Week 5: Drugs for Treating Infections Flashcards

1
Q

Briefly describe the main steps involved in viral replication for the Influenza virus.

A

(1) Virus binds to a sialic acid-containing receptor on cell surface.
(2) Receptor mediated endocytosis as virus is engulfed by the cell plasma membrane to form an endocytic vesicle.
(3) Delivery of the virus to the endosomal cell compartment.
(4) Fusion of the viral membrane with the membrane of the endosome, induced by the mildly acidic pH in the endosomal lumen.
(5) Viral RNA delivered to the nucleus, synthesis of messenger RNA (mRNA) and viral RNA replication.
(6) Synthesis of viral protein components in the cell cytosol (internal proteins) and endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (membrane proteins).
(7) Assembly and budding of progeny viruses

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2
Q

How do the three main classes of Influenza virus differ in terms of their severity?

A

Influenza A: most virulent, multiple host species, antigenic drift and shift (evades immune system)

Influenza B: No animal reservoir (humans only except seals and ferrets), slower mutation rate leads to less antigenic variability and higher immunity, Lower mortality

Influenza C “Common Cold Like”: Less common, limited animal reservoir, usually common cold like symptoms

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3
Q

Outline the key steps involved when an influenza virion gains entry to a host cell.

A

Steps following uptake of the virus into a host cell by endocytosis:

i. ATP driven proton entry into the endosome to allow fusion of the viral membrane with the internal endosomal membrane.
ii. entry of protons into the virus itself via a viral ion channel known as M2.
iii. The low pH inside the virus results in breakdown the viral coat of the nucleocapsid. “viral uncoating”
iv. The RNA can then escape out into the host cell cytoplasm

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4
Q

Oseltamivir is a prodrug, administered by oral ingestion, what is a prodrug?

A

Prodrug: pharmacologically inactive/less active compound which gets metabolised to the active compound

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5
Q

The volume of distribution Vd of the active metabolite of Oseltamivir is in the range 23-26 L, from this value estimate the fluid/tissue compartment distribution of the drug.

A

This value is larger than the plasma compartment, so the drug is certainly in the extracellular cellular fluid and probably also distributed in the intracellular fluid too, but not bound to tissue protein or fatty tissue.

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6
Q

Describe the antiviral action of Oseltamivir.

A

Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor.

Neuraminidase is one of three transmembrane viral proteins which enables newly formed virions escape from their host cell.

Many newly formed viruses re-attach to the sialic acid membrane glycoprotein residues on the cell membrane. To get released and infect other host cells they need to break this bond which is carried out by the viral neuraminidase.

Oseltamivir is a sialic acid analogue with a very high binding affinity for neuraminidase. Therefore it binds more strongly with the neuraminidase than the competing endogenous sialic acid.

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7
Q

The results from clinical trials with Oseltamivir have provided information for optimal treatment strategies.

When is the optimal time to begin treatment with Oseltamivir following infection and when will it no longer have any significant effect in reduction of symptom duration?

A

The earlier treatment is started after symptom onset the shorter the duration of symptoms. The time window for significant reduction goes up to 48 hours. Little benefit accrues past this time

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8
Q

Is there any evidence that Oseltamivir reduces mortality as a result of Influenza?

A

One study suggests a potential decrease risk of mortality by 70%

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9
Q

A 62-year-old man presented to A/E with acute shortness of breath. He gave a 7-day history of cough with yellow-green sputum and increasing wheeze. He had a history of smoking unfiltered cigarettes since the age of 13 years. His usual exercise tolerance of 400 yards, limited by breathlessness, was now only a few yards. He had not sought the advice of his GP prior to admission and as a consequence takes no medication. He had an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin 50 years ago. Full blood count reveals a high neutrophil count of 20. His admission chest X-ray revealed hyper-inflated lung fields with right basal collapse.

What are the probable diagnoses?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

Right lower love pneumonia with right basal colapse

Would not class as infective exacerbation of COPD as he has purulent sputum as well as radiographic changes (would use diagnosis of IECOPD rather than pneumonia when there are no radiographic changes but chest infection is suspected).

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10
Q

A 62-year-old man presented to A/E with acute shortness of breath. He gave a 7-day history of cough with yellow-green sputum and increasing wheeze. He had a history of smoking unfiltered cigarettes since the age of 13 years. His usual exercise tolerance of 400 yards, limited by breathlessness, was now only a few yards. He had not sought the advice of his GP prior to admission and as a consequence takes no medication. He had an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin 50 years ago. Full blood count reveals a high neutrophil count of 20. His admission chest X-ray revealed hyper-inflated lung fields with right basal collapse.

What percentage oxygen therapy should be administered?

A

Controlled O2 in first instance.

Venturi mask 4L/min at 24 or 28% are both appropriate to start with and then titrate.

