Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PFM > Week 6 Lectures > Flashcards

Week 6 Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

summarize characteristics of a dataset
ex) demographic factors (age, sex, race)

A

descriptive statistics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

allow you to test a hypothesis, determine associations, or assess whether data is generalizable to the broader population

A

inferential statistics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2 or more groups being measured
nominal- descriptive, no order ex) sex
ordinal- “ordered”, can give number ex) strongly agree, neutral, strongly disagree

A

categorical variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

can be quantified as a number
continuous- any number is possible btw 2 integers ex) age, weight
interval- degree of difference btw 2 values ex) temperature
discrete- whole integers ex) # of children

A

numerical variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

statistical test calculate ___ ___ - a # describing how much the relationship btw variables in your test differs from the H0

A

test statistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

indicates likelihood (probability) of obtaining a result at least as extreme as that observed in a study by chance alone
significant at 0.05 or less
doesn’t really give us enough info

A

p value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

used to make inferences about population parameters

A

parametric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

data that does not fit a normal or known distribution

A

nonparametric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

used to compare the MEANS of 2 groups
tells you how significant the difference btw the group means are

A

T test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

used to compare differences btw means of 3 or more groups

A

ANOVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

used when you have the same measure that participants were rated on at more than 2 time points
ex) performing training program study, want to measure participants resting HR one month before they start, at midpoint, and one month after the program ends to see if there is significant difference in mean resting HR across the 3 time points

A

repeated measures ANOVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

has 2 independent variables (ex, eye color and BMR category)
main effect: each factors effect considered separately
interaction effect: all factors considered at same time
Have 3 hypotheses
have to calculate an F value for each hypothesis

A

two way ANOVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

used to test whether 2 or more categorical variables are related to each other (binary, nominal, or ordinal)
non-parametric hypothesis test of independence, inferential statistical test
best way to organize data is in a contingency table (2x2)
more accurate for and used for LARGE sample

A

Chi-square (x^2) test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

if the X^2 value is greater than the critical value (found in table/software), then the difference between the observed and expected distributions is:

A

statistically significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

if the X^2 value is less than the critical value (found in table/software), then the difference between the observed and expected distributions is:

A

not statistically significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

similar to X^2 in that it tests for nonrandom association or relationships btw 2 categorical variables
used for SMALL samples
ex) if total n < 20 or if n is btw 20 and 40 and one of the true expected cell frequencies is < or = 5

A

Fisher’s Exact Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

measure of the linear correlation btw 2 variables
denoted by “r”
btw -1 and 1- measure the strength and direction of the relationship btw 2 variables

A

Pearson correlation coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

descriptive statistic, describing the strength and direction of the linear relationship btw 2 quantitative variables
also an inferential statistic so it can be used to test statistical hypotheses– whether there is a significant relationship btw 2 variables

A

Pearson correlation coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

used to describe relationships between variables by fitting a line to observed data
allows you to estimate how a dependent variable changes as the independent variable(s) change
linear- has only one independent variable

A

regression models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

a statistical technique that can be used to analyze the relationship btw a single dependent variable and several independent variable
can be linear or non linear
use when you want to know how strong relationship is btw 2 or more independent variables and one dependent variable (ex) how rainfall and temperature affect crop yield)

A

multiple regression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

kind of t-test, groups come from same population (ex before and after treatment)

A

paired t-test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

kind of t-test, groups come from 2 different populations

A

two sample t-test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

kind of t-test, group is compared against a standard value

A

one sample t-test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

kind of t-test, assesses whether one population mean is greater or less than the other

A

one tailed t-test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

kind of t-test, assesses whether the groups are different from each other

A

two tailed t-test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

M agonism (mushroom poison muscarine) used for Dx of asthma (bronchoconstriction)

A

METHACHOLINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

M agonism (mushroom poison muscarine) used for ileus, atonic bladder

A

BETHANECHOL

(Bethany, Call M3 to activate your bladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

M agonism (mushroom poison muscarine) used for glaucoma

A

CARBACHOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

M agonism (mushroom poison muscarine) used for xerostomia in Sjogren (dry eyes and mouth)

