Week 4 pt 2 highlights Flashcards

1
Q

Review:
1) The outside of the cervix and the vagina are covered by ________________ cells.
2) The canal of the cervix is lined by tall column-like cells called ______________ cells.
3) Size and shape of the cervix change depending on what 3 things?

A

1) squamous
2) columnar
3) on age, hormonal status, and number of children (parity)

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2
Q

Review:
1) Metaplasia during __________ moves the squamocolumnar junction (SCJ)
2) During __________________, the new SCJ recedes upward into the endocervical canal

A

1) puberty
2) perimenopause

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3
Q

The interior cervical canal leading to the uterus (what we cannot see) is called what?

A

Endocervical canal

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4
Q

Area between the original SCJ and active SCJ is called what?

A

Transformation zone

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5
Q

The active (new) SCJ is where >_____% of metaplasia and cervical neoplasia arise

A

> 90%

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6
Q

1) Most HPV-infected women are _____________.
2) HPV _______ and ____________ of HPV infection appear to be the most important factors in the progression into squamous intraepithelial lesions (SIL)

A

1) asymptomatic
2) type and persistence

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7
Q

True or false: HPV is easily spread via sexual intercourse

A

True

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8
Q

HPV ________ and _____ most commonly cause cervical cancer

A

16, 18

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9
Q

HPV _____ and ________ are associated with genital warts (condylomata acuminata)

A

6 and 11

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10
Q

Cervical Cancer Screening:
1) Evaluates _________ patients
2) What is a key part of cervical screening?
3) What does screening vary based on?

A

1) asymptomatic
2) Pregnancy
3) Age, screening hx, presence of a cervix, immune status

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11
Q

Cervical CA screening:
Speculum exam should appear __________ ; if gross abnormality visualized, it must be biopsied.

A

normal

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12
Q

Pap smears; USPSTF Guidelines (for normal risk) ppl say:
1) For women younger than 21 years, ______ screening for cervical cancer.
2) For women aged 21 to 29 years, screening for cervical cancer every ___ years with ______________ alone

(memorize this)

A

1) NO screening
2) 3 years; cervical cytology

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13
Q

Pap smears; USPSTF Guidelines (for normal risk) ppl say what abt women aged 30 to 65 years?

(memorize this)

A

1) Screening every 3 years with cervical cytology alone
2) Every 5 years with high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) testing alone,
3) OR every 5 years with hrHPV testing in combination with cytology (cotesting).

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14
Q

True or false: ACOG endorses the USPSTF guidlines

A

True

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15
Q

Pap smears; USPSTF Guidelines (for normal risk) ppl:
What do they say for women >65 y/o?

A

NO screening for cervical cancer in those who have had adequate prior screening and are not otherwise at high risk for cervical cancer

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16
Q

Pap smears; USPSTF Guidelines (for normal risk) ppl:
What do they say abt women who have had a hysterectomy with removal of the cervix?

A

NO screening for cervical cancer in women who do not have a history of a high-grade precancerous lesion (i.e., CIN 2 or CIN 3) or cervical cancer.

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17
Q

The ACOG guidelines add that:
1) Women under 21 years of age should STILL be screened for _______ if they are sexually active
2) ACOG recommends annual pelvic exam and risk assessment in women _______ yrs & older

A

1) STIs
2) 21

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18
Q

True or false: HPV infection is very common in young women which is why the new cervical cancer guidelines are based on HPV status and age, but invasive cervical CA is very rate

A

True

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19
Q

Women with a history of ____________ lesions prior to their hysterectomy (CIN 2, CIN3, or AIS) can develop recurrence years postoperatively, therefore they should continue to be screened every _________yrs + hrHPV testing

A

high-grade; 3

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20
Q

If hysterectomy was to treat CIN2, CIN3, or AIS (adenocarcinoma in situ), patient should have ______ consecutive annual hrHPV tests followed by every _____yrs surveillance + hrHPV testing

A

3; 3

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21
Q

Ideally, a Pap should be completed in the ________of a patient’s cycle (days ____-____)*

A

middle; 9-20

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22
Q

A pap result will be marked as “_____________” or “_______________” for interpretation

A

Satisfactory; Unsatisfactory

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23
Q

If a pap result is “Unsatisfactory”, what should you do?

A

1) Retest in 2-4mos recommended
2) If retest abnormal or negative, follow 2019 ASCCP Guidelines (more on this later)

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24
Q

Pap results:
If Endocervical Cells are Absent, when is routine screening recommended? When is an HPV test preferred?
Assume negative screening cytology + absent endocervical cells (TZ component)

A

1) If 21-29yo
2) If >/= 30 y/o and NO (or UNK) HPV test result

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25
Q

*LSIL, ASC-US (HPV positive or w/o HPV testing) = high probability for _____________ and decreased risk for rapid progression

A

regression

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26
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN) = the abnormal growth of potentially ___________________ cells on the cervix.

A

precancerous

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27
Q

Differentiate SIL and CIN

A
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28
Q

2019 ASCCP Guidelines: Providers must know (at minimum) patient’s age and current test results SO recommendations are based on risks of _____________ and ___________ __________ diagnoses

A

immediate; future CIN 3+

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29
Q

List the 4 2019 ASCCP guidelines/ principles

A

1) HPV-based testing = basis for risk estimation
-HPV type and duration of infection determine patient’s risk of CIN 3+
2) Current results + past history
3) Guidelines continue to evolve
4) Colposcopy practice must follow guidelines

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30
Q

Pap smear continued principles from 2012: Screening and management goal is ________ prevention + guidelines apply to all individuals with a ________.

A

cancer; cervix

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31
Q

Give the overview for the ASCCP guidelines (i.e. next steps after abnormal pap)

A
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32
Q

Evaluating pt risk post pap smear: For each combination of current test results and screening history (including unknown history), recommendation determined by first estimating ___________ and ____-year risk of CIN 3+

A

immediate; 5-year

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33
Q

Pap smear: Treatment recommendations for nonpregnant patients only are what?

A

Excisional procedure during pregnancy only if invasive cancer suspected

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34
Q

5-year return Clinical Action Threshold approximates risk for a patient after a ____________ screening test using HPV testing or co-testing in the general population

(Remember this)

A

negative

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35
Q

Patients with risks at or below this threshold (<0.15% CIN 3+ risk) are recommended to receive ___________ screening at _____-year intervals with hrHPV-based testing or co-testing

(Remember this)

A

routine; 5-year

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36
Q

3-year return Clinical Action Threshold:
Approximates the risk for a patient after a ____________ cervical cytology screen in the general population, for whom retesting in 3 years is recommended by national screening guidelines.

A

negative

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37
Q

Patients with risks at or below this threshold but above the 5-year threshold (0.15-0.54% CIN 3+ risk) are recommended to receive hrHPV-based testing in ____ years

A

3

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38
Q

One-year return (1 year surveillance and hrHPV testing) results include what 2 scenarios?

A

1) HPV-positive but negative cytology
2) HPV-neg LSIL, s/p colposcopy w results of <CIN 1

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39
Q

Colposcopy Clinical Action Threshold:
Approximates the risk for a patient after an _____________ ASC-US or _________ screening

A

HPV-positive; LSIL

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40
Q

Colposcopy Clinical Action Threshold:
Patients with risks at or above this threshold but below the expedited treatment threshold (>4%-24% CIN 3+ risk) are recommended to receive _______________

A

colposcopy

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41
Q

Expedited treatment or colposcopy Clinical Action Threshold:
Approximates the risk for a patient after an HPV-positive atypical squamous cells that cannot exclude ______________cytology screening

A

HSIL (ASC-H)

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42
Q

Expedited treatment or colposcopy Clinical Action Threshold:
Recommended to receive counseling from their providers to choose between evaluation with colposcopy and biopsy or _____________ treatment.

A

expedited.

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43
Q

Expedited treatment preferred Clinical Action Threshold includes which individuals?

A

HPV 16–positive (or any) HSIL cytology screening result

(HSIL cytology that is HPV 16–positive has an immediate CIN 3+ of 60%)

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44
Q

Risks at or above a 60-100% CIN 3+ risk, should receive ___________________________

A

expedited excisional treatment

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45
Q

ASC: Atypical Squamous Cells: Nuclear atypia present but not sufficient to warrant the diagnosis of _______________________

A

squamous intraepithelial lesion

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46
Q

Define ASC-US and ASC-H

A

1) ASC-US-Atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
2) ASC-H-cytologic changes suggestive of HSIL but lacking definitive interpretation.

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47
Q

AGC:
1) Atypia that is of ___________ rather than squamous origin
2) *More likely to be serious with ___________ abnormalities than an ASC-US pap, so the work-up more aggressive than ASC-US

A

1) glandular
2) glandular

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48
Q

If + for AGC (nonpregnant females of all ages), what should you do?

A

Colposcopy recommended regardless of HPV result
+
Endocervical sampling

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49
Q

__________ infection (90%) is the main risk for cervical neoplasia

A

HPV

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50
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure is a risk for what?

A

Cervical dysplasia

51
Q

What are the main Sx of cervical CA?

A

1) Asymptomatic
2) Abnormal bleeding such as postcoital bleeding or intermittent spotting

52
Q

Cervical CA staging; describe:
1) Stage 0
2) Stage 1

A

1) Stage 0: full-thickness involvement of the epithelium without invasion into the stroma (carcinoma in situ)
2) Stage 1: limited to the cervix , no spread

53
Q

Cervical CA staging; describe:
1) Stage 2
2) Stage 3

A

1) Stage 2: invades beyond cervix and uterus
2) Stage 3: spread to the lower 1/3 of the vagina and/or the walls of the pelvis; may be blocking the ureters (kidneys affected)

54
Q

Cervical CA staging; describe stage 4

A

Stage IV: extension beyond true pelvis or mucosa of bladder or rectum (biopsy proven) (metastatic)

55
Q

Cervical Cancer Treatment
1) Refer to who?
2) Often treatment involves either _________ or _________ (including brachytherapy) depending on size and location

A

1) Refer to Gyn/Onc
2) surgery or radiation

56
Q

Most important prognostic factors for cervical CA are what 2 things?

A

Disease stage followed by lymph node status

57
Q

15-61% with cervical cancer have __________ or recurrent disease after treatment, usually within the first 2 years

A

persistent

58
Q

Bleeding after intercourse is worrisome for recurrence of what?

A

Cervical CA

59
Q

What is Carnett sign for chronic pelvic pain?

A

Tensing of the abdominal wall while raising legs or chin in the supine position

(Can help identify myofascial pain)

60
Q

1) Define dysmenorrhea
2) Define chronic pelvic pain

A

1) Painful Menstruation
2) Noncyclic pelvic pain x 6 months or more

61
Q

Primary Dysmenorrhea (due to excessive prostaglandin) is more common in older or younger women?

62
Q

Secondary Dysmenorrhea (due to uterine/ pelvic pathology) is more common in older or younger women?

63
Q

Nulliparity is a major risk factor for what?

A

Primary dysmenorrhea

64
Q

Multiparity is a major risk factor for what?

A

Secondary dysmenorrhea

65
Q

Endometriosis (40%) is the most common cause of what?

A

Secondary dysmenorrhea

66
Q

List some common secondary dysmenorrhea causes

A

Endometriosis (40%)
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Leiomyoma (fibroids)
Adenomyosis

67
Q

List some key points of a Dysmenorrhea workup

A

1) Pelvic exam
2) To r/o differentials (not all are required, patient by patient basis):
-Pregnancy test (ectopic pregnancy)
-Pelvic u/s

68
Q

1st line dysmenorrhea Tx is what?

A

1) NSAIDs at a therapeutic dose
2) Combo OCPs

69
Q

Leiomyoma means what?

A

Benign smooth muscle tumor (fibroid)

70
Q

Leiomyoma:
1) Most prevalent during the _____ decade of a woman’s life
2) Most common indication for _____________ (~30%)
3) Hormonally responsive, which means that _____________ may induce rapid growth

A

1) 5th
2) hysterectomy
3) estrogen

71
Q

What leiomyoma location is most common?

A

Intramural

72
Q

What leiomyoma location has the highest rate of infertility?

A

Submucosal

73
Q

List the 2 most importnt risk factors for leimyoma

A

1) Ethnicity: African Americans have 2-3 x risk compared to Caucasians
2) Early menarche (<10 y/o)

74
Q

Most leiomyoma pts are _______________

A

asymptomatic

75
Q

Leiomyoma PE findings:
1) With bimanual exam, the uterus feels irregularly _________, ___________,& __________ by large fibroids
2) Is it usually tender?
3) Is the uterus floppy or firm?
4) Is the uterus smooth bumpy?

A

1) enlarged, firm, & asymmetrical
2) Usually nontender
3) Very firm to palpation
4) Might feel bumpy

76
Q

What is the imaging of choice for diagnosing leiomyoma?

A

Pelvic u/s-

77
Q

Depending on pelvic u/s results, you should eval the uterine cavity by one of what 2 methods?

A

Saline infusion sonography (similar to HSG but with saline)
OR Hysteroscopy

78
Q

Most accurate way to diagnose uterine fibroids if diagnosis is uncertain is what?

79
Q

List the main points of Leiomyoma Treatment

A

1) Medications : NSAIDS
2) First Tier: Myomectomy + Hormonal Treatment
3) Second Tier: Leuprolide + Uterine artery embolization
4) Third Tier: Endometrial ablation + Hysterectomy

80
Q

Leiomyoma Tx:
1) What med can be used?
2) What are the 2 parts of the first tier of Tx?

A

1) NSAIDS
2) Myomectomy (risk of uterine rupture, but everyone who wants to preserve fertility should get this) or hormonal Tx

81
Q

Leiomyoma Tx:
1) What is the second tier (for those not wanting to preserve fertility)?
2) What is the third tier (for those not wanting to preserve fertility)

A

1) Leuprolide or uterine artery embolization
2) Endometrial ablation
Hysterectomy

82
Q

Most common reason for hysterectomy is what?

83
Q

Endometriosis:
1) Most common in __________ women
2) Most commonly found on the __________ (typically bilateral)

A

1) nulliparous
2) ovaries

84
Q

Endometriosis:
1) What is the main Sx?
2) Are any ppl asymptomatic?
3) What will the PE show?
4) What is the hallmark finding on PE?

A

1) Cyclical premenstrual pelvic or low back pain
2) Many are ASYMPTOMATIC
3) Physical Exam: nonspecific
4) Hallmark finding: “uterosacral nodularity”

85
Q

Gold standard/Definitive Diagnosis for endometriosis is what?

A

Laparoscopy

86
Q

Laparoscopy for endometriosis allows you to visualize what hallmark Sx?

(common PANCE q)

A

“Chocolate” cysts or “powder burn marks”

87
Q

Often the first line for pain associated with endometriosis is what?

A

Combined OCPs + NSAIDs

88
Q

Give 2 main Sx of adenomyosis

A

1) Menorrhagia + Dysmenorrhea
2) Dyspareunia not as common as with endometriosis

89
Q

If the uterus is described as boggy or globular on a bimanual exam, what is the likely Dx?

A

Adenomyosis

90
Q

What is the first line for evaluation of an enlarged uterus, pelvic pain, and/or abnormal bleeding?

A

TVUS (transvaginal ultrasound)

91
Q

Adenomyosis:
1) What is the only definitive Tx?
2) What is the main Tx for pts that still want kids?

A

1) Total hysterectomy
2) NSAIDs and hormones (particularly a levonorgestrel-releasing IUD)

92
Q

What is the pathophys of Endometrial Hyperplasia?

A

High Unopposed Estrogen

93
Q

True or false: PCOS can lead to endometrial hyperplasia

94
Q

Name one of the main Sx of endometrial hyperplasia

A

Post-menopausal bleeding

95
Q

Endometrial stripe >4mm on TVUS is indicative of what?

A

Endometrial hyperplasia

96
Q

What allows for definitive diagnosis of endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Endometrial biopsy

97
Q

Endometrial Hyperplasia Treatment depends on what? Explain.

A

Biopsy results:
1) Biopsy shows endometrial hyperplasia without atypia: Synthetic progesterone and repeat biopsy in 3-6 months
2) Biopsy shows endometrial hyperplasia with atypia: Hysterectomy

98
Q

What are some adjunct therapies for endometrial hyperplasia to use adj. to synthetic progesterone or hysterectomy?

A

GnRH analogues (Leuprolide)
Androgens (Danazol)
NSAIDs

99
Q

Most common genital tract malignancy is what?