Aim to maintain saturations 88-92%

Should do arterial blood gas to determine if retain CO2 and O2 levels

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11
Q

A 62-year-old man presented to A/E with acute shortness of breath. He gave a 7-day history of cough with yellow-green sputum and increasing wheeze. He had a history of smoking unfiltered cigarettes since the age of 13 years. His usual exercise tolerance of 400 yards, limited by breathlessness, was now only a few yards. He had not sought the advice of his GP prior to admission and as a consequence takes no medication. He had an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin 50 years ago. Full blood count reveals a high neutrophil count of 20. His admission chest X-ray revealed hyper-inflated lung fields with right basal collapse.

Would this patient benefit from corticosteroid therapy? What route of administration is appropriate?

A

Yes, short course 30mg prednisolone for 7-14 days, provided no contraindications. In this case offer for COPD – wheeze, ex-smoker and hyper inflated lungs. Otherwise do not offer to people with pneumonia routinely.

Route of administration: NICE recommends in the absence of significant contraindications oral corticosteroids should be used, in conjunction with other therapies, in all patients admitted to hospital with an exacerbation of COPD.

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12
Q

A 62-year-old man presented to A&E with acute shortness of breath. He gave a 7-day history of cough with yellow-green sputum and increasing wheeze. He had a history of smoking unfiltered cigarettes since the age of 13 years. His usual exercise tolerance of 400 yards, limited by breathlessness, was now only a few yards. He had not sought the advice of his GP prior to admission and as a consequence takes no medication. He had an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin 50 years ago. Full blood count reveals a high neutrophil count of 20. His admission chest X-ray revealed hyper-inflated lung fields with right basal collapse.

Are antibiotics indicated?

A

Use CURB65 score to assess severity

CURB65 severity score:
1 point for each feature present:
 Confusion
 Urea > 7mmol/l
 Respiratory rate ≥ 30/min
 Blood pressure (SBP < 90 or DBP ≤ 60mmHg)
 Age ≥ 65 years

If low (score 0-1)– first line normally amoxicillin but as penicillin allergic can use a macrolide e.g. Erythromycin, clarithromycin Or a tetracycline e.g. Doxycycline

If mod-high severity - a 7 – 10 day course is indicated. Consider dual antibiotic therapy with amoxicillin and a macrolide for patients with moderate-severity community-acquired pneumonia.

Or if high severity, a beta-lactamase stable beta-lactam (e.g. co-amoxiclav, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime and piperacillin with tazobactam (tazocin)) and a macrolide.

In penacillin allergic – 2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin, but there is some cross reactivity, discuss with Consultant Microbiologist

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13
Q

A 62-year-old man presented to A&E with acute shortness of breath. He gave a 7-day history of cough with yellow-green sputum and increasing wheeze. He had a history of smoking unfiltered cigarettes since the age of 13 years. His usual exercise tolerance of 400 yards, limited by breathlessness, was now only a few yards. He had not sought the advice of his GP prior to admission and as a consequence takes no medication. He had an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin 50 years ago. Full blood count reveals a high neutrophil count of 20. His admission chest X-ray revealed hyper-inflated lung fields with right basal collapse.

What is the relevance of his allergic reaction?

A

Important in antibiotic choice as first line are penicillins. He is definitely classed as allergic and not intolerant given the past anaphylaxis to penicillin.
The frequently cited figure of 10% cross reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporins is an overestimate. Cross reactivity between penicillins and second and third generation cephalosporins is low and may be lower than the cross reactivity between penicillins and unrelated antibiotics. Anaphylaxis with cephalosporins is rare (0.1-0.0001%)

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14
Q

A 30-year-old lady presented with a six-week history of worsening cough, fever, and weight loss, which had not responded to two successive courses of antibiotics. A sputum smear is positive for Acid-fast bacilli (AFB).

What is her diagnosis?

A

Tuberculosis – active (currently infectious pulmonary TB) as sputum positive

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15
Q

A 30-year-old lady presented with a six-week history of worsening cough, fever, and weight loss, which had not responded to two successive courses of antibiotics. A sputum smear is positive for Acid-fast bacilli (AFB).

Which drugs would you use and for how long?

A

Quadruple therapy
NICE: For people with active TB without central nervous system involvement, offer:
 isoniazid (with pyridoxine), rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for 2 months then
 isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for a further 4 months.

Modify the treatment regimen according to drug susceptibility testing.

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16
Q

A 30-year-old lady presented with a six-week history of worsening cough, fever, and weight loss, which had not responded to two successive courses of antibiotics. A sputum smear is positive for Acid-fast bacilli (AFB). She is prescribe quadruple therapy for currently active pulmonary TB.

What baseline tests would you do prior to starting drug therapy?

A

CXR, CT, HIV test, U and E (check renal function and adjust doses accordingly, avoid ethambutol)

LFTs (hepatic impairment with 3/4 drugs mentioned above)

Visual acuity (before ethambutol)

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17
Q

A 30-year-old lady presented with a six-week history of worsening cough, fever, and weight loss, which had not responded to two successive courses of antibiotics. A sputum smear is positive for Acid-fast bacilli (AFB). You wish to prescribe quadruple therapy for her TB.

The patient is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), but wishes to start a family soon.

What should she be advised? Does the COCP affect her treatment?

