform prior to the menace response
  • Cornea (corneal)b- if you suspect trigeminal nerve paralysis
  • CNs V & VII
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neuro-opthalmic functions are (3)

A
  1. Eyelid closure
    *Orbicularis oculi muscle
    * CN VII
  2. Eyelid opening
    * Levator palpebrae superioris
    * CN III
  3. Sensory innervation to cornea & eyelids
    * CN V
  • PLR regulates light entry
  • Eyelid opening and closure
  • Eye motility
  • Protection of the globe
  • Sympathetic innervation:
    –Regulates amount light entering eye
    –Position of the globe
    –Position upper eyelid (Müller’s muscle)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

General signs of neuro-opthalmic dz

A
  • Abnormal pupil size or reactivity
  • Abnormal globe position
  • Abnormal eyelid position (ex. ptosis - eyelid drooping)
    *Inability to close eyelids → Corneal disease
  • Third eyelid protrusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Horner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Compromise of sympathetic innervation to the eye and its related structures

-route involves 3 neurons
1st neuron - starts in midbrain, goes to spinal cord T1-T3
SYNAPSE
2nd neuron - goes back thru mediastinum/chest to tympanic bullae
SYNAPSE in cranial cervical ganglia with trigeminal nerve
3rd neuron - goes to eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

With Horner’s Syndrome, what anatomical structures does it innervate? (what are the Postganglionic sympathetics?)

What are the normal results/sympathetic function of the anatomical structures, in reference to Horner’s syndrome?

A
  • Smooth muscle periorbita
  • Müller’s muscles of eyelids
  • Iris dilator - stimulates
  • Iris sphincter - inhibits
  • Slight protrusion of globe
  • Retraction of third eyelid
  • Opening palpebral fissure
  • Pupil dilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CS of Horner’s Syndrome

A
  • Miosis
  • Ptosis
  • Enophthalmos
  • Protruded third eyelid (result of enopthalmos)

not painful, but could be suspected by owners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What CAUSES Horner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Idiopathic- the #1 “cause”
  • Head, neck, or chest trauma
  • Head, neck or chest neoplasia
  • Chronic otitis media
  • Ear cleaning
  • Retrobulbar disease
  • Metabolic disease
    –Diabetes mellitus
    –Hypothyroidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you DIAGNOSE Horner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Clinical signs
  • Complete physical exam
    –Otic exam
  • Pharmacologic testing
    –Allows localization pre- or post-ganglionic lesion
    –Direct sympathomimetic (1% phenylephrine)
  • Radiography
  • Advanced imaging
  • Blood work
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the idea of denervation hypersensitivity in terms of pharmacological testing for Horner’s Syndome?

A

s-after denervation, there is increased sensitivity of muscle to neurotransmitters – so more receptors are made!

Pharmacologic testing:
* Direct-acting sympathomimetic
–1% Phenylephrine (acts like eps)

  • Post-ganglionic lesion
    –Dilate pupil w/in 20 min
    –dilates quickly bc hypersensitive to the syndrome
  • Pre-ganglionic lesion
    –Dilation takes significantly longer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you TREAT Horner’s Syndrome?

A

-address underlying cause if present
-topical phenyl epinephrine can relieve signs but is short acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the PROGNOSIS Horner’s Syndrome?

A

-depends on underlying cause
-most postganglionic cases resolve in <6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Facial Nerve Paralysis?

A
  • Orbicularis oculi innervated by CN VII
  • Loss of function results in the inability to close the eyelids (obicularis oculi CLOSES the eyelid)
  • Lacrimal nerve runs with CN VII – concurrent decrease in tear production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CS of Facial Nerve Paralysis

A
  • Widened palpebral fissure due to drooping lower lid
  • Increase visible sclera, especially ventrolaterally
  • Drooping of ear and lip
  • Nose “pulled” toward normal side
  • Loss of palpebral and corneal reflexes
  • Inability to blink results in secondary exposure keratitis
  • Ulceration and infection are common
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What CAUSES Facial Nerve Paralysis?

A
  • Idiopathic (Cockers, Boxers)
  • Iatrogenic (surgery to head or neck)
  • Otitis media/interna
  • Neuromuscular disease
  • Intracranial disease (neoplasia)
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Trauma to head or neck (HBC, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do you DIAGNOSE Facial Nerve Paralysis?

A
  • Clinical signs
  • Complete physical exam
  • Otic exam
  • Neurologic exam
  • Radiography
  • Advanced imaging
  • Bloodwork
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do you TREAT Facial Nerve Paralysis? ** watch mediasite

A
  • Address underlying cause if present
  • Exposure keratitis may require:
    –Temporary tarsorrhaphy (EXAM)
    –Frequent lubrication
    –Corneal ulcer management
24
Q

How do you TREAT Facial Nerve Paralysis? ** watch mediasite

A
  • Address underlying cause if present
  • Exposure keratitis may require:
    –Temporary tarsorrhaphy (EXAM)
    –Frequent lubrication
    –Corneal ulcer management
25
Q

What is the Prognosis for Facial Nerve Paralysis?