A

PILOCARPINE

(let Me activate those tears on your Pil-low”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

depolarizing paralytic agent in surgery that acts on Nm receptor, desensitize nACHR (Nn and Nm)

A

SUCCINYLCHOLINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

AChE inhibitor increases ACh and is a Dx for myotonia gravis

A

EDPROPHONIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

AChE inhibitor increases ACh , myasthenia gravis and nerve gas prophylaxis

A

PYRIDOSTIGMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

AChE inhibitor increases ACh and crosses BBB, glaucoma, Atropine toxicity

A

PHYSOSTIGMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

AChE inhibitor increases ACh, Ileus, Dx and Rx for myotonia gravis

A

NEOSTIGMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

AChE inhibitor increases ACh and is used for Alzheimers (4)

A

TACRINE, DONEPEZIL, RIVASTIGMINE, GALANTAMINE

Don Riva forgot her ACh at the Gala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

nerve gases and organophosphates inactivate AChE by serine phosphorylation and produce cholinergic crisis, dephosphorylation and regeneration of enzyme done by:

A

PRALIDOXIME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

within 2 hours, a phosphoester bond undergoes cleavage generating an ____ ___ that resists hydrolytic regeneration leading to irreversible AChE inhibition (nerve gases and organophosphate)

A

anionic (charged) phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Atropine (M antagonist) and _____ (enzyme regenerator) is used to treat nerve gas and organophosphate poisoning

A

PRALIDOXIME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

given to soldiers prophylactically during the days of expected exposure to nerve gases, controlled dose, that temporarily blocks half AChE so nerve gases don’t have access

A

PYRIDOSTIGMINE or PHYSOSTIGMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

M Block drug, mushroom poisoning, dilate eyes for exam, surgery, reduce saliva and bronchial mucus, prevent bradycardia

A

ATROPINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

M Block drug, motion sickness, antiemetic, prevent bradycardia in surgery

A

SCOPOLAMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

M Block drug, antihistamine and anticholinergic

A

DIPHENHYDRAMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

M Block drug, for asthma (2)

A

IPRATROPIUM
TITOTROPIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

M Block drug, overactive bladder (2)

A

OXYBUTYNIN
PROPANTHELIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

M Block drug, Parkinson rigidity and splasticity (3)

A

BENZTROPINE MESYLATE
TRIHEXPHENIDYL
PROCYCLIDINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Blocks Na+/Choline cotransporter

A

HEMICHOLINIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Nm blockers/antagonist (5)

A

D-TUBOCURARINE
CISTRACURIUM
PANCURONIUM
VECURONILUM
MIVACURIUM (short acting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

blocks V-type H+ ATPase

A

VESAMICOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

____ toxin degrades SNAP-25 and Syntaxin

A

Botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

VGCC Antibody=

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

____ toxin degrades Synaptobrevin preventing GABA release in spinal cord

A

Tenatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Nn block

A

HEXAMETHONIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Nn block , antihypertensive in aortic disection

A

TRIMETHAPHAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Nn block , antihypertensive in aortic dissection, Tourette (ticks) syndrome)

A

MECAMYLAMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

a1 vasoconstriction (strong effect), a2 dec sympathetic outflow, B1 inc ionotropy (heart contraction), B2 vasodilation and bronchodilation, D1 vasodilation (kidney)
anaphylactic shock, asystole, asthma, adjunct to local anesthesia

A

EPINEPHRINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

a1 vasoconstriction (strong effect), a2 dec sympathetic outflow, B1 inc ionotropy low (heart contraction), septic shock

A

NOREPINEPHRINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

a1 vasoconstriction (high dose), B1 inc ionotropy (med dose), D1 vasodilation (kidney) low dose
septic shock

A

DOPAMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

a1 vasoconstriction (high dose)
nasal congestion, to dilate pupils, hypotension in OR

A

PHENYLEPHRINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

a2 dec sympathetic outflow (high dose (2))
hypertension, opioid withdrawal
hypertension in pregnancy

A

CLONIDINE
A-METHYLDOPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

B1 inc ionotropy (high dose)
septic shock

A

DOBUTAMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

B1 inc ionotropy (high dose) and B2 vasodilation and bronchodilation (high dose)
refractory, Torsades de Pointes