A

Not effective whilst taking rifampicin to use alternative method whilst being treated. Rifampicin is a CYP450 inducer causing the COCP to be metabolised before it has effect.

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18
Q

A 30-year-old lady presented with a six-week history of worsening cough, fever, and weight loss, which had not responded to two successive courses of antibiotics. A sputum smear is positive for Acid-fast bacilli (AFB). The patient is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), but wishes to start a family soon. You prescribe quadruple therapy for her currently infectious pulmonary TB.

After 3 weeks on treatment the patient notices that she has become jaundiced. What should be done?

A

Discontinue treatment and seek immediate medical attention, as Isoniazid, rifampicin and pyrazinamide are all hepatotoxic.

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19
Q

Infectious endocarditis

An 18-year-old man has a congenital mitral valve prolapse (with ausculatory pansystolic murmur), but is otherwise well.

What advice would you give him regarding dental treatment?

A

Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not recommended anymore.
 for people undergoing dental procedures
 for people undergoing non‑dental procedures at the following sites:
o upper and lower gastrointestinal tract
o genitourinary tract; this includes urological, gynaecological and obstetric procedures, and childbirth
o upper and lower respiratory tract; this includes ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy.
1.1.4 Chlorhexidine mouthwash should not be offered as prophylaxis against infective endocarditis to people at risk of infective endocarditis undergoing dental procedures. [2015]

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20
Q

An 18-year-old man has a congenital mitral valve prolapse (with ausculatory pansystolic murmur), but is otherwise well.

He develops bacterial endocarditis and Streptococcus viridans is isolated from blood cultures. How would you treat this condition and for how long?

A

The viridans group streptococci have remained the primary cause of native valve endocarditis. These are either penicillin-sensitive or relatively penicillin-resistant. Antibiotic regimens include a beta-lactam e.g. Benzylpenicillin (with or without gentamicin, if large vegetation, intracardial abscess – for 2 weeks) or I.v. vancomycin if penicillin allergic (4 weeks) . Patients with native valves are generally treated for 4 to 6 weeks.

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21
Q

An 18-year-old man has a congenital mitral valve prolapse (with ausculatory pansystolic murmur), but is otherwise well.

He develops bacterial endocarditis and Streptococcus viridans is isolated from blood cultures. He eventually requires a mechanical valve replacement. What long-term drug treatment will he need?

A

Warfarin/novel anticoagulant therapy due to high risk of thrombosis from metallic valve. As he is 18 years old he wouldn’t be considered for a tissue valve (which do not necessarily require anticoagulants) as they have a shorter life span

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22
Q

What type of virus is HIV-1?

A

A retrovirus. The virus has single stranded RNA genome and targets a host cell, where it transcribes a DNA copy of its genome which is integrated into the host cells genome. The host cell then transcribes and translates the viral proteins

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23
Q

What does the acronym HAART stand for in for the treatment of HIV-1 infection? How did it revolutionise treatment of HIV?

A

highly active antiretroviral therapy
It dramatically reduced the morbidity and mortality associated with HIV-1 infection and AIDS by suppressing the replication of the virus replication and therefore viral load, allowing recovery of the immune system.

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24
Q

Considering the mechanism by which a virus can gain drug resistance, why does a cocktail of 3 (or more) antivirals give a more durable treatment?

A

Viruses gain resistance by mutations. Using a cocktail of 3 drugs requires a virus to pick up 3 separate mutations to allow its survival and replication in the host cell.

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25
Q

List the 6 classes of retroviral drugs for treatment of HIV-1 infection.

A

(1) nucleoside-analogue (or nucleoside/nucleotide) reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
(2) non–nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
(3) integrase inhibitors
(4) protease inhibitors (PIs)
(5) fusion inhibitors
(6) coreceptor antagonists

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26
Q

Zidovudine was the first drug successfully used to treat HIV infection, which class of drugs does it fall into and which stage of viral replication do they inhibit? Is this unique to the virus or does the human host also utilise this type of reaction?

A

Zidovudine is a nucleoside-analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) targeting the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into a DNA molecule. This is unique to retroviruses not their human hosts

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27
Q

How do NRTIs and NNRTIs differ in their mechanism of action?

A

NRTIs are competitive inhibitors entering the active site of the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme and being transferred onto the newly synthesised DNA molecule where they terminate the synthesis. NNRTIs act as non or uncompetitive inhibitors by binding adjacent to the enzyme active site.

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28
Q

Which class of influenza is the most virulent, with multiple host species, antigenic drift and shift (evades immune system)

A

Influenza A = ANTIGENIC drift and shift

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29
Q

Which class of influenza has no animal reservoir (humans only except seals and ferrets), and its slower mutation rate leads to less antigenic variability and higher immunity, and lower mortality

A

Influenza B = Better off than A (lower mortality), BE only in humans (no animal reservoirs)

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30
Q

Which class of influenza is less common, has limited animal reservoirs, and usually common cold like symptoms

A

Influenza C = “Common Cold” Like

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31
Q

How do Amantadine and Rimantadine act to block entry of influenza into cells?

Which one of these agents is generally preferred in use and why?

