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Year 3 Sem 1 > Week 5 > Flashcards

Week 5 Flashcards

1
Q

2 general approaches in immunoassays?

A

measuring specific Ag in sample

look for Ab specific for Ag of interest as evidence that the ind has been exposed to specific Ag

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2
Q

antiserum?

A

serum collected from an animal that has been exposed to Ag and thus contains Ab against that Ag

produced by immunizing the animal with the Ag of interest and collecting the serum

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3
Q

anti-species Ab?

A

produced when Ab from one species is collected and injected into another

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4
Q

ELISA?

A 
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
indirect elisa is the most common:
- coat wells with Ag
- wash away unbound Ag
- add serum 
- Ig binds Ag - wash away unbound Ab 
- enzyme conjugate 
- wash way unbound AB 
- substrate/ chemogen solution for coloraturas change
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5
Q

sanwhich ELISA?

A

2 Ab go on either side of target Ag
both Ab bind to different epitopes of Ag
substrate specific to enzyme linked Ab is added so we get coloraturas and a positive test which forms in Ag in the sample

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6
Q

SAT?

A

serum agglutination test

agglutinating Ab present in sera which react with specific Ag to form visible clumps

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7
Q

hemagglutination?

A

can chemically couple any Ag to RBC to detect Abs to that Ab

if sufficient Ab present to agglutinate and form cross links with Ag then Ab:Ag complex forms a mat at the bottom of the well

if insufficient Ab present then the cells roll down sides of well and forms a pellet down the bottom

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8
Q

direct coombs test?

A

detects Ab and complement on the surface of RBC

addition of anti-human Ig Ab to washed fetal RBC - they will agglutinate if maternal Rh-Ab were already coated on fetal RBCs

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9
Q

indirect coombs test?

A

detects Ab in serum

materna sera incubated with Rh+ Abs present in the maternal serum; if they agglutinate then anti-human Ig Ab are present

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10
Q

what immunoassay is used for syphillis testing?

A

serum agglutination test

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11
Q

what is a common test for HIV? why?

A

western blotting

AB to various HIV proteins appear at different stages post infection

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12
Q

point of care tests?

A

rapid test for Ab and Ag detection; lower specificity

drop mixture on sample pad
mixture flows on the membrane
positive signal detected as a line

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13
Q

what are the different flow cytometry tests?

A

elispot assay: for quantifying cells and producing cytokines
lymphocyte proliferation assay: for memory function and transplant matching
target cell killing assay: for measuring cellular cytotoxicity
microarrays or DNA/RNA chips: for screening large number of genes or samples

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14
Q

what does flow cytometry tell us about a cell?

A

relative size

granularity or internal complexity

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15
Q

how does flow cytometry work?

A

take blood sample and mix it with Ab that recognizes the Ag in which we are interested in
tag it with fluorescent tag so when its passed through flow cut-meter all the molecules will be counted (eg, CD4)

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16
Q

screening rules for avg risk of BrCa?

A

mammogram every 2 years from age 50-74

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17
Q

higher risk screening rules of BrCa?

A

mammogram every 2 years from age 50-74 and breast awareness (self-examination)

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18
Q

screening rules for cervical cancer?

A

HPV tests every 5 years from the age of 25 or 2 years after first sexual intercourse
end between 70-74 y/o

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19
Q

avg risk screening rules for Bowel cancer?

A

FOBT every 2 years from 50-74

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20
Q

higher risk screening rules for bowel cancer?

A

FOBT every 2 years from age 35-44

colonoscopy from 45-74 every 5 years

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21
Q

screening rules for skin cancer?

A

avg risk= primary prevention
moderate risk= primary prevention and skin exam
higher risk= preventative advice, examination of skin and advice on self-exam

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22
Q

what are some factors that come into play for primary prevention?

A 
tobacco
alcohol
diet
excercise/ obesity
radiation 
chronic infections 
occupational exposure
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23
Q

whats the problem with PSA testing?

A

increased PSA is not solely specific for cancer but their is no precise way to tell
so men that undergo tx may experience side effects but don’t necessarily have PrCa = over tx and over dx

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24
Q

what are some scenarios for increased PSA/

A 
carcinoma
benign prostatic hypertrophy  
prostitis 
bike riding 
recent ejaculation
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25
Q

what is incidence?

A

the number of new cases of disease in a population/ the risk of contracting the disease

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26
Q

what is prevalence?

A

the number of existing cases in a population/ how widespread the disease is

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27
Q

what is attributable risk?

A

the amount of risk that is attributable to exposure

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28
Q

what is absolute risk?

A

probability that a specified event will occur in a specified population

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29
Q

what is relative risk?