A

ISOPROTERENOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

a1 adrenergic blockers, 1) pheochromocytoma preop AND 2) pheochromocytoma preop, reverse epinephrine induced vasoconstriction in end artery supplied organs

A

1) PHENOXYBENZAMINE
2) PHENTOLAMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

a1 adrenergic blockers, for BPH (4)

A

PRAZOCIN
DOXAZOCIN
TERAZOCIN
TAMSULOSIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

a2 blocker for erectile dysfunction

A

YOHIMBINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

B1 blocker (5)

A

ATENOLOL
METOPROLOL (HTN, angina, CHF)
ESMOLOL
NEBIVOLOL
BETAXOLOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

B1 blocker and a1 blocker (2)
HTN in pregnancy, HTN emergency
HTN + CHF

A

LABETALOL
CARVEDILOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

B1 and B2 blocker (4)

A

PROPRANOLOL
PINDOLOL
TIMOLOL
SOTALOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

reasons for poisoning for less than 6 years and 6-12 years

A

unintentional- general

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

reasons for poisoning for teens, adults, and all ages

A

intentional- suspected suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

types of poison for adults

A

analesics, sedative/hypotonics/antipsychotics, antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

types of poisons for adults

A

analgesics, sedative/hypotonic/antipsychotics, antidepressants

72
Q

types of poisons for children

A

cosmetic and personal care products, cleaning substances, analgesics

73
Q

most people who die from poisoning are ____, and most deaths are ____ rather than accidental

A

adults
intentional

74
Q

leading cause of accidental poisoning related deaths

A

drugs

75
Q

accounts for 20% of adult poisonings

A

drug abuse

76
Q

children younger than 6 year old account for ____ poisoning incidents, but only small fraction of deaths

A

most

77
Q

children btw 1-2 year old have the highest incidence of ____ poisoning

A

accidental

78
Q

___ and ____ are the leading cause of pediatric accidental poisoning fatalities

A

iron and pesticides

79
Q

mode of toxicity, incidence and severity are dose-dependent ex) nifedipine-induced hypotension; antipsychotic- induced tardive dyskinesia

A

pharmacologic toxicity

80
Q

mode of toxicity, incidence and severity are dose-dependent ex) acetaminophen

A

pathologic toxicity

81
Q

mode of toxicity, incidence and severity are dose-dependent ex) ionizing radiation; anti neoplastic agents

A

genotoxicity

82
Q

mode of toxicity, incidence and severity are dose-dependent, inhibition or induction of CYP dependent drug metabolism

A

drug-drug interactions

83
Q

mode of toxicity, incidence and severity are dose-dependent, abnormal reactivity to a chemical peculiar to a given individual

A

Idiosyncratic drug reactions

84
Q

what are the 3 cell death pathways
cell death is the final common effect of many toxins

A

apoptosis
necrosis
autophagy associated cell death

85
Q

monitor viral signs as a function of time, obtain a history, perform a toxicological oriented patient exam

A

poison management

86
Q

general approach to diagnosis and management of the poisoned patient

A

ABCs and Altered Mental Status
Airway
Breathing
Circulation

87
Q

a constellation of clinical signs that may suggest a particular type of ingestion
may indicate what type of dugs a patient has taken if they are unwilling to tell you

A

toxidromes

88
Q

anticholinergic, cholinergic, sympathomimetic, sedative, hallucinogens, serotonergic are the most commonly seen

A

toxidromes

89
Q

cocaine and amphetamine, agitation, increase HR, BP, T and puplil size, also tremor and diaphoresis

A

sympathomimetic

90
Q

diphenhydramine and Belladonna atropa, delirium, Increase HR, BP, T, pupil size, also ileus and flushing

A

anticholinergic

91
Q

organophosphates, coma/somnolence, Increased RR and Decreased pupil size, other SLUDGE, fasciculation