A

Amantadine and Rimantadine are examples of two M2 Ion channel blockers that inhibit viral uncoating.

Amantadine has more marked ADR risk than Rimantidine of about 5-10%. ADRs include dizziness, GI disturbance and hypotension. More serious are confusion and insomnia and hallucination which can be problematic in the elderly in whom these symptoms may be present and further exacerbated.

For this reason, Rimantidine is usually preferred over Amantadine. However widespread M2 mutations mean that neither Amantadine nor Rimantadine are recommended by NICE for treatment or prophylaxis of influenza.

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32
Q

Oseltamivir is a prodrug, administered by oral ingestion. How is oseltamivir metabolised?

A

Oseltamivir or oseltamivir phosphate is metabolised by removal of the phosphate and ester hydrolysis to yield the oseltamivir carboxylate active compound.

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33
Q

True or false?

Neuraminidase is one of three transmembrane viral proteins which enables newly formed virions escape from their host cell.

A

True.

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34
Q

What are the common side effects of Oseltamivir?

A

Occur in over 1% of patients, generally not serious, GI disturbance inc. nausea & vomiting, headache, nose bleed. Rarely respiratory depression, bronchospasm. A Cochrane review reported dose dependent psychiatric effects.

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35
Q

A 62-year-old man presented to A/E with acute shortness of breath. He gave a 7-day history of cough with yellow-green sputum and increasing wheeze. He had a history of smoking unfiltered cigarettes since the age of 13 years. His usual exercise tolerance of 400 yards, limited by breathlessness, was now only a few yards. He had not sought the advice of his GP prior to admission and as a consequence takes no medication. He had an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin 50 years ago. Full blood count reveals a high neutrophil count of 20. His admission chest X-ray revealed hyper-inflated lung fields with right basal collapse.

The consultant prescribes a short course 30mg prednisolone for 7-14 days,

What would be the mechanism of action?

A

The mechanisms for improving lung function in patients treated with steroids during exacerbations may include a reduction in airway inflammation or a decrease in airway oedema, especially as in some studies the changes have occurred relatively early after the start of treatment

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36
Q

Mechanism of action of Amoxicillin

A

Amoxicillin is an inhibitor of bacterial cell wall synthesis. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, a 3rd generation derivative of penicillin. It has a higher oral bioavailability (95%) than most other antibiotics of this class. It contains a chemically reactive β-lactam ring which forms a covalent bond with the side chain –OH of a serine amino acid in the active site of the bacterial transpeptidase enzyme. The bacterial transpeptidase is responsible for the cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up a major component of the cell wall of Gram-positive and a minor component of Gram-negative bacteria. Amoxicillin irreversibly inhibits this cross-linkage preventing further cell wall synthesis and leading to cell lysis therefore it is a bactericidal agent

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37
Q

What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?

A

Macrolides inhibit RNA-dependent protein synthesis by reversibly binding to the 50S ribosomal subunits of susceptible microorganisms. The macrolides inhibit the peptidyltransferase enzyme and weaken tRNA-ribosome interactions. This interferes with the addition of new amino acids onto the growing polypeptide chain in the ribosome and so blocks the synthesis of new protein. This has a mainly bacteriostatic effect.

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38
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracycline antibiotics?

A

Tetracycline antibiotics are also protein synthesis inhibitors. Whereas macrolides bind to the large subunit of the bacterial ribosome tetracyclines bind to the small 30S ribosomal subunit. Their binding prevents incoming amino acid ‘charged tRNA’ binding to the RNA-ribosome complex and so stops the supply of amino acid building blocks for protein synthesis.

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39
Q

A 30-year-old lady presented with a six-week history of worsening cough, fever, and weight loss, which had not responded to two successive courses of antibiotics. A sputum smear is positive for Acid-fast bacilli (AFB). She is prescribed quadruple therapy for currently in factious pulmonary TB.

What monitoring of the drugs is required?

A

Routine ophthalmological monitoring for ethambutol
Since isoniazid, rifampicin and pyrazinamide are associated with liver toxicity – if preexisting liver disease or alcohol dependency frequent checks, particularly in first 2 months when hepatic toxicity is more likely.
If no evidence of liver disease check if fever, malaise, jaundice, vomiting or unexplained deterioration
If used renal dose of ethambutol in patient with renal impairment should monitor drug plasma concentration levels

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40
Q

A 30-year-old lady presented with a six-week history of worsening cough, fever, and weight loss, which had not responded to two successive courses of antibiotics. A sputum smear is positive for Acid-fast bacilli (AFB). She is prescribed quadruple therapy for currently in factious pulmonary TB.

What advice would you give to the patient after starting treatment?

A

To report if symptoms of liver disease occur or any changes in vision. If using COCP to use alternative means whilst taking rifampicin a CYP450 inducer Inform of side effects – urine orange-red discolouration with rifampicin
GI side effects common

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41
Q

A 30-year-old lady presented with a six-week history of worsening cough, fever, and weight loss, which had not responded to two successive courses of antibiotics. A sputum smear is positive for Acid-fast bacilli (AFB). You wish to prescribe quadruple therapy for her TB.

