Week 5: Chapter 7 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a product/service

A
  • something offered for sale
  • can be an item or a service
  • there is more to its physical shape or basic service function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is product for marketers

A
  • anything that can be offered to a market to satisfy a need or want
  • Ex. physical goods, services, experiences, events, places (destinations), properties (residential or real estate), information (ex. vaccination information to get people vaccinated), and ideas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how are products complex

A

there is the core customer value, which would be different for each type of customer (its what the product does for the customer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the core customer value made up of

A
  • actual product
  • associated services
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are factors apart of actual product

A
  • brand name
  • quality level
  • packaging
  • features/design
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are factors apart of associated services

A
  • financing
  • product warranty
  • product support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is boston’s consulting group (BCG) portfolio analysis

A
  • market growth rate on left (low to high bottom to top)
  • relative market share on bottom (high to low left to right)
  • made up of stars, question marks, cash cows, and pets/dogs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where is stars located

A
  • top left
  • high market growth rate
  • high relative market share
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where is question marks located

A
  • top right
  • high market growth rate
  • low relative market share
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where is cash cows located

A
  • bottom left
  • low market growth rate
  • high relative market share
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is dogs/pets located

A
  • bottom right
  • low market growth rate
  • low relative market share
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what do stars mean

A

expensive to maintain but best performing products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what do question marks mean

A
  • theres a key decision to make: invest or not
  • you can move the product into stars or into dogs based on its potential to grow
  • its risky
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what do cash cows mean

A
  • products that already peaked and are now just generating revenue
  • they support the stars
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what do pets/dogs mean

A
  • products that aren’t doing too much
  • not performing well
  • could be dropped
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is ansoff’s product market matrix

A

growth strategies
- new markets & existing markets (bottom top on the left)
- existing products & new products (left to right on the top)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the growth strategy for existing markets and existing products

A
  • market penetration
  • sales promotion
  • increase in advertising
  • low risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the growth strategy for existing markets and new products

A
  • product development
  • differentiate from competitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the growth strategy for new markets and existing products

A
  • market development
  • catering the product to new markets
  • ex. what they would like (ex. in a different country)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the growth strategy for new markets and new products

A
  • diversification
  • high risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the product life cycle

A
  • introduction
  • growth
  • maturity
  • decline
  • sales and profit increase, sales peaking at maturity and profit peaking at growth
  • but profit decreases faster than sales after growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the timeline of adoption of the innovation

A

innovators -> early adopters -> early majority -> late majority -> laggards
- looks like a normal distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is happening in the introduction stage

A

sales: low
profits: negative or low
typical customers: innovators
competitors: one or few

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is happening in the growth stage

A

sales: rising
profits: rapidly rising
typical customers: early adopters and early majority
competitors: few but increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is happening in the maturity stage

A

sales: peak
profits: peak to declining
typical customers: late majority
competitors: high number of competitors and competitive products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is happening in the decline stage

A

sales: declining
profits: declining
typical customers: laggards
competitors: low number of competitors and products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is price

A
  • complex issue
  • requiring analytical and strategic thinking
  • can be called tuition, rent, interest, a fee, dues, a fare, or a price
  • generally money is exchanged (sometimes its goods or services)
22
Q

what is cost-oriented pricing

A
  • when a company sets its prices as: costs + % markup or fixed amount (cost plus)
  • very common but ignores the current elasticity of demand (change in demand) when setting prices
  • will probably not lead, except by chance, to maximum profits
  • common in retailing situations -> used widely
22
Q

how can price be a signal

A
  • it can be too high and too low
  • too low may signal poor quality
  • too high may signal low value
23
Q

what is the question to ask about pricing

A

what is the pricing goal

23
Q

what is the classic economics approach to pricing

A
  1. quantity demand = f(price)
  2. profit = (unit price - unit cost) * quantity sold
  3. find price to maximize profit (where marginal cost = marginal revenue)
23
Q

what are the core assumptions of the economics approach

A
  • focus on short run profit
  • focus on immediate customers
  • price is independent of advertising, promotion, etc.
  • demand and cost functions are known
  • unit cost is constant
  • firm has true control over price
  • competitors are ignored, etc.
23
Q

what are the different pricing strategies

A
  • cost-oriented pricing
  • competitive-oriented pricing
  • demand-oriented pricing
  • value based pricing
  • price discrimination
24
Q

why does markup pricing make sense

A
  • if average unit costs are fairly constant for different points on the demand function
  • if costs elasticity are constant over time
24
Q

what is competitive-oriented pricing

A
  • when a company bases its prices chiefly on what its competitors are charging instead of on cost or demand
  • mostly characterizes markets with homogenous commodities (oil, water, etc.)
25
Q