A

cholinergic

92
Q

heroin and oxycodone, coma/somnolence, Decreased HR, RR, and pupil size

A

opioid

93
Q

Benzodiazepines and Barbiturates, coma/somnolence, Decreased HR and RR

A

sedative hypnotic

94
Q

aspirin, confusion, Increased HR, RR, T, also diaphoresis and vomiting

A

salicylate

95
Q

Verapamil, Decreased HR and BP

A

Ca2+ channel blocker

96
Q

commonly used OTC drug toxicity

A

acetaminophen
aspirin

97
Q

when combined with another drug, such as diphenhydramine, codeine, hydrocodone, oxycodone, dextromethorphan, or propoxyphene, the more dramatic acute symptoms caused by the other drug may make the mild and nonspecific symptoms of early ____ toxicity, resulting in a missed diagnosis or delayed antidotal treatment

A

acetaminophen

98
Q

exposure: OTC medication, accidental, suicidal, acute or chronic
mechanism: GSH depletion, ROS damage
presentation: anorexia, nausea, vomiting, liver injury, renal failure
diagnosis/treatment: exposure history, specific levels, prolonged PT/INR, treat- NAC

A

acetaminophen toxicity

99
Q

exposure: OTC meds, accidental, suicidal, acute or chronic
mechanism: CNS resp stimulation, oxidative phosphorylation uncoupling, (-) glucose, FA metabolism
presentation: tinnitus, hyperpnea, vomiting, lethargy, initial respiratory alkalosis, followed by metabolic acidosis, coma, seizure, hypoglycemia, hyperthermia, pulmonary edema
diagnosis/treatment: exposure history, characteristics ABGs, specific levels, electrolytes, vital function support, bicarb for metabolic acidosis, enhanced elimination

A

salicylate toxicity

100
Q

exposure: vitamins, esp prenatal
mechanism: enhanced ROS stress, direct corrosive effect
presentation: time-dependent evolution, abdominal pain, vomiting, GI mucosal necrosis and hemorrhage, lactic acidosis and MOSF, long term GI disease
Dx/Tx: exposure history, clinical presentation, serum iron and ferritin, abdominal radiography, emergency and supportive measures, deferoxamine

A

iron toxicity

101
Q

exposure: paint, occupational, usually subacute or chronic
mechanism: binding to SH group (-) multiple Zn and Ca dependent enzymes
presentation: multisystem, hypochromic microcytic anemia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, hematemesis, chronic encephalopathy, peripheral neuropathy
diagnosis/treatment: exposure history, blood lead level, removal from environment, emergency and supportive measures, EDTA, dimercaprol

A

lead toxicity

102
Q

contain 2 or more electronegative groups that form stable coordinate covalent complexes with cationic metals that can be excreted from the body, contain functional groups such as -OH, -SH, and -NH which compete for metal binding with similar groups on cell proteins
can bind with metals essential for normal body fn
types: EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, pencillamine, deferoxamine

A

metal chelating agents

103
Q

exposure: intention ingestion, alcoholic, children
mechanism: metabolism to acidic glycol intermediates causes anion gap metabolic acidosis, oxalate crystal deposition
presentation: ethanol like intoxication, gastritis, vomiting, anion gap acidosis, MOSF, delayed neurologic sequelae
Dx/Tx: exposure history, urine oxalate crystals, electrolytes, renal and liver function, ECG, emergency and supportive measures, remove from exposure, decontaminate, activated charcoal hemodialysis

A

ethylene glycol

104
Q

exposure: ingestion, occupational, solvents, etc, Et-OH substitute by alcoholics
mechanism: metabolized by ADH to formic acid, systemic acidosis, optic nerve toxin
presentation: inebriation, gastritis, delayed anion gap acidosis, impaired vision, blindness, MOSF
Dx/Tx: exposure history, anion gap (normal lactate), osmol gap, serum methanol, formate, electrolytes, renal and liver, ABGs, ECG, emergency and supportive measures, fomepizole or Et-OH, Leucovorin or folic acid, decontamination, enhanced elim

A

methanol toxicity

105
Q

exposure: accidental, suicidal, acute or chronic
mechanism: (-) mRNA synthesis in metabolically active tissue
presentation: mild-moderate gastroenteritis, vomiting, cramps, diarrhea, volume depletion, hypotension, ARF, liver disease, MOSF, DIC, convulsions
Dx/Tx: exposure history, anatoxin levels, electrolytes, renal function, PT/INR< emergency and supportive measures, activated charcoal

A

mushroom (anatoxin)

106
Q

enter via inhalation and are either absorbed into lungs (gasses) or eliminated by lungs
2 types: reducing types (sulfuroxides) or oxidizing types (NO, hydrocarbons, and photochemical oxidants)

A

air pollutants/inhaled toxins

107
Q

colorless, odorless, non irritating gas produced from the incomplete combustion of organic matter, competes for and combines with the oxygen binding site of hemoglobin to form CO-Hb, also binds to cellular respiratory cytochrome, concentrations of 0.1% in air will result in 50% carboxyhemoglobinemia

A

carbon monoxide (CO)

108
Q

> 15% CO-Hb —> progressive hypoxia
toxidrome: headache, vomiting, syncope, seizures, coma
chronic, low level exposure can be harmful to the cardiovascular system and to a developing fetus

A

carbon monoxide (CO)

109
Q

an irritating, naturally occurring, bluish gas, found in high levels of polluted air and around high voltage electrical equipment
formed from a complex series of chemical reaction involving NO2, UV light and generation of O2
causes free radical-dependent airways inflammation, and if severe, degeneration of alveolar type I cells with alveolar-capillary membrane rupture

A

ozone (O3)

110
Q

anticoagulant used in human, is also one of the most widely employed rodenticides
antagonizes actions of vitamin K thereby inducing bleeding and hemorrhagic conditions
treatment: administer phytonadione (vitamin Kq)

A

warfarin

111
Q

___ should be initiated within 1 hr of poisoning ONLY when you can do it safely. Cannot do if corrosives have been ingested, petroleum distillates have been ingested, if patient is comatose or delirious, stimulants have been ingested

A

emesis (vomiting)

112
Q

what 2 ways can you reduce drug absorption

A

emesis
gastric lavage

113
Q

what are 2 approaches to gastric decontamination

A

activated charcoal
cathartics

114
Q

what 2 approaches are used for promotion of toxin elimination

A

chemical enhancement of urinary excretion (bicarb)
hemodialysis (severe poisoning)

115
Q

what 2 drugs are inhibitors of mast cell granulation

A

CROMOLYN SODIUM
NEDOCROMIL

116
Q

sedative first generation H1-antihistamine also used for anti-motion sickness activity (2), can readily cross BBB because neutral at pH 7.4

A

DIMENHYDRINATE (Dramamine)
DIPHENHYDRAMINE (Benadryl)

117
Q

second generation antihistamine with minimal sedation; do not cross BBB because ionized at pH 7.4

A

CETIRIZINE (Zyrtec)

118
Q

What kinds of drugs penetrate the BBB because they are neutral and readily cross? Name the 3 kinds and an example

A

first generation H1
classic antihistamine (DIPHENHYDRAMMINE)
tricyclic antidepressant (AMITRIPTYLINE)
first generation antipsychotic drug (CHLORPROMAZINE)

119
Q

these drugs are ionized at ph 7.4 and do not cross the BBB. The difference in BBB penetration explains the more sedative effects of the ___ ____ H1 antihistamine

A

second generation
first generation

120
Q

antihistamine drug (H1) smooth muscle endothelium, Gq Inc IP3, DAG –> Inc Ca2+ and PKC

A

MEPYRAMINE
CETIRIZINE

121
Q

antihistamine drug (H2) gastric mucosa, cardiac, mast cells, brain, Gs inc cAMP

A

CIMETHIDINE
RANTIDINE

122
Q

ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension

A

LISINOPRIL

123
Q

because ACE degrades bradykinin, antihypertensive therapy with ACE inhibitors may lead to accumulation of bradykinin in tissues and manifest clinically as what?