The patient is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), but wishes to start a family soon.

What should she be advised? Does the COCP affect her treatment?

What will happen to the immediate family contacts?

A

Screening offered to close contacts of patient
If symptomatic will be assessed for active TB and managed accordingly
If asymptomatic contact less than 65 test for latent TB using Mantoux testing.
 If inconclusive refer to TB specialist.

 If positive (induration 5mm or larger) assess for active TB. Once rule out active TB, consider interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) if need more evidence to decide on treatment. If positive, offer treatment for latent TB infection, offer either of the following drug treatments:
o 3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin or
o 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine).

 If negative Mantoux offer BCG vaccination if:
o Previously unvaccinated
o 35 years and younger
o Over 35 but healthcare of laboratory worker
If asymptomatic and over 65 consider a chest X-ray, possibly leading to further investigation for active TB

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42
Q

Patients with the following cardiac conditions are at risk of developing infective endocarditis:

A

 acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation
 hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
 previous infective endocarditis
 structural congenital heart disease, including surgically corrected or palliated structural conditions, but excluding isolated atrial septal defect, fully repaired ventricular septal defect or fully repaired patent ductus arteriosus, and closure devices that are judged to be endothelialised valve replacement.

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43
Q

Infectious endocarditis
An 18-year-old man has a congenital mitral valve prolapse (with ausculatory pansystolic murmur), but is otherwise well.

He develops bacterial endocarditis and Streptococcus viridans is isolated from blood cultures.

How would you monitor his drug treatment? What are the common ADRs relating to this treatment?

A

Plasma gentamicin measurement – dose calculated (loading and maintenance) based on patient weight and renal function e.g. Using nomogram. Adjustments made based on plasma concentrations. When possible do not exceed 7 days of treatment.
Require plasma vancomycin measurement after 3 or 4 doses if renal function normal or earlier if renal impairment
Blood counts – should see inflammatory markers decreasing if on correct treatment
Blood cultures – will need 3 sets of cultures from 3 different sites, each taken 1 hr apart- these guide antibiotic treatment
Urinalysis
Renal function test
Monitor auditory function if elderly or renal impairment

Common ADRs:
Vestibular and auditory damage (tinnitus)
Nephrotoxicity
Blood disorders e.g. neutropenia with vancomycin

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44
Q

What are the 5 components of the CURB65 severity score?

A
 Confusion
 Urea > 7mmol/l
 Respiratory rate ≥ 30/min
 Blood pressure (SBP < 90 or DBP ≤ 60mmHg)
 Age ≥ 65 years
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45
Q

To gain entry into a host cell, the invading virion first attaches to what on the cell surface?

A

A neuraminic or sialic acid residue on a membrane glycoprotein. The complex then allows the virus to gain entry by endocytosis.

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46
Q

To gain entry into a host cell, the invading virion first attaches to a neuraminic or sialic acid residue on a membrane glycoprotein. The complex then allows the virus to gain entry by endocytosis. Following uptake of the virion into a host cell by endocytosis, there are two steps that must precede uncoating and successful transcription of viral RNA.

What are these two steps?

A

The first step involves ATP driven proton entry into the endosome to allow fusion of the viral membrane with the internal endosomal membrane.

The second step involves entry of protons into the virus itself via a viral Ion channel known as M2. The low pH inside the virus then results in breakdown the viral coat of the nucleocapsid. “viral uncoating” The RNA can then escape out into the host cell cytoplasm.

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47
Q

What is the function of M2 ion channels in viral entry?

A

Following uptake of the virion into a host cell by endocytosis, there are two steps that must precede uncoating and successful transcription of viral RNA.

One of these steps involves entry of protons into the virus itself via a viral Ion channel known as M2. The low pH inside the virus then results in breakdown the viral coat of the nucleocapsid. The RNA can then escape out into the host cell cytoplasm.

Amantadine and Rimantadine are examples of two M2 Ion channel blockers that act to inhibit the above step.

48
Q

Mechanism of Amantadine and Rimantadine

A

M2 Ion channel blockers

Once endocytose, viruses require entry of protons into the virus itself via a viral Ion channel known as M2. The low pH inside the virus then results in breakdown the viral coat of the nucleocapsid. The RNA can then escape out into the host cell cytoplasm.

49
Q

The use of M2 ion channel blockers is limited to which virus?

A

The use of M2 Ion channel blockers is limited to Influenza Type A. Unfortunately their widespread has been limited by a rapid emergence of M2 mutations in H5N1 viruses that first appeared in 2003. Neither Amantadine nor Rimantadine are recommended by NICE for treatment or prophylaxis of influenza.

50
Q

M2 Ion channel blockers: ADRs

A

Amantadine has more marked ADR risk than Rimantidine of about 5-10%. ADRs include dizziness, GI disturbance and hypotension. More serious are confusion and insomnia and hallucination which can be problematic in the elderly in whom these symptoms may be present and further exacerbated.

