Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Patho > Week 5: Reproduction > Flashcards

Week 5: Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

Where does spermatogenesis occur (1) and what is the result (2)?

A
  1. occurs in the seminiferous tubules

2. results in the formation of mature sperm or spermatozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How are seminiferous tubules formed (1) and what are they surrounded by (2)?

A
  1. formed by sertoli cells

2. surrounded by leydig cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the role of sertoli cells in spermatogenesis?

A

secrete a fluid with nutrients that nourish immature germ cells and provide digestive enzymes that play a role in converting spermatocytes to sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the basic events of spermatogenesis (3)?

A
  1. germinal cells (diploid cells) undergo rapid mitotic division and divide into primary spermatocytes
  2. primary spermatocytes divide by meiosis I to form secondary spermatocytes
  3. secondary spermatocytes divide by meiosis II to form two spermatids (haploid cell)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the role of leydig cells?

A

produce testosterone in the presence of LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the maturation process of a sperm cell (4)?

A
  1. Elongation of the cell
  2. Formation of acrosome
  3. Mitochondria for ATP production
  4. Flagellum develops for motility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the major roles of testosterone (3)?

A
  1. Stimulates erythropoiesis
  2. acts on vocal chords
  3. stimulates behavioral characteristics (sex drive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe feedback regulation and the role of the Sertoli and Leydig cells in this process.

A
  1. Hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
  2. GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to release luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  3. FSH and LH act on the testes - both Sertoli & Leydig activation necessary for sperm maturation
    i. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to stimulate
    gametogenesis
    ii. Sertoli cells release an androgen-binding
    protein for concentrating testosterone and inhibin
    that acts in feedback inhibition
    iii. LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce
    testosterone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the major events required for erection to occur?

A
  1. Parasympathetic stimulation comes from sensory inputs such as touching or central input such as sexually stimulating images
  2. Dilation of vascular beds which fill with blood and become engorged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do agents that increase nitric oxide release help with ED?

A

Agents that increase nitric oxide release assists with parasympathetic stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does ejaculation occur (1) and why do urine and sperm never transit the urethra at the same time (2)?

A
  1. Involves a spinal reflex stimulated by the SNS that stimulates smooth muscle contraction
  2. During ejaculation the bladder sphincter is closed so urine cannot pass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define prostatitis

A

inflammation of the prostate d/t bacterial infection, most common cause is frequent UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

A

prostate enlargement which can lead to urethral compression and cause urinary obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define prostate cancer

A

etiology unknown but considered a disease of aging; often an adenocarcinoma in posterior lobe of the prostate gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three tumor types that typically lead to testicular cancer?

A
  1. Seminomas tend to retain the features of the spermatozoa
  2. Nonseminomas contain multiple cell types and are less differentiated
  3. Nongerminal cell tumors arise from seminiferous epithelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which tumor cell markers are most commonly released in testicular cancer?

A

human chorionic gonadotropin, lactate dehydrogenase, alpha fetal protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define cryptochidism. What is the prevalence?

A

congenital disorder where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum
= occurs in 30% of premature neonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define hydrocele

A

most common cause of scrotal swelling; collection of fluid between visceral and parietal layers in the tunica vaginalis of the testicle or along the spermatic cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define testicular torsion

A

abnormal twisting of spermatic cord due to rotation of testis or the mesorchium, causes strangulation and if untreated infarction of the testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define variocele
What is the prevalence in men diagnosed with infertility?
What is the prevalence in males between ages 13 and 18?

A

mass of dilated and tortuous varicose veins in the spermatic cord

  • Between 20 and 40% of men diagnosed with infertility have a variocele
  • Occurs in 10-15% of males between ages 13 and 18
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define perimetrium, myometrium and endometrium

A 
Perimetrium = outermost serous layer
Myometrium = smooth muscle layer stimulated to contract during parturition
Endometrium = mucosal lining of the uterine cavity with two layers: statum functionalis and stratum basalis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the major phases of oocyte transit (3)?