A
  • Depends on underlying cause
  • Guarded with idiopathic cases (<33% recover)
    –Relapses may occur
26
Q

What is Ophthalmoplegia? WATCH MEDIASITE

A
  • Compromise of CN III innervation

What are the 6 ocular/periocular muscles are innervated by CNIII?

  • Iris sphincter
  • Dorsal rectus
  • Medial rectus
  • Ventral rectus
  • Ventral oblique
  • Levator palpebrae superioris

(Dorsal, medial, vental rectus / Levator palpebrae superioris / Iris sphincter / Ventral oblique)

27
Q

CS for Internal & external ophthalmoplegia

A
  • Visual
  • Mydriasis (internal ophthalmoplegia)
  • Ventrolateral strabismus (external ophthalmoplegia)
  • Ptosis (external ophthalmoplegia)
28
Q

If a dogs R eye is affected with ophthalmoplegia, what would your neuro-optho exam look like?

A
  • Mydriasis OD
  • Negative direct PLR OD, positive consensual OD>OS
    *positive direct OS, negative consensual OS>OD
  • Ventrolateral strabismus, ptosis OD
  • Positive dazzle, menace, and palpebral OU
28
Q

What is Internal ophthalmoplegia? remember – you either have external+internal OR just internal ophthalmoplegia

A
  • CN III parasympathetic fibers located superficially and medially relative to CN III motor fibers → mydriasis with no ptosis or strabismus

Neuro-ophthalmic exam
* Mydriasis OS
* Negative direct PLR OS, positive consensual OS>OD
* Positive direct OD, negative consensual OD>OS
* Positive dazzle, menace, and palpebral OU
NO issues strabismus or ptosis

29
Q

What CAUSES ophthalmoplegia?

A
  • Space occupying lesions in the cavernous sinus or orbital fissure
29
Q

What CAUSES ophthalmoplegia?

A
  • Space occupying lesions in the cavernous sinus or orbital fissure
30
Q

How do you DIAGNOSE ophthalmoplegia? and TREAT ophthalmoplegia?

A
  • Diagnosis
    –Advanced imaging, usually MRI
  • Treatment & prognosis
    –Variable dependent on cause
31
Q

What are 2 avascular ocular tissues?

A

-cornea (epithelium/stroma)
-lens

32
Q

What are some vascular ocular tissues?

A
  1. Adnexa Conjunctiva
  2. Sclera
  3. Uvea (iris, CB, choroid)
    -anterior uvea
    -posterior uvea
  4. Retina
  5. Eyelids
  6. Optic nerve
33
Q

There are two way of thinking about the eye, in terms of drug delivery. What are they?

A
  1. Avascular/Vascular
  2. Front/Back
34
Q

When there is __________ in adjacent structures, the aqueous humor and vitreous humor can benefit from SYSTEMIC DRUGS because ____________

A

-inflammation

-b/c they have access to the leaky Blood Vessels from the inflamed adjacent structures

35
Q

System drugs will reach avascular/vascular structures?

A

VASCULAR

36
Q

Which structures are part of the back half of the eye?

A

-orbit
-posterior uvea
-retina
-optic nerve
-vitreous

37
Q

Systemic/Topical drugs will reach the back half of the eye?

A

SYSTEMIC, topical drugs will never reach the back half of the eye

38
Q

Which structures are part of the front half of the eye?

A

-adnexa
-conjunctiva
-corneal stroma
-aqueous
-anterior uvea

39
Q

Systemic/Topical drugs will reach the front half of the eye?

A

SOME topical

some topical WILL penetrate the epithelium, stroma, and DM/endothelium. other topicals WILL NOT penetrate the epithelium.

40
Q

What are some examples of Parasympatholytics? Will they penetrate or bounce from the surface of the eye?

A

PENETRATE

-Atropine ophthalmic solution/ointment
-Tropicamide ophthalmic solution

Advantages: Mydriasis for diagnostic (tropicamide) or therapeutic (atropine) purposes, cycloplegia, blood-aqueous barrier stabilization

Limitations: Increases IOP, decreases tear production, hypersalivation (cats)

41
Q

What are some Glaucoma drugs? Can they penetrate the surface of the eye?

A

ALL PENETRATE

-Latanoprost
-Dorzolamide
-Timolol

a. Prostaglandin analogues (Latanoprost, travoprost or bimatoprost ophthalmic solutions)
Advantages: Potent IOP reducer, increase uveascleral aq. humor outflow
Limitations: Contraindicated with anterior lens luxation, ineffective in cats, mildly inflammatory, causes intense miosis

b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (Dorzolamide or brinzolamide ophthalmic solutions) - DECREASES aq humor production
Advantages: Useful in cases with concurrent uveitis or anterior lens luxation, effective in cats
Limitations: Less potent than prostaglandin analogues

c. Sympatholytic agents (Timolol or betaxolol ophthalmic solution)
Advantages: Decreases IOP in cats, GLAUCOMA PROPHYLAXIS in dogs, DECREASES aq. humor production
Limitations: Decreases heart rate, less potent than other drugs for glaucoma (dogs), avoid in patients with respiratory or cardiac disease

42
Q

What are some Topical Antibiotics used for the eyes? Do they penetrate the cornea epithelium or no?