51
Q

Types of anti-viral agents

A

M2 ion channel blockers - Amantadine, Rimantidine

Neuraminidase inhibitors - Zanamivir, Oseltamivir

52
Q

What types of influenza can be treated with Neuraminidase Inhibitors vs. M2 blockers?

A

Neuraminidase Inhibitors - Type A and B

M2 blockers - limited to Influenza Type A.

53
Q

How do Neuraminidase Inhibitors act as anti-virals?

A

As the newly formed virus egresses from its host cell many re-attach to the sialic acid membrane glycoprotein residues on the cell membrane. To get released and infect other host cells they need to break this bond which is carried out by the viral neuraminidase.

Neuraminidase inhibitors bind more strongly with the neuraminidase than the competing endogenous sialic acid.

54
Q

Route and indicators for Zanamivir vs. oseltamivir

A

Zanamivir given as an aerosol and has low bioavailability it is mainly used for treatment.

Oseltamivir is a prodrug and by contrast is well absorbed, with 80% bioavailability. This enables it to be given orally for both treatment and prophylaxis

55
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitor ADRs

A

Generally not serious, GI disturbance headache nose bleed. Rarely respiratory depression, bronchospasm

56
Q

What is the effects of timely treatment with Neuraminidase inhibitors?

A

If taken with 48 hours, shorter duration of symptoms (by half a day on average). Up to 64 hours, large reduction in mortality. Controversial use as prophylaxis

57
Q

Resistance to Oseltamivir

A

The Neuraminidase Enzyme also appears to be evolutionary conservative, which is a great advantage for any antimicrobial therapeutic although reports of resistance in various HA and NA surface glycoprotein antigens subtypes have been reported. In the small number of those treated for H5N1 bird flu resistance appears to be high. For other types highly variable values have been reported for H1N1. However the same degree of resistance to zanamivir is not apparent.

58
Q

key principle of antimicrobial therapies

A

they target the biochemistry or the physiology of the bacterium and will, ideally, have no impact on the host
cells. Therefore antimicrobial therapy is utilising the biological differences between bacteria and humans and exploiting the fact that this means some chemicals are relatively more toxic to a bacterium than they are to the human host.

Three principal concerns of antimicrobial therapy are to maximise the therapeutic impact, minimise adverse drug effects and to prevent the emergence of resistance.

59
Q

Define ANTIBIOTIC and ANTIMICROBIAL

A

An ANTIBIOTIC is a low molecular weight substance produced by a microorganism that at a low concentration inhibits or kills other microorganisms.

While an ANTIMICROBIAL is any substance of natural semisynthetic or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms but causes little or no damage to the host. All antibiotics are antimicrobials, but not all antimicrobials are antibiotics

60
Q

It is important to select the most important therapy whenever possible.There are usually 6 points to be considered

A

There are usually 6 points to be considered:

i. Identity of the microorganism
ii. The organism’s susceptibility to an antimicrobial agent
iii. Safety of the agent
iv. Site of infection
v. The patient’s circumstances
vi. The cost of the therapy

61
Q

Antimicrobials fall into two overall categories:

A

Bactericidal drugs are those that kill target organisms. Examples of bactericidal drugs include aminoglycosides, cephalosporins, penicillins, and quinolones.

Bacteriostatic drugs inhibit or delay bacterial growth and replication. Examples of such include tetracyclines, sulfonamides, and macrolides.

62
Q

Antimicrobials: List inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis or function

A
  1. quinolones
  2. folic acid antagonists - trimethoprim or Sulphonamides
  3. Rifampicin

quinolones and folic acid antagonists such as trimethoprim will selectively inhibit the synthesis of
bacterial DNA and therefore block DNA replication a necessary step in bacterial replication.

Likewise rifampicin is an antibiotic which inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, preventing gene transcription

63
Q

Antimicrobials: List Inhibitors of protein synthesis

A
  1. aminoglycosides - e.g. gentamicin
  2. macrolides - e.g. erthyromicin
  3. tetracyclines

Target differences
between bacterial and
human ribosomes

64
Q

Antimicrobials: List Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

A

B-lactams - penicillins, cephalosporins and carbapenems.

Vancomycin is an example of a glycopeptide which also inhibits cell wall synthesis and is important as a treatment of methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).

65
Q

Kirby– Bauer (KB) antibiotic testing

A

A measure of antibacterial activity

Growth inhibition tests performed on agar culture plates, also known as disc diffusion antibiotic sensitivity testing,commonly used to measure the antibacterial activity of an agent against a particular microorganism. In this assay a discs containing increasing concentrations of the antimicrobial are placed on a plate which has been swabbed uniformly to produce a “bacterial lawn”. An antimicrobial will produce a zone of inhibition around the disk on which the bacteria will not grow. The size of the zone is a measure of the strength of the antimicrobial, the stronger the activity the larger the zone, this is a semi quantitative measure.

66
Q

Antimicrobials: minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

A

The strength of an antimicrobial is commonly expressed in terms of the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). This is the minimum concentration of antimicrobial which will inhibit the growth of a bacterium in vitro expressed in units of mg.ml-1. This value is specific to the antimicrobial and the bacterial isolate.