A

Endometrial Carcinoma

100
Q

1) 4th most common cancer (after breast, lung, and colorectal carcinoma) is what?
2) What is this cancer the cause of 5-10% of?
3) What is the most common treatment for this CA?

A

1) Endometrial carcinoma
2) Postmenopausal bleeding
3) A total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

101
Q

Endometrial Cancer: List the 2 main etiologies & which is more common

A

1) Type I: estrogen-dependent (80-90%)
2) Type II: estrogen-independent

102
Q

Endometrial Cancer Type 1:
1) Is caused by unopposed or excessive continuous ___________ exposure to the endometrium
2) This proliferative effect must be counteracted by what?

A

1) estrogen
2) Progesterone

103
Q

BMI >__________= 2.6- fold increase of endometrial cancer risk

104
Q

Long-term hormone replacement (estrogen w/o progesterone) is a risk factor for what type of CA?

A

Endometrial Carcinoma Type I

105
Q

American Cancer Society recommends focusing on __________ lifestyles to reduce endometrial CA risk

106
Q

Adipose tissue produces continuous high levels of circulating estrogen from the ________________ of ________________ to estrone

A

aromatization; androstenedione

107
Q

What is the most common type of endometrial carcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinoma– 75%

108
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium:
1) Most common, typically post_______________
2) Associated with excessive __________ exposure
3) Often diagnosed with endometrial _____________

A

1) postmenopausal
2) estrogen
3) hyperplasia

109
Q

What is the main Sx of endometrial CA?

A

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding; especially Postmenopausal Bleeding

110
Q

1) In High-Risk Patients (obese, PCOS, genetic) for endometrial CA, what should you do?
2) What abt for atypical endometrial hyperplasia?

A

1) Annual endometrial sampling and transvaginal ultrasonography beginning at age 30 to 35
-Oral contraceptives (COCs)
2) Risk-reducing hysterectomy

111
Q

Women with Lynch syndrome:
1) Lifetime risk for _____________ and ___________ cancers increased compared to general population.
2) 40% risk of _________ cancer.
3) These pts make up 2 - 5 % of all ____________ carcinomas.

A

1) endometrial and ovarian
2) colon
3) endometrial

112
Q

Screening & prevention of endometrial cancer in women w Lynch syndrome includes what 3 things?

A

1) Annual endometrial sampling and TVUS
2) Risk-reducing hysterectomy
3) Oral contraceptives

113
Q

List 3 genetic factors predisposing to endometrial CA

A

1) Lynch syndrome
2) Cowden syndrome
3) BRCA gene mutations

114
Q

List 3 important parts of an endometrial CA workup

A

1) Pelvic exam
2) +/- CA-125 marker
3) Transvaginal Ultrasound to evaluate endometrial lining

115
Q

List the main stages of endometrial CA

A

1- Endometrium
2- Body of uterus into the cervix
3- Local and/or regional spread of the tumor
4- Bladder and/or Bowel mucosa, and/or distant mets

116
Q

1) What is the main surgical Tx for endometrial CA?
2) Women with ______________ disease often treated with surgery alone & have high cure rates

A

1) Hysterectomy
2) stage 1, grade 1

117
Q

Endometrial CA: ____________ and _______________ are commonly added for more advanced stage and high-risk features

A

Radiation and chemotherapy

118
Q

True or false: Endometrial CA is usually diagnosed at early stage with better outcome than cervical or ovarian cancer.

119
Q

Uterine Sarcoma:
1) What is the 5yr prognosis?
2) Sarcomas (about 5% of uterine cancers) have generally poor prognosis if they have >_____mitoses per 10 HPF (mitotic count)

A

1) 29-76% survival
2) 10

120
Q

List 3 risk factors of uterine sarcoma

A

1) Tamoxifen (>5yrs)
2) Pelvic radiation
3) Hereditary conditions

121
Q

Uterine Sarcoma: List 2 reasons for clinical suspicion

A

1) Rapidly enlarging “fibroids” and uterine enlargement
2) Postmenopausal bleeding

122
Q

Up to ___% of sarcomas have metastasized outside the uterus at time of diagnosis (spread via lymphatics and bloodstream

123
Q

Uterine Sarcoma:
1) What are 3 Txs?
2) What should be scheduled?

A

1) TAH, BSO, and surgical staging
2) Endometrial biopsy