Week 5: Lung Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Lung cancer has the highest mortality rate
T or F?

A

True

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2
Q

What is the peak incidence of lung cancer?

A

Peak incidence in ages 55-65
Most commonly in those with hx of smoking between 40-75

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3
Q

Which subcategory of lung cancer is more aggressive with higher rates of metastases and mortality?

A

Small cell lung cancer

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4
Q

What are the common manifestations of lung cancer?

A

Chronic cough/chest congestion, hoarseness, fatigue, progressive dyspnea, productive cough with frothy sputum, hemoptysis, lymphadenopathy, weight loss
*Bc many lung cancer pts have a hx of smoking, they likely also experience many of these symptoms, key to look for changes/worsening in chronic symptoms

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5
Q

Which statement indicates a need for further teaching regarding alopecia?
a) “My hair will thin and start to fall out in 1 to 2 months.”
b) “I need to wear a hat or scarf when I am outside working.”
c) “The chemotherapy may cause me to lose all my body hair.”
d) “Washing my hair with a mild shampoo will prevent hair loss.”

A

D- some interventions may delay hair loss, but it cannot be prevented

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6
Q

List interventions to manage pt dyspnea?

A

-Semi/high Fowlers position to allow for maximal lung expansion
-Teach him how to use diaphragmatic and pursed-lip breathing
-Decrease activity level – teach him to pace himself with activities
-Assess anxiety component - consider a referral to psychosocial support services
-Utilize Oxygen therapy as needed
-Administer medications such as morphine
-Encourage maximal fluid intake to maintain hydration

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7
Q

When assessing a pt 2 hours after thoracentesis, what information should be reported to the MP?
a) occasional chest pain when taking deep breaths.
b) some burning and stinging at the thoracentesis site.
c) a small amount of serosanguineous drainage on the dressing.
d) a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and an increase in dyspnea.

A

D
Removing large quantities of fluid from the pleural space can cause fluid to shift from the vascular spaces into the empty pleural space, causing symptomatic hypotension and tachycardia
You would need to monitor VS, lung sounds, and chest movements and immediately report any hypotension, dyspnea, and asymmetrical chest movements. Some bleeding at the site is normal, as are continued complaints of some pleuritic pain.

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8
Q

What is a normal WBC count?

A

5,000-10,000

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9
Q

Your pt on chemotherapy has an NA value of 131 and a Cl of 90.
What is a normal sodium and chloride value?
What might this indicate?

A

Normal Na= 135-145
Normal Cl=98-106
Low Na and Cl indicate salt wasting, a symptom of nephrotoxicity which is a common adverse effect with chemotherapy

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10
Q

The client diagnosed with LC is being discharged. Which statement made by the client indicates that more teaching is needed?
1. It doesn’t matter if I smoke now. I already have cancer.
2. I should see the oncologist at my scheduled appt.
3. If I begin to run a fever I should notify my HCP.
4. I should plan for periods of rest throughout the day.

A

1- Smoking interferes with cancer treatment

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11
Q

The client is admitted to the outpatient surgery center for a bronchoscopy to rule out lung cancer. Which info should the nurse teach?
1. The test will confirm the MRI results.
2. The client can eat and drink immediately after the test.
3. The HCP can do a biopsy of the tumor through the scope.
4. There is no discomfort associated with this procedure.

A

3

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12
Q

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find in newly diagnosed intrinsic LC?
1. Dysphagia
2. Foul smelling breath
3. Hoarseness
4. Weight loss

A

3- Hoarseness is an early sign

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13
Q

An emergency department nurse is interviewing a client with signs of an ischemic stroke that began 2 hours ago. The client reports that she had a cholecystectomy 6 weeks ago and is taking digoxin, coumadin, and labetelol. This client is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy for which of the following reasons?

a) She is not within the treatment time window.

b) She had surgery 6 weeks ago.

c) She is taking digoxin.

d) She is taking warfarin.

A

She is taking cwarfarin.

To be eligible for thrombolytic therapy, the client cannot be taking warfarin. Initiation of thrombolytic therapy must be within 3 hours in clients with ischemic stroke. The client is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy if she has had surgery within 14 days. Digoxin and labetelol do not prohibit thrombolytic therapy.