A

angioedema or dry cough

124
Q

increase of NO in septic shock leads to what

A

vasodilation

125
Q

NO donors in angina (chest pain due to reduced blood flow to heart)

A

NITROGLYCERINE
ISOSORBIDE DINITRATE

126
Q

NO donors in hypersensitive emergencies

A

SODIUM NITROPRUSSIDE

127
Q

NO in erectile dysunction. PDE5 inhibitor increases cGMP in corpora cavernosa

A

SILDENAFIL

128
Q

due to failure of baroreceptor reflex
dizziness, syncope, temporary decrease in vision or hearing upon standing with/during
-awakening in morning, postprandial period, ambient warming, exercise

A

orthostatic hypotension

129
Q

medication to increase blood pressure for orthostatic hypotension rx
a-1 agonist for capacitance vessels

A

MIDODRINE

130
Q

medication to increase blood pressure for orthostatic hypotension rx
synthetic precursor of NE

A

DROXIDOPA

131
Q

early symptoms include: impotence, overactive or atonic bladder, cold feet, GI constipation, dry irritated eye, anhidrosis, Orthostatic hypotension

A

autonomic disorders

132
Q

most disabling autonomic disorder, caused by dysfunction of the ANS = neurogenic

A

Orthostatic Hypotension

133
Q

brain autonomic disorder
autonomic failure (Orthostatic Hypotension or neurogenic bladder) + Parkinsonism (MSA-p- more common) or cerebellar syndrome

A

Multiple System Atrophy

134
Q

peripheral autonomic neuropathy, demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy due to antiganglioside antibodies

A

Guillain Barre syndrome

135
Q

consists of triad of ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and areflexia

A

Miller Fisher syndrome

136
Q

a 65 year old man was brought to the ED after suffering crushing substernal pain for the past hour. Vital sign on admission were T 36.7, BP 88/50, pulse 115 bpm, RR 30/min, SpO2 92% in room air. A diagnosis of cardiogenic shock due to myocardial infarction was made and antishock therapy was started with an IV drug. Which drug was given?

A

Dobutamine

137
Q

cardiomyocyte contraction done by what receptor

A

B1 (Gs)

138
Q

muscarinic ACh ____ receptor in SA node slows done heart rate (bradycardia )

A

M2

139
Q

naturally produces bradycardia

A

acetylcholine

140
Q

M BLOCKER, produces tachycardia (inc HR),
Rx of bradyarrhythmiaia

A

ATROPINE

141
Q

adrenergic receptor ____ in SA, AV node and in myocardium accelerated HR (tachycardia), Inc conduction velocity, enhances myocardial contraction

A

B1

142
Q

two natural B1 agonist (inc HR)

A

norepinephrine and epinephrine

143
Q

B1 agonist
Rx of cardiogenic shock

A

DOBUTAMINE

144
Q

B1 blocker
Rx of tachyarrhythmia, CHF

A

METOPROLOL

145
Q

agonist for a1, a2, B1
vasoconstriction by a1 without antagonism from B2

A

norepinephrine

146
Q

agonist for a1,a2, b1, b2, b3
vasodilation by B2 overrides its a1 action

A

epinephrine

147
Q

there is NO parasympathetic innervation of ___, but ACh in plasma can produce vasodilation via M3 (Gq) agonism on EC and release NO

A

Vascular SMC

148
Q

35 year old man comes to the office for a routine health maintenance examination. The patient has a 5 year history of bronchial asthma, for which he uses ALBUTEROL inhaler during the day an average of twice a week. In addition, his asthma wakes him up from sleeping approximately 3-4 times per month. The patient is allergic to dust mites and ragweed, but has no other medical issues and takes no other medications. He dos not use tobacco, alcohol, or recreational drugs. His family history is significant for asthma in his grandfather. Vital signs are normal. Lung auscultation indicates normal breath sounds without wheezing. Heart sounds are normal. What is the mechanism of action of this inhaled drug.

A

increased cAMP?

149
Q

a 30 year old woman is administered IV CEFTRIAXONE for pneumonia. A few minutes later, she develops dyspnea, urticaria (hives) on her chest and back, and angioedema of her throat. Her skin is war. Her BP is 80/60 mm Hg. IV infusion is started and EPINEPHRINE is administered. The therapeutic effect of the drug was mediated by which of the following pair of receptors?

