Week 5: Musculoskeletal Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Definition: Abduction

A

Moving a limb away from the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Definition: Active Range of Motion

A

The range of movement a person can achieve by contracting and relaxing their muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition: Adduction

A

Moving a limb toward the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Definition: Ankylosis

A

Stiffness or fixation of a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Definition: Atrophy

A

Part of the body has decreased in size or wasted away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Definition: Bouchard’s Nodes

A

Bony nodules, or osteophytes, that form on the middle joint of the fingers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Definition: Circumduction

A

Moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Definition: Contracture

A

Shortening of muscle (limited ROM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Definition: Crepitation

A

A crackling or rattling sound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Definition: Dislocation

A

Bones out of position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Definition: Extension

A

Straightening a limb at a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definition: External Rotation

A

A rotational movement that moves a limb away from the body’s midline

At the beach!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Definition: Flexion

A

Bending a limb at a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Definition: Functional Assessment

A

A process that evaluates a patient’s ability to perform tasks and make clinical decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Definition: Heberden’s Nodes

A

Bony bumps that develop on the joints closest to the tips of the fingers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Definition: Hyperextension

A

A movement where extension is performed at any joint beyond its normal range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Definition: Internal Rotation

A

A rotational movement that moves a limb toward the body’s midline

Doing up a bra!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Definition: Arthralgia (Joint Pain)

A

A symptom of injury, infection, or illness specifically in the joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Definition: Lordosis (Swayback)

A

Increased lumbar curvature; often seen in pregnant ladies and toddlers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Definition: Myalgia

A

Term for Aching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Definition: Opposition

A

Positioning something near or close to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Definition: Osteoarthritis

A

A degenerative joint disease that causes pain, stiffness, and swelling in the joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Definition: Passive Range of Motion

A

The ROM that is achieved when an outside force (such as a therapist or a CPM machine) exclusively causes movement of a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Definition: Phalen Test

A

Dorsal aspects of hands pressed together; carpal tunnel syndrome would feel burning/numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Definition: Pronation

A

Turning the forearm so that the palm is down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Definition: Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

A long-term autoimmune disease that causes joint pain, swelling, and stiffness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Definition: Scoliosis

A

Lateral spinal curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Definition: Subluxation

A

Partial dislocation; bone is partially out of place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Definition: Supination

A

Turning the forearm so that the palm is up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Definition: Swelling

A

Inflammation of the tissues/muscle often due to injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Definition: Tinel’s Sign

A

Light percussion (tapping) over the median nerve at the flexor that elicits a tingling sensation in carpal tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where should you perform a Physical Assessment?

A

In an environment that is well lit, warm, and private

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True or False: 16 is the legal age for healthcare consent

A

FALSE

There is no minimum age for consent or refusal of consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

True or False: An example of implied consent would be a patient holding out their arm for blood to be withdrawn

35
Q

True or False: A patient can withdraw their consent at any time

36
Q

True or False: If the nurse determines that the patient is incapable of providing consent, then implied consent is assumed

A

FALSE

The nurse is responsible for assessing the patient’s ability to provide consent. The substitute decision maker should be notified and used appropriately

37
Q

True or False: The substitute decision-maker giving or refusing consent is expected to make decisions based on the client’s known wishes, which the client expressed when they were 16 years of age or older and capable

A

TRUE

If unknown, should act in best interests, taking into account values and beliefs, impact of treatment

38
Q

True or False: Information provided before a client provides consent is required to only include the risks of the treatment

A

FALSE

Information must include nature of treatment, expected benefits, risks and side effects, alternative courses of action, likely consequences of not receiving the treatment

39
Q

How should you approach an exam with Toddlers?

A
  • Keep them and their parents involved.
  • Focus more on the parent and let the toddler get used to it at first.
  • Start with games/non-threatening data collection and move from the least distressing to most distressing.
  • Have the parent undress one piece of clothing at a time.
  • Use a clear, firm tone.
  • Don’t give choices if there are none!
40
Q

How should you approach an exam with Pre-schoolers?

A
  • More likely to cooperate and want to act like “big kids” – may sit with mom/dad or may sit on “big table”
  • May help getting undressed
  • May see illness as punishment; give reassurance wherever possible
  • Play games (ex. trace their body on the paper, blow out penlight, listen to teddy)
  • Assess head, eye, ear, nose, and throat last as they become comfortable
41
Q

How should you approach an exam with School-age Children?

A
  • Build comfort relationship - talk about school, friends, sports etc.
  • Children should dress/undress themselves
  • Explain what you are doing and what is happening in the body – curiosity and interest
  • Demonstrate equipment – curiosity
    Assess head to toe
42
Q

How should you approach an exam with Adolescents?

A
  • They are developing self-identity.
  • Assess alone, without parents (genitals as quickly as possible).
  • Educate teen on the wide variability of G&D patterns and sexual changes as teens will compare themselves to other their age.
  • Communication - not a child, not an adult.
  • Focus on health teaching.
43
Q

Which of the following is considered when preparing to examine an older adult?

a) Basing the pace of the examination on the patient’s needs and abilities.
b) Avoiding physical touch to offset making the older adult uncomfortable.
c) Being aware that loss will result in poor coping mechanisms.
d) That confusion is a normal, expected finding in an older adult.

A

a) Basing the pace of the examination on the patient’s needs and abilities.