IMPORTANCE - As MIC of isolate increases so does failure rate.

67
Q

Time dependent killing

A

it is not the maximum concentration of drug that is important, but rather the time at which the drug is maintained above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). This type of antibiotic requires prolonged presence of the antibiotic but not high concentrations for successful treatment.

Examples: penicillins, cephalosporins and glycopeptides show time dependent killing, and are often prescribed 4x daily

68
Q

Concentration dependent killing

A

antibiotics that require a high
concentration at the site of infection rather than a long time. Aminoglycosides and quinolones fall into this latter category. Often given as single larger doses rather than smaller doses spread out (as is done with time dependent killers).

69
Q

Three groups of antimicrobials that show time dependent killing

A

as penicillins, cephalosporins and glycopeptides

70
Q

Two groups of antimicrobials that show time dependent killing

A

Aminoglycosides and quinolones

71
Q

Monitoring markers for daptomycin

A

creatine kinase and eosinophils

72
Q

Monitoring marker for and chloramphenicol

A

full blood count

Adverse effects on bone marrow

73
Q

Definitions for Antimicrobial resistance: MDR, XDR, PDR

A

Multi-drug resistant - Non-susceptibility to at least one agent in all three or more antimicrobial categories

Extensively-drug resistant - Non-susceptibility to at least one agent in all but two or fewer antimicrobial categories

Pan-drug resistant - Non-susceptibility to at all agents in all antimicrobial categories

74
Q

Infections treated with antiviral agents: List DNA viruses

A
o Herpes simplex I &amp; II
o Varicella-zoster
o Cytomegalovirus
o Hepatitis B
o Epstein Barr Virus
o Human Herpes-virus 8

NOT: Influenza, HIV, Hep C or RSV. These are RNA.

75
Q

Infections treated with antiviral agents: List RNA viruses

A

o Influenza
o Human Immunodeficiency Virus ( HIV )
o Hepatitis C
o Respiratory Syncitial Virus ( RSV )

NOT: HSV I & II, Varicella-zoster, CMV, Hepatitis B, EBV,
or Human Herpes-virus 8. These are DNA.

76
Q

Are Herpes simplex I & II viruses DNA or RNA?

A

DNA

77
Q

Is Varicella-zoster an RNA or DNA virus?

A

DNA

78
Q

Is CMV an RNA or DNA virus?

A

DNA

79
Q

Is Hepatitis B an RNA or DNA virus?

A

Hep B is DNA

Not: HEP C is RNA.

80
Q

Is Epstein-Barr an RNA or DNA virus?

A

DNA

81
Q

Is Human Herpes 8 an RNA or DNA virus?

A

DNA

82
Q

Is influenza an RNA or DNA virus?

A

RNA

83
Q

Is HIV an RNA or DNA virus?

A

RNA

84
Q

Is Hepatitis C an RNA or DNA virus?

A

RNA

85
Q

4 main Drugs for Influenza

A
  • Oseltamivir
  • Zanamivir
  • Amantadine
  • Rimantadine

(Note: only first two currently used)

86
Q

Drugs for HSV and VZV

A

Oral Agents
• Acyclovir
• Valacyclovir
• Famciclovir

Topical Agents
• Acyclovir
• Docosanol
• Penciclovir

87
Q

What viruses is Acyclovir used to treat?

A

HSV and VZV

o Herpes simplex
o Varicella-zoster

88
Q

Name one drug for CMV

A
  • Ganciclovir
  • Valganciclovir
  • Foscarnet
  • Cidofovir
89
Q

Drugs for Hepatitis B

A
  • Interferon alfa-2b/-n3/-2a
  • Peginterferon alfa-2a/-2b
  • Tenofovir
  • Entecavir
  • Adefovir
  • Telbivudine
  • Lamivudine
90
Q

Hepatitis C Agents

A
  • Ribavirin

* Pegylated interferon injections

91
Q

Influenza-Related Complications

A

• Most complications occur in otherwise healthy persons
o Bronchitis, pneumonia
o Sinusitis
o Exacerbation of underlying disease
􀁼 60%-80% of patients with complications receive antibiotics
• Antibiotics prescribed for 􀁼 30%-45% of patients presenting with influenza or ILI

92
Q

What is Haemagglutinin?

A

Surface antigen on virus particle - a glycoprotein helps virus bind to cell surface

93
Q

What is Neuraminidase?

A

Surface antigen on virus particle - enzyme that releases virus from cell surface

Neuraminidase is one of three transmembrane viral proteins which enables newly formed virions escape from their host cell. As the newly formed virus
egresses from its host cell many re-attach to the sialic acid membrane glycoprotein residues on the cell membrane. To get released and infect other host cells they need to break this bond which is carried out by the viral neuraminidase.

94
Q

M2 inhibitors reduce symptoms but

have what clinical limitations?

A
• Spectrum: influenza A only
• Side effects: Central Nervous System
• Renal excretion (amantadine)
• Single point mutation in M2 gene: S31N
o High-level, rapid emergence resistance
o Transmissible
o H5N1 isolates 2003-present: resistant
o H3N2 (>60% Asia 2003-4, >90% US 2005-6)
• No longer recommended by NICE
95
Q

Treatment with which antiviral would cause virus aggregation at cell surface?