A
  1. Uterine tubes = fallopian tubes and oviducts - receive ovulated oocyte
    ○ Curves around the ovary, bent region = ampulla which is the usual site of fertilization
  2. Oocyte is swept into the uterine tube by fimbriae
  3. Uterine tube empties into the uterus to deliver the possibly fertilized egg or zygote for implantation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

3 major facts regarding oogenesis

A

Takes years to complete
Meiosis I concludes only after ovulation
Meiosis II finishes only after fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the oogonia undergoing in utero?

A

Oogonia develop through mitosis

Oogonia are suspended in meiosis I as primary oocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

It is estimated that a female baby has __________ at birth that are suspended until ________

A
  1. 2 million primary oocytes

2. puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Post-puberty how many primordial follicles develop each month?

A

10-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When does the follicular phase take place and what are the major events (2)?

A

Days 1-14

  1. Proliferation of the follicular/granulosa cells is followed by formation of the theca and zona pelucida
  2. Selection of the dominant follicle occurs around day 7 in which the antrum expands and the corona radiata forms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When does the ovulation phase take place and what are the major events (3)?

A

Day 14

  1. Only the dominant or graafian follicle undergoes ovulation
  2. Meiosis I is completed and a polar body is formed
  3. Rupture of the ovary wall releases the oocyte surrounded by corona radiata
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When does the luteal phase take place and what are the major events (4)?

A

Days 15-28

  1. After ovulation the ruptured follicle forms a new gland called the corpus luteum
  2. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone and estrogen
  3. Corpus luteum remains for about 10 days unless fertilization has taken place
  4. If fertilization has occurred the release of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) retains the corpus luteum until the placenta can develop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When does the menstruation phase take place and what is the major event?

A

Days 1-5

shedding of the functional layer of endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When does the proliferative phase take place and what are the major events (4)?

A

Days 6-14

  1. Estrogen levels increasing
  2. Regeneration of the endometrium
  3. Synthesis of progesterone receptors
  4. Thin, streaming mucous produced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When does the secretory phase take place and what are the major events (3)?

A

Days 15-28

  1. Thick and sticky mucous released from endometrium
  2. Inhibition of new follicle development
  3. As progesterone levels fall, hormonal support is removed
33
Q

3 phases of estrogen activity and their relation to feedback regulation

A
  1. During follicular phase if there are low levels of estrogen it inhibits LH/FSH
  2. During follicular phase if there are high levels of estrogen it stimulates LH/FSH
  3. During luteal phase, high levels of estrogen + progesterone, they both inhibit LH/FSH
34
Q

What are the major roles of estrogen? (3)

A
  1. promotes oogenesis & follicle development
  2. Has an anabolic effect on female reproductive tract - as structures increase in size
  3. Stimulates growth in bone, breast tissue, fat deposition, widening/lengthening of pelvis
35
Q

What is the major role of progesterone?

A

works with estrogen to inhibit muscle contraction of the uterus

36
Q

Define vaginitis, sx and what are the common causes?

A

definition: inflammation of the vagina
Sx: Vaginal discharge, itching, swelling, pain from urination or intercourse
Causes: Candida albicans(yeast infection),Trichomonas vaginalis, or bacterial vaginosis

37
Q

Define cervicitis and what are the common causes?

A

inflammation of the cervix
Common causes: infection withC. albicans,T. vaginalis,Neisseria gonorrhea,Gardnerella vaginalis,Chlamydia trachomatis, and herpes simplex; may be primary or secondary

38
Q

Define pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), common causes and complications

A

acute inflammatory response to upper reproductive tract
Common causes: associated with STIs (Neisseria gonorrhea,C. trachomatis,Haemophilus influenzae, orStreptococcus) and endogenous organisms
Complications: infertility, ectopic pregnancy, abscess formation, chronic pain

39
Q

Cervical cancer: cause, which screening can be used, prevention

A

Main cause is infection with HPV (over 100 types - 16 & 18 most closely associated)
Screening with pap smear has reduced incidence
Vaccine available for HPV 16 & 18, 6 & 11

40
Q

Endometrial cancer: which ages is it more likely to occur in, what 2 physiological changes are associated with it and how does it usually present?