A

ratio of risk to those exposed to risk factor vs those not exposed

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30
Q

what is odds ratio?

A

measure of association of disease in those exposed and not exposed

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31
Q

what are the 2 viral oncoprotein expressed by HIV?

A

E6 - binds p53
E7 binds Rb gene

leads to active cell proliferation and gene transcription

32
Q

what is stroma made up of and functions?

A

non-neoplastic cells, CT and BV

provides growth and support for parenchyma

33
Q

what are the 3 ways in which malignant neoplasms spread?

A

blood
lymphatics
seeding of body cavities

34
Q

name for benign mesenchymal tissue?

A

-oma

35
Q

name for benign epithelial tissue

A

adenoma

papilloma

36
Q

malignant mesenchymal tissue?

A

sarcoma

37
Q

malignant epithelial tissue?

A

carcinoma

38
Q

seminoma?

A

carcinoma of testicualr germ cells

39
Q

teratoma?

A

malignant neoplasm comprising a variety of parenchymal cell types

40
Q

common functions of photo-oncogenes?

A

GF and GF-R
signal transduction, cell cycle and apoptotic proteins
nuclear transcription factors

41
Q

common functions of TSG?

A 
DNA damage repair 
protein degradation 
cell cycle regulation 
apoptosis 
cell adhesion
cell signalling
42
Q

which point in the cell cycle does the Rb protein act?

A

transition between G1-S

43
Q

where are the alterations in the Rb1 gene in retinoblastoma?

A

Q arm of Chromosome 13

44
Q

how do some viruses stimulate proliferation of hose cell:

A

insertion of strong promoter in the vicinity of a host ell proto-oncogene
expression of proteins that neutralize host cell TSGs
expression of proteins that prevent or delay apoptosis

45
Q

what is a histogram in flow cytometer?

A

single parameter histogram

distribution of cells expressing a single measured parameter (size, granularity, fluorescent intensity)

46
Q

what is a 2D dot plot in flow cytometry?

A

provides more info than the histogram

2 parameters can be displayed simultaneously in a plot (eg, IgM ad IgG)

47
Q

what is pleomorphism?

A 
present in malignant tumours - variability in size and group:
large cells
hyperchromic nuclei and multinucleated
cells growing in disorganized pattern
frequent and abnormal mitosis
increased nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio
48
Q

function of elispot assay?

A

quantifying cells producing cytokines

49
Q

function of lymphocyte proliferation assay?

A

for memory function and transplant matching

50
Q

function of target cell killing assays?

A

for measuring cellular cytotoxicity (eg level of function in phagocytes)

51
Q

function of microarrays for DNA/ RNA chips?

A

for screening large numbers of genes or samples

52
Q

benign stratified squamous cell?

A

squamous cell papilloma

53
Q

malignant stratified squamous cell?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

54
Q

benign lung?

A

bronchial adenoma

55
Q

malignant lung?

A

bronchogenic carcinoma

56
Q

benign kidney?

A

renal tubular adenoma

57
Q

malignant kidney?

A

renal cell carcinoma

58
Q

malignant liver?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

59
Q

benign liver?

A

liver cell adenoma

60
Q

malignant bladdER?

A

urothelial carcinoma

61
Q

benign bladder?

A

urothelial papilloma

62
Q

benign and malignant bone?

A

osteoma

osteogenic sarcoma

63
Q

benign blood vessel?

A

hemangioma

64
Q

malignant blood vessel?

A

angiosarcoma

65
Q

benign lymph vessel?

A

lymphangioma

66
Q

malignant lymph vessel?

A

lymphangiosarcoma

67
Q

malignant hematopoietic cells?

A

leukemia

68
Q

malignant lymphoid tissue?

A

lymphoma

69
Q

benign and malignant smooth muscle?

A

leiomyoma

leiomyosarcoma

70
Q

benign and malignant striated muscle?

A

rhabdomyoma

rhabdomyosarcoma

71
Q

histology of retinoblastoma?

A

small round blue tumour (basophilic)
more viable cells = closer to BV core
pink fuzzy cells = necrotic, they rapidly outgrow blood supply

72
Q

functions of cyclin dependant kinases?

A

drive progression through phases of the cell cycle by phosphorylating and activating downstream kinases

73
Q

function of cyclins?

A

activating subunits what work with CDKs

specific cyclins for different parts of the cell cycle

74
Q

example of carcinoma in situ?

A

chronic smokers show dysplasia in airways

ductal carcinoma in situ

75
Q

What types of mutational events are commonly associated with proto-oncogenes?

A

overexpression
overamplification
point mutation
translocation

Year 3 Sem 1 (12 decks)

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