A

neuraminidase inhibitors do not allow viral release

Newly formed virions adhere to cell surface and limit spread

96
Q

Acyclovir Mechanism of Action

A

• Inhibition of viral synthesis of DNA
• Uptake by infected cell
• Cellular enzymes convert to acyclovir triphosphate
• Competes with deoxyguanosine triphosphate for viral
DNA polymerases
• Lacks 3’-hydroxyl group, therefore results in Chain termination
• Inactivates the viral DNA polymerase

97
Q

Interferons Mechanism of action

A
  • Not directly virucidal or virustatic
  • Induces changes in the infected or exposed cell to promote resistance to the virus
  • Induces several enzyme activities that promote an antiviral state
  • Proteins that inhibit synthesis of RNA
  • Proteins that cleave viral DNA
  • Proteins that inhibit mRNA
  • Alterations of the cell membrane that inhibit the release of replicated virions
98
Q

Ribavirin

A

• Purine nucleoside analog
• Mechanism of action not fully understood
• Causes alterations to cellular nucleotide pools
• Inhibits viral RNA synthesis
• Lethal mutagenesis of certain RNA viral genomes
• Possibly acts as an analog of guanosine or xanthosine
• Possibly results in neutralizing antibody response
(RSV)
• Resistance only documented in Sindbis virus and HCV
• Point mutation F415Y RNA polymerase identified

99
Q

What is the target of Quinolones?

A

Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis or function

Quinolones: target DNA

100
Q

What is the target of trimethoprim?

A

Folic acid antagonists, block nucleotide synthesis

101
Q

What is the target of Rifampicin?

A

inhibits RNA polymerase

102
Q

Antimicrobial E-tests

A

measure of antibacterial activity

103
Q

What is an antimicrobial Breakpoint?

A

• A breakpoint is a chosen concentration (mg/L) of an
antibiotic which defines whether a species of bacteria
is susceptible or resistant to the antibiotic.
• If the MIC is less than or equal to the susceptibility
breakpoint the bacteria is considered susceptible to
the antibiotic.

• Considers the
o MIC
o Antibiotic pharmacokinetics

• Predicts likely response of an isolate as:
o Susceptible
o Intermediate
o Resistant

104
Q

Do the concepts of Time vs concentration dependent killing fall under the category of pharmacodynamics or pharmacokinetics?

A

Pharmacodynamics

105
Q

Vancomycin exhibits time dependent killing. What does this tell you about how it should be prescribed in terms of frequency?

A

It is the time above MIC that matters, not high concentrations, Exceeding the MIC by more than four- to fivefold does not result in further activity. Should be given continuous rather than intermittent infusion.

106
Q

Which antibacterial classes are associated with hyper sensitivity?

A

Penicillins**
Cephalosporins

Carbapenems
Glycopeptides

107
Q

Which antibiotic class is most associated with renal toxicity?

A

Aminoglycosides

108
Q

Which antibiotic class is most associated with ototoxicity

A

Aminoglycosides

109
Q

Which antibiotic class is most associated with adverse effects on bone marrow?

A

chloramphenicol

110
Q

Which antibiotic class is most associated with C Diff?

A

Cephalospirons **

Penicillins
carbapenems
tetracyclins

111
Q

Which antibiotic class is most associated with nausea and vomiting?

A

tetracyclines

macrolides

112
Q

Important monitoring for toxicity of aminoglycosides

A

renal and auditory function

aminoglycosides are associated with renal and ototoxicity

113
Q

Goals of Antimicrobial Stewardship

A

• The primary goal of antimicrobial stewardship is to
optimize clinical outcomes while minimizing unintended
consequences of antimicrobial use, including toxicity, the
selection of pathogenic organisms (such as Clostridium
difficile),and the emergence of resistance. The
appropriate use of antimicrobials is an essential part of
patient safety
• A secondary goal of antimicrobial stewardship is to
reduce health care costs without adversely impacting
quality of care.

114
Q

List one Gram positive and one Gram negative organism

A
  • Gram positive – Staph/ Strep/ Pneumo

* Gram negative – Coliforms/ Pseudomonas

115
Q

What organism factors should be considered before prescribing antibiotics?

A
  • Gram positive – Staph/ Strep/ Pneumo
  • Gram negative – Coliforms/ Pseudomonas
  • Aerobic/ anaerobic
  • Known Resistant organisms – MRSA/ ESBL/ VRE, Other resistant gram negatives
  • Atypical organisms
  • C.difficile
  • Fungal
  • Mycobacteria
116
Q

Community superbugs

A
  • CA-MRSA
  • PVL Staphylococcus aureus
  • ESBL gram negatives
117
Q

Hospital superbugs

A
• MRSA
• Clostridium difficile
• Multi-resistant gram-negatives
- ESBL producers
- Multi-resistant Acinetobacter
- Multi-resistant Pseudomonas
• Other potential threats
- MDR-TB
- VHF
- SARS