A

Usually affects women ages 55 to 65
Strongly associated with excessive estrogen stimulation and endometrial hyperplasia
Presents as bleeding

41
Q

Risk factors for ovarian cancer

A

family history and mutations in TS genes BRCA 1 and BRCA 2

42
Q

Tumor marker associated with ovarian cancer

A

CA-125

43
Q

Why is ovarian cancer often difficult to diagnose?

A

d/t diffuse sx: bloating, pelvic pain, difficulty eating, frequent urination
75% of women dx when it reaches advance stage

44
Q

Define amenorrhea, primary and secondary

A

lack of menstruation d/t hormone dysfunction
Primary: failure to menstruate initially
Secondary: cessation of menstruation caused by low fat stores, as in athletes

45
Q

Define dysmenorrhea

A

painful menstruation often caused by increased prostaglandins (stimulate smooth muscle contraction, often under progesterone control)

46
Q

Define menopause

A

final episode of menstrual bleeding - a process rather than a single event

47
Q

Define premenstrual syndrome, causes, s/s

A

condition with onset 7 to 14 days before menses and that subsides with menses
Causes: unclear, stress can exacerbate
S/S: changes in behavior or personality, breast/abdominal tenderness or swelling, headache, heart palpitations, dizziness, diarrhea or constipation, skin problems

48
Q

Define premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

severe form of PMS with cyclical occurrence of psychiatric symptoms (anger, irritability, severe mood swings) that interfere with everyday life

49
Q

Define fibroids

A

uterine leiomyomas = benign tumors in myometrium of the uterus

50
Q

Define ovarian cysts

A

Can form as follicular cysts: follicles undergoing development during the monthly cycle that become filled with fluid
Can form as luteal cysts from corpus luteum

51
Q

What are the risk factors for breast cancer?

A

increasing age and family history of breast cancer (5-10% are hereditary)
Mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA 2 TS genes increase susceptibility

52
Q

Screening and treatment options for breast cancer

A

Screening: mammogram + clinical breast evaluation
Treatment: surgery, chemo, radiation, hormonal manipulation

53
Q

How does PCOS occur?

A

Excessive LH combined with hyperinsulinemia that sensitizes ovaries in an individual with underlying genetic susceptibility
Excessive androgens released

54
Q

What are the symptoms of PCOS?

A

anovulation, amenorrhea, ovulation-related infertility resulting in polycystic ovaries, hirsutism, acne

55
Q

What are the major goals for treatment of PCOS?

A

Aim to lower insulin, restore fertility, reduce hirsutism/acne, restore normal menstruation
Prevention of endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer

56
Q

Define endometriosis

A

endometrial tissue found in ectopic sites outside of the uterus

57
Q

S/S of endometriosis

A

painful periods, abdominal or pelvic cramps, pain during or following sexual intercourse, pain with defecation bleeding, premenstrual spotting, possible infertility

58
Q

Treatment for endometriosis

A

Induce pseudopregnancy to stop menstruation
Hormone use to suppress estrogen production
Surgery to open fallopian tubes or remove uterus

59
Q

Steps in the process of fertilization (7)

A
  1. Oocyte released by ovary (viable for 24 hours)
  2. Capacitation: flagellum and membranes of postejaculatory sperm made more permeable (viable for 48-72 hours)
  3. Acrosomal reaction: contents of acrosome released
  4. Block to polyspermy: enzymes released to prevent additional sperm from binding
  5. Completion of meiosis II by oocyte
  6. Fusion of pronuclei of ovum and spermatozoa
  7. Zygote formed
60
Q

Define blastocyst

A

= hollow ball of cells formed after the division of cells take place; implants in the uterus on day 6

61
Q

Define trophoblast, cytotrophoblast & syncytiotrophoblast

A

= lining of the blastocyst, supplies nutrients and secretes HCG

  • cytotrophoblast = inner layer, protects the blastocyst
  • syncytiotrophoblast: outer layer which embeds in the endometrium
62
Q

What is HCG, which cells release it? What’s it’s main role?