44
Q

During inspection, the nurse should use careful watching to compare:

A. Front body to back of body
B. Peripheral to distal
C. Head to toe
D. Right side to left side of body

A

D. Right side to left side of body

45
Q

The dorsa of the hands are used to determine:

a) vibration
b) temperature
c) an organ’s position
d) fine tactile discrimination

A

b) temperature

46
Q

When performing percussion, the examiner:

a) strikes the flank area with the palm of the hand.
b) strikes the stationary finger at the distal interphalangeal joint
c) strikes the stationary finger at the proximal interphalangeal joint.
d) taps fingertips over bony processes.

A

b) strikes the stationary finger at the distal interphalangeal joint

47
Q

During auscultation, you may use the diaphragm of the stethoscope to hear:

a) Low pitched respiratory sounds
b) The radial pulse
c) High pitched sounds such as bowel sounds
d) Low pitched sounds such as abnormal heart sounds

A

c) High pitched sounds such as bowel sounds

48
Q

What does the MSK system consist of?

A

Bones
Joints
Muscles

49
Q

Why do humans need the MSK system?

A
  1. For support to stand upright.
  2. For movement.
  3. To enclose and protect the inner vital organs (e.g., brain, spinal cord, heart).
  4. To produce the red blood cells in the bone marrow (hematopoiesis).
  5. For storage of essential minerals such as calcium and phosphorus in the bones.
50
Q

Why do we want to start with a focused health history?

A
  • Assess for past injuries/previous weakness
  • Narrow down subjective data and focus objective assessment on him.
51
Q

What is the order of MSK assessments?

A
  1. Inspection
  2. Palpation
  3. Range of Motion
  4. Muscle Testing
52
Q

During an MSK assessment, in what order should you assess?

Pick ALL that apply:
a) Head to toe
b) Distal to proximal
c) Most painful to least painful
d) Proximal to distal

A

a) Head to toe
d) Proximal to distal

53
Q

What does Inspection in a MSK assessment include?

A
  • Inspect the size and contour of the joint.
  • Inspect tissues over the joint for swelling, redness, masses or deformity.
  • Inspection for alignment.
54
Q

What does Palpation in a MSK assessment include?

A

Palpate for temperature, muscles, bony articulations, and area of the joint capsule (landmarks).

55
Q

What does Range of Motion in a MSK assessment include?

A

What actions can each joint perform?
(ex. flexion/extension, eversion/inversion of the ankle)

Limitation/restriction of ROM is the most sensitive way sign of joint disease/injury

56
Q

What does Muscle Testing in a MSK assessment include?

A

Test the strength of the prime mover muscle groups for each joint

57
Q

What is Flexion?

A

Bending a limb at a joint

58
Q

What is Extension?

A

Straightening a limb at a joint

59
Q

What is Abduction?

A

Moving a limb away from the midline of the body

60
Q

What is Adduction?

A

Moving a limb toward the midline of the body

61
Q

What is Pronation?

A

Turning the forearm so that the palm is down

62
Q

What is Supination?

A

Turning the forearm so that the palm is up

63
Q

What is Circumduction?

A

Moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder

64
Q

What is Inversion?

A

Moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle

65
Q

What is Eversion?

A

Moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle

66
Q

What is Rotation?

A

Moving the head around a central axis

67
Q

What is Protraction?

A

Moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground

68
Q

What is Retraction?

A

Moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground

69
Q

What is Elevation?

A

Raising a body part

70
Q

What is Depression?

A

Lowering a body part

71
Q

When testing for muscle strength, the examiner does which of the following?

A) Observes muscles for the degree of contraction when the individual lifts a heavy object
B) Applies an opposing force when the individual puts a joint in flexion or extension
C) Measures the degree of force that it takes to overcome joint flexion or extension
D) Measures the degree of flexion and extension with a goniometer

A

B) Applies an opposing force when the individual puts a joint in flexion or extension

72
Q

What is the order of examination?

A
  1. Neck, Cervical Spine, and Back
  2. Upper Body (Shoulders, Elbows, Wrists, and Fingers)
  3. Lower Body (Hips, Knees, Ankles, and Toes)
73
Q

What is Kyphosis?

A

Kyphosis (hunchback) is an exaggeration of the posterior curvature of the thoracic spine and is common in older adults.

73
Q

During general inspection of the musculoskeletal system of an older client, the nurse notes kyphosis.
How is kyphosis defined?

A) Lateral spinal curvature
B) Loss of or decrease in muscle tone
C) Increased lumbar curvature
D) Exaggeration of the posterior curvature of the thoracic spine

A

D) Exaggeration of the posterior curvature of the thoracic spine

74
Q

What is Lordosis?

A

Lordosis (swayback) is increased lumbar curvature.

75
Q

What is Scoliosis?

A

Scoliosis is lateral spinal curvature.

76
Q

What is Hypotonic Muscle?

A

Hypotonic muscle has little tone and feels flabby, usually because of atrophy of muscle mass.

77
Q

Cervical Spine: Which ROM has no muscular strength testing?

A

Cervical hyperextension

78
Q

When should you NOT perform muscular strength testing?

A

If you suspect cervical trauma

79
Q

Crepitation is an audible sound that is produced by:

A) Roughened articular surfaces moving over each other.
B) Tendons or ligaments that slip over bones during motion.
C) Joints that are stretched when placed in hyperflexion or hyperextension.
D) An inflamed bursa.

A

A) Roughened articular surfaces moving over each other.

80
Q

Bruno is being assessed for range of joint movement. You ask Bruno to move the arm toward the body so you can evaluate which of the following?

A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Abduction
D) Adduction

A

D) Adduction

81
Q

The knee joint is the articulation of three bones, the:

A

Femur
Tibia
Patella