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14
Q

Which disturbance results in loss of half of the visual field?

a) Anisocoria

b) Homonymous hemianopsia

c) Nystagmus

d) Diplopia

A

Homonymous hemianopsia

Homonymous hemianopsia (loss of half of the visual field) may occur from stroke and may be temporary or permanent. Double vision is documented as diplopia. Nystagmus is ocular bobbing and may be seen in multiple sclerosis. Anisocoria is unequal pupils.

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15
Q

A client is hospitalized when they present to the Emergency Department with right-sided weakness. Within 6 hours of being admitted, the neurologic deficits had resolved and the client was back to their presymptomatic state. The nurse caring for the client knows that the probable cause of the neurologic deficit was what?

a) Cerebral aneurysm

b) Transient ischemic attack

c) Left-sided stroke

d) Right-sided stroke

A

Transient ischemic attack

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a sudden, brief attack of neurologic impairment caused by a temporary interruption in cerebral blood flow. Symptoms may disappear within 1 hour; some continue for as long as 1 day. When the symptoms terminate, the client resumes his or her presymptomatic state. The symptoms do not describe a left- or right-sided stroke or a cerebral aneurysm.

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16
Q

Which of the following terms refer to the failure to recognize familiar objects perceived by the senses?

a) Agnosia

b) Perseveration

c) Apraxia

d) Agraphia

A

Agnosia

Auditory agnosia is failure to recognize significance of sounds. Agraphia refers to disturbances in writing intelligible words. Apraxia refers to inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis. Perseveration is the continued and automatic repetition of an activity, word, or phrase that is no longer appropriate.

17
Q

During a class on stroke, a junior nursing student asks what the clinical manifestations of stroke are. What would be the instructor’s best answer?

a) “Clinical manifestations of a stroke depend on the area of the cortex, the affected hemisphere, the degree of blockage, and the availability of collateral circulation.”

b) “Clinical manifestations of a stroke generally include aphasia, one-sided flaccidity, and trouble swallowing.”

c) “Clinical manifestations of a stroke depend on how quickly the clot can be dissolved.”

d) “Clinical manifestations of a stroke are highly variable, depending on the cardiovascular health of the client.”

A

A
Clinical manifestations following a stroke are highly variable and depend on the area of the cerebral cortex and the affected hemisphere, the degree of blockage (total, partial), and the presence or absence of adequate collateral circulation. (Collateral circulation is circulation formed by smaller blood vessels branching off from or near larger occluded vessels.) Clinical manifestations of a stroke do not depend on the cardiovascular health of the client or how quickly the clot can be dissolved. Clinical manifestations of a stroke are not “general” but individual.

18
Q

When communicating with a client who has sensory (receptive) aphasia, the nurse should:

a) speak loudly and articulate clearly.

b) allow time for the client to respond.

c) give the client a writing pad.

d) use short, simple sentences.

A

D

19
Q

The nurse is providing information about strokes to a community group. Which of the following would the nurse identify as the primary initial symptoms of an ischemic stroke?

a) Footdrop and external hip rotation

b) Vomiting and seizures

c) Severe headache and early change in level of consciousness

d) Weakness on one side of the body and difficulty with speech

A

D
The main presenting symptoms for an ischemic stroke are numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body; confusion or change in mental status; and trouble speaking or understanding speech. Severe headache, vomiting, early change in level of consciousness, and seizures are early signs of a hemorrhagic stroke. Footdrop and external hip rotation are things that can occur if a stroke victim is not turned or positioned correctly.

20
Q

While providing information to a community group, the nurse tells them the primary initial symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke are:

a) Footdrop and external hip rotation

b) Severe headache and early change in level of consciousness

c) Weakness on one side of the body and difficulty with speech

d) Confusion or change in mental status

A

B
The main presenting symptoms for ischemic stroke are numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body, confusion or change in mental status, and trouble speaking or understanding speech. Severe headache, vomiting, early change in level of consciousness, and seizures are early signs of a hemorrhagic stroke. Footdrop and external hip rotation can occur if a stroke victim is not turned or positioned correctly. (less)

21
Q

A client is admitted with weakness, expressive aphasia, and right hemianopia. The brain MRI reveals an infarct. The nurse understands these symptoms to be suggestive of which of the following findings?

a) Left-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

b) Right-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

c) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

d) Completed Stroke

A

A
When the infarct is on the left side of the brain, the symptoms are likely to be on the right, and the speech is more likely to be involved. If the MRI reveals an infarct, TIA is no longer the diagnosis. There is not enough information to determine if the stroke is still evolving or is complete.

22
Q

A 64-year-old client reports symptoms consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) to the physician in the emergency department. After completing ordered diagnostic tests, the physician indicates to the client what caused the symptoms that brought him to the hospital. What is the origin of the client’s symptoms?

a) Hypertension

b) Cardiac disease

c) Diabetes insipidus

d) Impaired cerebral circulation

A

D

23
Q

The provider diagnoses the patient as having had an ischemic stroke. The etiology of an ischemic stroke would include which of the following?

a) Cerebral aneurysm

b) Cardiogenic emboli

c) Intracerebral hemorrhage

d) Arteriovenous malformation

A

B

24
Q

Which of the following terms refer to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis?

a) Agraphia

b) Perseveration

c) Agnosia

d) Apraxia

A

D

25
Q

A nurse knows that, for a patient with an ischemic stroke, tPA is contraindicated if the blood pressure reading is:

a) 170 mm Hg/105 mm Hg

b) 185 mm Hg/110 mm Hg

c) 190 mm Hg/120 mm Hg

d) 175 mm Hg/100 mm Hg

A

190 mm Hg/120 mm Hg

Elevated blood pressure (systolic >185; diastolic >110 mm Hg) is a contraindication to tPA.

26
Q

Which of the following is the most common side effect of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?

a) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

b) Hypertension

c) Headache

d) Bleeding

A

D

27
Q

What are the risk factors for lung cancer?

A

Genetic
Dietary (lack of fruits and veggies)
Environment/Occupation (urban areas, exposure to radon gas or asbestos)
Smoking

28
Q

Why is smoking linked to lung cancer?

A

Cigarettes contain multiple carcinogens which cause mutations in genes that regulate normal cell growth, resulting in cellular proliferation and cancer
Cigarettes also cause lung inflammation, chronic inflammation contributes to oxidative damage and cancer risk

29
Q

What test is used to scan for metastases?

A

MRI or PET scan

30
Q

How are tumors classified?

A

-Anatomical site
-Histological analysis
-Staging

31
Q

What does TMN assess in tumors?

A

T- tutor size, location and degree of invasion
N- regional lymph node involvement
M- presence or absence of metastases

32
Q

What does differentiation refer to in relation to tumors?

A

-how mature and abnormal the tumor cells appear under the microscope. Well differentiated means that cells look similar to the tissue of origin, in this case, lung cells. Poorly differentiated means that the cells look different from the cells of origin.

32
Q

How do Grade I cells appear under histological analysis?

A

Cells differ slightly from normal cells and are well differentiated

33
Q

How do Grade IV cells appear under histological analysis?

A

Cells are immature and primitive and undifferentiated, cell of origin is difficult to determine

34
Q

T or F
Cancer cells divide indiscriminately and haphazardly at a faster rate than their cells of origin

A

False
Cancer cells divide indiscriminately and haphazardly but generally divide at the same rate as their cells of origin

35
Q

What does initiation refer to in relation to cancer patho?

A

Initiation- a mutation occurs in a cell’s DNAleading to activation of oncogenes (genes that promote cell growth) or inactivation of tumor suppressor genes

36
Q

What does promotion refer to in relation to cancer patho?

A

Promotion- Mutated cells undergo continual, unregulated proliferation forming a small cluster of abnormal cells

37
Q

What term is used to describe the tactics cancer cells use to evade immune system attack?

A

Immunological escape

38
Q

What are the common sites for metastases in lung cancer?

A

Liver
Brain
Bones
Scalene lymph nodes (under clavicles)
Adrenal glands