A

What: human chorionic gonadotropin
Secreted by trophoblast
Role: maintains corpus luteum, stimulates hormone secretion

63
Q

Which hormone is detected in early pregnancy testing?

A

HCG

64
Q

Hormonal changes during pregnancy (3)

A
  1. Estrogen and progesterone remain high
  2. GnRH (LH and FSH) inhibited by negative feedback loops - high estrogen and progesterone combo suppress LH & FSH
  3. HCG relased by blastocyst and stimulates hormone secretion, declines at 12 weeks and results in degeneration of CL
65
Q

Common physical changes during pregnancy (8)

A 
Increased vascularization
Enlargement of breast tissue
Heartburn
Constipation
Stress incontinence
Dyspnea
Increased cardiac output
Varicose veins
66
Q

What are the functional roles of the placenta?

A

Prevents mixing of maternal and embryonic blood
Secretes progesterone, estrogens, human placental lactogen, human chorionic thyrotropin and relaxin
Maintains hormones for the duration of pregnancy

67
Q

What are the functions of human placental lactogen, human chorionic thyrotropin and relaxin?

A

Human placental lactogen: prepares breast tissue for lactation
Human chorionic thyrotropin: increases maternal metabolism during pregnancy
Relaxin: relaxes and increases flexibility of pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis

68
Q

What are the basic events of development during the pre embryonic, embryonic, and fetal stages?

A

Pre-embryonic (zygote to week 2): Cleavage reactions and implantation of blastocyst
Embryonic (week 2-8): Formation of organs and trilaminar embryo
Fetal (8 weeks to birth): Complete formation of all major systems and external features

69
Q

What are the general structures derived from each layer of the trigeminal embryo?

A

Ectoderm: skin epidermis and nervous system
Mesoderm: everything else
Endoderm: epithelial linings of digestive, respiratory and urogenital systems and glands

70
Q

What are the basic events of parturition (4)?

A
  1. Placenta releases prostaglandins
  2. Maternal release of oxytocin from posterior pituitary occurs
  3. Oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate smooth muscle contraction
  4. After delivery of infant, placenta is delivered
71
Q

What are the basic events of lactation (4)?

A
  1. Prolactin and estrogen develop breast tissue during pregnancy
  2. Estrogen levels decrease at birth, prolactin stimulates milk production
  3. Nutrient-rich colostrum secreted along with milk
  4. Oxytocin stimulates milk letdown by contracting smooth muscle cells that are part of the alveoli in mammary tissue
72
Q

Gonorrhea: infectious agent, effects and treatment

A

neisseria gonorrheoae
PID and sterility
antibiotics

73
Q

Syphilis: infectious agent, effects and treatment

A

treponema pallidum
skin rash, fever, joint pain, anemia, neuro disorder
antibiotics

74
Q

Chlamydia: infectious agent, effects and treatment

A

chlamydia trachomatis
sterility
antibiotics

75
Q

Genital warts: infectious agent, effects and treatment

A

HPV
cervical cancer
topical treatment of warts

76
Q

Genital herpes: infectious agent, effects and treatment

A

herpes simplex, epstein-barr virus
lesions, congenital malformations
antiviral drugs

77
Q

What are common causes of male infertility (3)?

A
  1. impaired production or function of sperm
  2. Low sperm concentration
  3. Impaired delivery of sperm
78
Q

What are common causes of female infertility (8)?

A
  1. Fallopian tube damage or blockage
  2. Endometriosis
  3. Ovulation disorders
  4. Hyperprolactinemia
  5. PCOS
  6. Early menopause
  7. Uterine fibroids
  8. Pelvic adhesions
79
Q

What is the definition of infertility?

A

failure to become pregnant after 1 year of unprotected intercourse

Patho (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions