Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the normal renal blood flow?

A

~ 1000 to 1200 mL/min, or 20% to 25% of the cardiac output

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2
Q

What is GFR?

A

Filtration of plasma per unit of time, directly related to the perfusion pressure of renal blood flow

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3
Q

What regulates renal blood flow?

A

Sympathetic noradrenergic nerves that regulate vasoconstriction

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4
Q

What is the role of renin in renal function?

A

Secreted from juxtaglomerular cells, converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor

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5
Q

What do natriuretic peptides do?

A

Antagonize the RAAS and promote sodium chloride and water excretion

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6
Q

What are the three processes of urine formation?

A
  • Glomerular filtration
  • Tubular reabsorption
  • Tubular secretion and excretion
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7
Q

What is renal clearance?

A

How much of a substance can be cleared from blood by the kidneys per given amount of time

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8
Q

What is renal insufficiency?

A

Decline of renal function to approximately 25% of normal or a GFR of 25-30 mL/min

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9
Q

What is uremia?

A

Syndrome of renal failure characterized by elevated blood urea and creatinine levels

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10
Q

What is azotemia?

A

Increased serum urea levels and frequently increased creatinine levels due to renal insufficiency or failure

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11
Q

What defines acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A

Sudden decline in kidney function with decreased glomerular filtration and urine output

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12
Q

What are common causes of AKI?

A
  • Extracellular volume depletion
  • Decreased renal blood flow
  • Toxic/inflammatory injury to kidney
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13
Q

What is the most common cause of prerenal AKI?

A

Renal hypoperfusion

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14
Q

What is acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

A

A type of intrarenal AKI caused by ischemia or nephrotoxicity

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15
Q

What is the typical urine output in oliguria?

A

Less than 30 mL/hr

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16
Q

What is the pathophysiology of post-ischemic ATN?

A

Persistent hypotension, hypoperfusion, and hypoxemia leading to ischemia and tubular injury

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17
Q

What factors can cause nephrotoxic ATN?

A
  • Radiocontrast media
  • Antibiotics (aminoglycosides)
  • Heavy metals
  • Anesthesia
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18
Q

What is the result of post-renal AKI?

A

Urinary tract obstructions affecting both kidneys leading to increased intraluminal pressure

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19
Q

What are the phases of clinical progression in ATN?

A
  • Initiation phase
  • Extension phase
  • Maintenance phase
  • Recovery phase
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20
Q

What is the significance of nonoliguric renal failure?

A

Represents less severe injury and is associated with toxin exposure or drug toxicity

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21
Q

What diagnostic indicators are used for AKI?

A
  • Ratios of BUN to plasma creatinine concentration
  • Fractional excretion of Na+
  • Cystatin C
22
Q

What dietary changes are recommended for managing hyperkalemia?

A
  • Restrict dietary sources of potassium
  • Use non-potassium-sparing diuretics
23
Q

What characterizes chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

A

Progressive loss of renal function associated with systemic or intrinsic kidney diseases

24
Q

What are the common systemic diseases that can lead to CKD?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
25
Q

What is the intact nephron hypothesis?

A

Loss of nephron mass leads surviving nephrons to maintain kidney function through compensatory mechanisms

26
Q

What contributes to the progression of CKD?

A
  • Proteinuria
  • Angiotensin II
27
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of CKD?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Edema
  • Anemia
28
Q

What is the effect of CKD on sodium and water balance?

A

Increased sodium delivery to nephrons leads to less reabsorption and potential volume depletion

29
Q

How does CKD affect potassium balance?

A

Tubular secretion of K+ increases until oliguria develops, leading to potentially dangerous serum levels

30
Q

What happens to acid-base balance in early renal insufficiency?

A

Acid excretion and bicarbonate reabsorption increase to maintain normal pH

31
Q

What happens to serum creatinine (SCr) as GFR decreases?

A

Serum creatinine increases

SCr is a good marker of changing glomerular function but is affected by muscle mass and fluid overload.

32
Q

What is the effect of potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone on serum potassium levels?

A

They may precipitate increased serum potassium levels

This occurs as the disease progresses and total body potassium increases.

33
Q

At what GFR level does metabolic acidosis develop?

A

When GFR decreases to 30%-40% of normal

In end-stage kidney disease (ESKD), metabolic acidosis may be severe enough to require dialysis.

34
Q

What are the consequences of impaired renal synthesis of calcitriol?

A

Accelerates hypocalcemia

This is due to decreased intestinal absorption of calcium.

35
Q

What are the effects of acidosis on calcium balance?

A

Leads to negative calcium balance

Hypocalcemia can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism and vitamin D deficiency.

36
Q

What is the relationship between GFR and plasma urea levels?

A

As GFR decreases, plasma urea levels increase

Urea clearance varies with hydration status, making it a poor index for GFR.

37
Q

What are the indicators of a catabolic state in kidney disease?

A

Proteinuria and negative nitrogen balance

Levels of serum proteins, including albumin, decrease, and there is loss of muscle mass.

38
Q

What is the most common hematologic alteration in kidney disease?

A

Normochromic normocytic anemia

This is due to a lack of erythropoietin.

39
Q

What are the major causes of morbidity and mortality in patients with chronic kidney disease?

A

Cardiovascular disease and dyslipidemia

Hypertension and anemia are also significant concerns.

40
Q

What are common gastrointestinal symptoms associated with uremia?

A

Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and mouth ulcers

Uremic fetor is bad breath caused by the breakdown of urea by salivary enzymes.

41
Q

What is the primary treatment for uremic gastroenteritis?

A

Protein-restricted diet and sodium-based alkali

This helps relieve nausea and vomiting.

42
Q

What is the function of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA) like epoetin alfa?

A

Stimulates erythropoiesis to reduce anemia

They interact with receptors on hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow.

43
Q

What adverse effect is most common with erythropoiesis-stimulating agents?

A

Hypertension

There is also a risk of thromboembolic disease, TIA, and stroke.

44
Q

What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics like furosemide?

A

Inhibits reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle

This leads to the excretion of Na+, Cl-, and water.

45
Q

What is the desired effect of calcium carbonate in CKD patients?

A

Normalizes phosphate levels and neutralizes gastric acidity

It acts like intrinsic calcium.

46
Q

What is the main indication for using cation exchange resins like polystyrene sulfonate?

A

Treatment of hyperkalemia

This is used in conjunction with other measures.

47
Q

What are the major adverse effects of cation exchange resins?

A

Hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, and sodium retention

Monitoring for confusion and dyspnea is important.

48
Q

Fill in the blank: As GFR decreases, the ability to concentrate and dilute urine _____

49
Q

True or False: Fluid overload can lead to pulmonary edema in kidney disease.

50
Q

What is the treatment for secondary hyperparathyroidism in CKD?

A

Dialysis and control of serum calcium and phosphate levels

This helps manage complications associated with renal disease.