A
  1. Triple Antibiotic (BNP) - NO PENETRATION
  2. Aminoglycosides (Tobramycin, Gentamicin) - NO PENETRATION
  3. Tetracycline (Terramycin) - NO PENETRATION
  4. Macrolide (Erythromycin) - NO PENETRATION
  5. Fluoroquinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Ofloxacin) - YES, CAN PENETRATE
  6. Cephalosporin (Cefazolin) - NO PENETRATION
43
Q

What are the pros and cons to Triple Antibiotics?

A

Triple antibiotic combinations (Neomycin-polymixin-bacitracin ophthalmic ointment; Neomycin-polymixin-gramicidin ophthalmic solution)

Advantages: Good choice to prevent infection of UNCOMPLICATED ulcers, wide spectrum of activity, bactericidal

Limitations: Poor corneal penetration, ineffective against Chlamydophila and Mycoplasma spp., rarely associated with anaphylaxis in cats (polymyxin)

44
Q

What are the pros and cons to Aminoglycosides?

A

Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin ophthalmic ointment/solution; Tobramycin ophthalmic solution; Amikacin from parenteral formulation)

Advantages: Bactericidal, good gram-negative spectrum

Limitations: Poor corneal penetration, narrow gram-positive spectrum (not good against gram +)

45
Q

What are the pros and cons to Tetracylines?

A

Tetracyclines (Oxytetracycline-polymixin B ophthalmic ointment)

Advantages: Wide spectrum of activity, bactericidal (polymixin B), effective against Chlamydophila and Mycoplasma spp. in cats

Limitations: Bacteriostatic (oxytetracycline), poor corneal penetration, rarely associated with anaphylaxis in cats (polymyxin b)

46
Q

What are pros and cons to Macrolides?

A

Macrolides (Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment)

Advantages: Good gram-positive spectrum, effective against Chlamydophila and Mycoplasma spp. in cats

Limitations: Poor gram-negative spectrum, poor corneal penetration.

47
Q

What are pros and cons to Fluoroquinolones?

A

Fluoroquinolones (Ofloxacin or moxifloxacin ophthalmic solutions, Ciprofloxacin ophthalmic solution/ointment)

Advantages: Good choice for INFECTED ulcers, bactericidal, wide spectrum of activity, excellent corneal penetration

Limitations: Indiscriminate prophylactic use could lead to resistance

47
Q

What are pros and cons to Cephalosporins?

A

Cephalosporins (Cefazolin from parental formulation)

Advantages: Good gram-positive spectrum

Limitations: Poor gram-negative spectrum, poor corneal penetration, must be formulated by a compounding pharmacy or at the veterinary clinic – IV or IM, no topical

48
Q

What are some Corticosteroids that can be used in the eye? Do they penetrate or no?

A
  1. Hydrocortisone - NO PENETRATION
  2. Dexamethasone - YES, CAN PENETRATE
  3. Prednisolone - YES, CAN PENETRATE

DON’T USE WITH ULCERS

49
Q

What are pros and cons to Hydrocortisone?

A

Neomycin-polymixin-bacitracin-hydrocortisone (Ophthalmic ointment/suspension)

Advantages: May be useful for mild conjunctivitis cases in dogs

Limitations: Poor corneal penetration, delays corneal wound healing and hould be avoided with corneal ulceration or infection, rarely associated with anaphylaxis in cats (polymyxin)

50
Q

What are pros and cons to Dexamethasone?

A

Neomycin-polymixin-dexamethasone (Ophthalmic ointment/suspension)

Advantages: Good corneal penetration, potent anti-inflammatory, decreases corneal vascularization and melanosis

Limitations: Delays corneal wound healing and should be avoided with corneal ulceration or infection, less potent than prednisolone, frequent/long-term administration may disrupt diabetes mellitus management or cause reversible adrenocortical suppression, rarely associated with anaphylaxis in cats

51
Q

What are pros and cons to Prednisolone?

A

Prednisolone acetate (Ophthalmic suspension)

Advantages: Good corneal penetration, potent anti-inflammatory, decreases corneal vascularization and melanosis

Limitations: Delays corneal wound healing and should be avoided with corneal ulceration or infection, more potent than dexamethasone, frequent/long-term administration may disrupt diabetes mellitus management or cause reversible adrenocortical suppression

52
Q

Ointment or drops?

A
  • Client preference
  • Animal preference
  • Cost
  • Availability
  • Wound healing?
  • Contact time
  • Ruptured globes
    –Solutions
  • Presurgical
    –Solutions
  • Atropine (cats)
    –Ointments
53
Q

One drop or two drops?

A
  • Always one drop
  • Least to most viscous (do solutions then ointments)
  • Always leave > 5 mins between drops