how does competitive oriented pricing create a price stagnant market

A
  • if a firm increases prices, loses a lot of market share
  • if a firm decreases prices, others quickly follow suit
  • either downward spiral (price war) or stagnation
  • a price war is a price no one can win (even if you win, you loose)
26
Q

what is demand oriented pricing

A
  • when a company sets its prices as a function of demand
  • they charge higher prices when demand is high and lower when demand is low
  • ex. seasonal revenue
27
Q

what are the pros of the gabor-granger

A
  • simple design
  • one measurement per price level
  • robust, proven method
27
Q

what is gabor-granger method

A
  • a form of demand pricing
  • customers are asked to indicate their buying intention for a product at a number of price levels
  • 1 = will never buy
  • 5 = will absolutely buy
  • transform the answers into probabilities: ex. 4 = 20%, 5 = 50%, anything else = 0%
  • ideally the figures are calibrated on existing data
  • demand curve and price elasticity is made based on the responses
  • the highest point on the curve = the optimal price
27
Q

what are examples of a company that has seasonal revenue

A
  • airlines (higher demand during holidays = higher prices)
  • concerts
  • hotels
  • ski resorts
28
Q

what are the cons of the gabor-granger

A
  • no margins of error or confidence intervals for optimal price level
  • assumes data accuracy (purchase likelihood could be 30% instead of 50%)
  • assumes optimal price is actually measured (what if its out of range?)
29
Q

what is revenue management

A

the art and science of selling the right product to the right customer for the right price at the right time

29
Q

what does revenue management through temporal price discrimination entail

A
  • high fixed cost industries
  • service industries (hotels and airlines)
  • alternative approaches (temporal price discrimination in the airline/hotel industry)
30
Q

what are the different alternative price approaches

A
  • time of day pricing
  • time when purchased
  • day of the week pricing
  • seasonal pricing
31
Q

how do you implement revenue management

A
  • estimate demand for each class of service
  • demand arrives over time, so update demand function/remaining supply
  • allocate remaining space to: maximize expected profitability & meet other criteria
  • subject to situation specific constraints
31
Q

what is advertising

A
  • any form of impersonal, one way mass communication
  • paid for by a marketer
31
Q

what is the promotion mix

A
  • social and mobile media
  • advertising
  • personal selling
  • sales promotion
  • public relations
  • direct marketing
32
Q

what is traditional advertising media

A
  • television
  • radio
  • newspapers
  • magazines
  • billboards
  • online banner advertising
  • transit cards
  • banner ads on social networks
  • websites
  • emails
  • blogs
32
Q

what is a benefit to advertising

A

ability to communicate with a large number of people at one time

33
Q

what is percent of sales

A

many companies set their advertising expenditures at a specified % of their sales

33
Q

what are the different advertising budgeting methods

A
  • affordable
  • percent of sales
  • competitive parity
  • objective/task method
  • model based/response model
33
Q

what is the affordable method

A
  • setting advertising budget according to what companies can afford
  • used by startups
  • fluctuating advertising budget
  • difficult to plan for long-range market development
34
Q

what is the objective/task method

A
  1. defining advertising objectives as specifically as possible (to inform, persuade, or remind)
  2. determine tasks
  3. estimating the costs of those tasks
34
Q

what is the competitive parity method

A

setting advertising budgets specifically to match competitors’ outlays

34
Q

who creates consumer promotions for who

A

manufacturer for consumer

34
Q

what is the model-based/response method

A

ex. advertising response model for online banner and keyword advertising offer firms

35
Q

who creates trade promotions for who

A

manufacturer for trade (retailer)

35
Q

who creates retailer promotions for who

A

trade (retailer) for consumer

36
Q

what are examples of retailer promotions

A
  • price cuts
  • displays
  • feature ads
  • retailer coupons
  • free goods
36
Q

what are the different types of promotions

A
  • trade promotions
  • retailer promotions
  • consumer promotions
36
Q

what are examples of trade promotions

A
  • case allowances
  • advertising allowances
  • display allowances
  • contents
37
Q

what are examples of consumer promotions

A
  • coupons
  • samples
  • price packs
  • value packs
  • refunds
  • contests
  • tie-ins
37
Q

what does the supply chain consist of

A

suppliers and suppliers networks (producers)

37
Q

who does distribution channels involve

A
  • wholesalers and retailers
  • from producers to consumers
38
Q

what is logistics management

A

flow of materials and information

39
Q

what does logisitics management include

A

suppliers
inbound flow of raw materials and parts
producers
outbound flow of finished products
consumers