A

a1 and B2
a1agonism (vasoconstriction- skin, splanchnic)
B2 agonism (bronchodilation)

150
Q

why is epinephrine effective for anaphylactic shock but norepinephrine is not

A

Epi- a1 agonist (Gq) = vasoconstriction
b2 agonist (Ga) = bronchodilation
NOR DOES NOT HAVE B2 AGONIST

151
Q

B2 agonist dilates bronchi in asthma

A

ALBUTEROL

152
Q

B2 agonism dilates bronchi in anaphylaxis

A

EPINEPHRINE

153
Q

M blocker dilates bronchi in asthma

A

IPRATOPIUM

154
Q

D1 agonist made in CNS and proximal tubule cells
local diuretic and natriuretic

A

DOPAMINE

155
Q

D1 agonist indication: HTN emergency

A

FENOLDOPAM

156
Q

D2 agonist, indication : CHF, sepsis, shock

A

DOPEXAMINE

157
Q

central a2 agonist –> ___ sympathetic outflow from LC
agonists: CLONDINE, A-METHYLDOPA, DEXMEDETOMIDINE, TIZANIDINE

A

decrease

158
Q

a 35-year-old farmer was brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal cramps and vomiting. He reported that he was working in a field with an organophosphate pesticide. Physical exams reveal salvation, decreased blood pressure, difficulty breathing, miosis, diarrhea, sweating, bradycardia, and urinary urgency. Activation of which of the following receptors is mediated the eye symptom in patient?

A

M3

159
Q

what receptor is predominate in miosis (constrict pupil)

A

M3

160
Q

what receptor is predominate in mydriasis (dilate pupil)

A

a1

161
Q

what receptor facilitates skeletal muscle movement for eyeball

A

Nm

162
Q

A 60-year-old man presents to the family physician with one-month history of urinary frequency, urgency, and histation. Vital signs and physical examinations are unremarkable. Digital rectal examination reveals an enlarged prostate with a rubbery consistency. Drug with which of the following mechanisms of action is appropriate for the patient?

A

a1 antagonist

163
Q

M agonist for atonic bladder (cannot urinate)

A

BETHANECHOL

164
Q

M blockers for overactive bladder

A

OXYBUTYNIN
PROPANTHELIN

165
Q

a1 blockers for BPH
SE: Orthostatic hypotension

A

PRAZOCIN
DOXAZOCIN
TERAZOCIN

166
Q

a1 blockers for BPH
SE: Orthostatic hypotension

A

PRAZOCIN
DOXAZOCIN
TERAZOCIN

167
Q

B3 agonists for overactive bladder

A

MIRABEGRON

168
Q

A 34-year-old man comes to family physician with a lack of erection. A postage stamp test is positive for the presence of nocturnal tumescence. SILDENAFIL is prescribed. Which of the following is MoA for drug?

A

increased cGMP

169
Q

what neuron is NO mediated and is parasympathetic for erection

A

NANC

170
Q

what receptor is involved in sympathetic mediated ejaculation and detumescence

A

a1

171
Q

what drug is used for erectile dysfunction that inhibits PDE5 and degrades GMP so there is an increase in cGMP

A

SILDENAFIL

172
Q

Usually seen in children , Hypokalemic manifests later in life (before age 40), Demographic of thyroidism (Asian)
Muscle strength test (out of 5)
5/5 full strength (normal)
4/5 force against resistance less than full strength
3/5 moves against gravity but not against resistance
2/5 moves from side to side but not against gravity
1/5 minimal movement
0/5 no movement
Reflex testing
4+ hyperrflexia + clonus
3+ hyperreflexia
2+ normal
1 + hyporeflexia
0 Areflexia

A

hyperthyroid hypokalemic periodic paralysis

173
Q

increases tissue responsiveness to adrenergic stimulation by increasing the abundance of B-adrenergic receptors

A

Thyroid hormones

174
Q

overactivity may cause hypokalemia by increasing epi action (inc B receptors) or synergizing insulin action (insulin goes up after a carb meal)

A

thyroid hormone

175
Q

toxin inactivates Syntaxin and SNAP 25

A

Botulism

176
Q

antibodies against Nm receptors (muscle weakness)

A

Myasthenia gravis

PFM (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions