Week 4- Antenatal Flashcards

1
Q

GDM risk factors

A
  • fam history of DM
  • High BMI >30
  • previous unexplained still birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

low pre-gestational folate levels risk for

A

NTD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

risks for gestational HTN

A
  • previous HTN
  • extremes of age (less than 19 or more than 40)
  • obese
  • multifetal pregnancy
  • first pregnancy
  • pregnancy with new partner
  • chronic health disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A pregnant woman is having lower abdominal pain, light vaginal bleeding, and has a history of endometriosis. What could these symptoms indicate?

A

ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What symptoms of preterm labour should be taught to all pregnant women, regardless of risk factors?

A
  • bleeding or spotting
  • contractions
  • menstrual like cramps
  • persistent low back pain
  • pelvic pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

symptoms of hypovolemic shock

A
  • Anxiety, restlessness, and lethargy
  • Tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure, and hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adequate ________ can prevent congenital anomalies

A

folic acid intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Multigravida

A

A woman who has been pregnant be-fore, regardless of the duration of the pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Parity

A

The number of pregnancies that have reached 20 weeks’ gestation, regardless of the number of fetuses born and regardless of whether those children are now living.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Primipara

A
  • giving birth to first child (past point of viability) regardless of if born alive or child still living
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

age of viability

A

22 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

P and A in G T P A L

A

infants born after 20 weeks and before 37 weeks
aborted before 20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

term pregnancy=

A

40 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nägele’s rule is used to

A

determine EDB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most accurate method to determine EDB

A

US if done accurately and before 23 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nuchal translucency

A

US that measure thickness of the fluid under the skin at the back of the neck
- if thicker than normal, can be seen in early down syndrome, trisomy 18 or heart problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

schedule for prenatal visits

A
  • Conception to 28 weeks— every 4 weeks
    • 29 to 36 weeks— every 2 weeks
    • 37 weeks to birth—weekly
      Seen more often if complications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Low pre pregnancy weight or inadequate gains are risk factors for

A

preterm birth, a low-birth-weight infant, and other issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when do blood glucose screening

A

between 24-28 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fundal height to determine

A
  • enough amniotic fluid
  • proper growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Leopold manoeuvre

A

presentation and position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FHR assessed

A

at the end of the first trimester with doppler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

beating on the US can be seen

A

at 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

for high-risk women fetal movement counting should be done

A

daily after 26 -32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

FTS

A

US at 11-14 weeks including NT
Maternal serum biochemical markers- screens for down syndrome and trisomy 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

routine 1st 2nd and 3rd tirmester tests

A

1= FTS- us at 11-14 weeks (nclude NT)
maternal serum biochemical markers

2= 1-hour GTT
2 hour if required
US between 18-22 weeks

3= GBS (36-37 weeks) treated until birth with abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pyridoxine/ doxylamine (dilectin)

A

delayed release tab for nausea given at bedtime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bladder changes common in early months

A

frequency and urgency of urination
enlarging uterus, increased blood supply exerts pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

urinary frequency in the ___ trimester until

A

the uterus expands and becomes an abdominal organ in the second trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

urinary frequency and urgency appear again in

A

third trimester when presenting part descends into uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

quickening

A

fluttering in the abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

goodell sign is

A

softening of the cervix and vaginal mucosa caused by increased vaginal congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

probable signs

A

provide stronger evidence of pregnancy and are mainly objective signs that can be observed by an examiner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chadwick sign is

A

is the purplish or bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa caused by increased vascular congestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

hegar sign

A

softening of the lower part of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

McDonald sign.

A

easy to flex the body of the uterus against the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

By the end of the twelfth week, the uterine fundus may be felt

A

just above symphysis pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ballottement

A

is a manoeuvre by which the fetal part is displaced by a light tap of the examining finger on the cervix, and then the part rebounds quickly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

adioimmunoassay (RIA)

A

blood test that accurately identifies pregnancy as early as 1 week after ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

role of estrogen

A

bigger uterus breasts genitals
promotes fat deposits
melanocyte stimulating hormone causing pigmentation changes
relaxes pelvic ligaments
alters sodium and water retention
decreased ability to process insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

progesterone role

A
  • maintains endometrium for implantation
  • prevents uterine contractions
  • promotes secretory ducts of breasts
  • stim sodium secretion
  • reduced smooth muscle tone (constipation, heartburn, varicosities)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

thyroxine role

A

increase thyroid gland size and activity
increase HR, BMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

HCG role

A

stimulates progesterone and estrogen by corpus luteum

used to determine pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

hPL or human chorionic somatomamitropin

A

produced by placenta
affects glucose and protein metabolism
diabetogenic effect- increased glucose to stim pancreas and increase insulin level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MSH role

A

produced by APG
darken skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

relaxin

A

produced by corpus luteum and placenta
soften CT
inhibits uterine activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

prolactin

A

prepares breasts for lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

oxytocin

A

produced by PPG
stims uterine contractions
inhibited by progesterone during pregnancy
helps keep uterus contracted after birth
stimulates milk ejection reflex in breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Bacterial vaginosis has been associated with

A

premature rupture of the membranes, chorioamnionitis, preterm labour, and post-Caesarean endometritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

colostrum is high in
low in

A

protein, fat soluble vitamins and minerals
calories, fat and sugar

51
Q

edema or swelling of the mucous membranes of the nose, pharynx, mouth, and trachea caused by

A

estrogen
nasal stuffiness and epistaxis (nosebleeds)

52
Q

why is there an increase in blood volume

A
  • Exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products within the placenta
  • Needs of expanded maternal tissue
  • Reserve for blood loss at birth
53
Q

Supine hypotension, also called aortocaval compression, may occur
- what it causes
- how to fix

A

if the woman lies on her back
compression on IVC
can cause fetal hypoxia
laying on the left side relieves pressure
if must lay flat- put towel under hips

54
Q

dilutional anemia or pseudoanemia

A

fluid component of blood increases more than erythrocytes

55
Q

hematocrit level

A

may decrease to 0.33

56
Q

GI changes

A
  • increased salivary secretion
  • tender mouth tissue
  • increase appetite and thirst
  • decreased acidity of gastric secretions
  • slower motility
  • constipation and hemorrhoids
  • heartburn
  • insulin resistance
  • risk of gallstones
57
Q

urinary system

A

increase GFR
- glucosuria, proteinuria
- decreased peristalsis to bladder
- urine stasis
- UTI risk
-

58
Q

INTEGUMENTARY AND SKELETAL SYSTEMS

A
  • active sweat glands to loose heat
  • spider nervi
  • striae
  • pigmentation changes
  • more prominent lumbar curve
  • waddling gait from separation of the symphysis pubis
59
Q

Taking ibuprofen in the third trimester can cause

A

early closure of ductus arteriosus

60
Q

uring pregnancy and lactation, an adequate dietary intake of

A

DHA is essential for brain development

61
Q

BMI considered to be healthy

A

18.5 to 24.9

62
Q

general recs or weight gain who have normal BMI

A

up to 1-2 kg during the first trimester and approx. 0.4 kg/week during the rest of pregnancy

63
Q

Four nutrients are especially important in pregnancy:

A

protein, calcium, iron, and folic acid.

64
Q

iron recs

A

all preg people take supplement

65
Q

GDM management

A
  • spread meals out throughout the day
  • small frequent meals
  • food with low glycemic index
  • final bedtime snack of protein and complec CHO
66
Q

Women with uncontrolled diabetes and high fasting blood glucose levels in the last trimester have an increased risk of

A

still birth

67
Q

Many maternal health benefits are associated with exercise, including the following

A
  • Decreased risk of pre-eclampsia
  • Decreased gestational hypertension
  • Decreased gestational diabetes
  • Decreased rates of Caesarean birth
  • Decreased rates of instrumental births
  • Decreased urinary incontinence
  • Improved mood and decreased depression
  • Decreased severity of depressive symptoms
  • Decreased total gestational weight gain
  • Improved blood glucose
  • Reduced feelings of stress
  • Enhanced sleep
  • Enhanced postpartum recovery
  • Increased energy levels
  • Reduced constipation
  • Decreased back pain
68
Q

Exercise can elevate the maternal temperature and result in

A

decreased fetal circulation and cardiac function

68
Q

smoking during pregnancy may increase the risk of

A

vaginal bleeding
placenta previa
spontaneous abortion
placental abruption

68
Q

exposure to second hand smoke can increase

A

risk for SIDS

68
Q

Studies have shown a relationship between maternal smoking and psychiatric disorders in the offspring, such

A

as schitzo and ADHD

68
Q

Vaccines contraindicated during pregnancy include

A

HPV
measles
mums
rubella
chicken pox

68
Q

_____ vaccine is recommended in pregnancy

A

influenza
higher risk of complications

68
Q

killed vaccines can be administered during pregnancy include

A

tetanus, diphtheria, recombinant hepatitis B, rabies vaccines, and most influenza vaccines

69
Q

first trimester discomforts

A
  • N with or without V
  • breast tenderness
  • urinary frequency
  • nasal stuffiness, epistaxis
  • fatigue
70
Q

2nd and 3rd trimester discomforts

A
  • heartburn
  • constipation
  • hemorrhoids
  • backache
  • round ligament pain
  • leg cramps
  • HA
  • varicose veins
  • edema in feet and ankles
  • faintness and dizziness
  • dyspnea
71
Q

four maternal tasks that the woman accomplishes during pregnancy as she becomes a mother:

A
  1. Seeking safe passage for herself and her fetus. This involves both obtaining health care by a professional and adhering to important cultural practices.
  2. Securing acceptance of herself as a mother and for her fetus. Will her partner accept the infant? Does her partner or family have strong preferences for a child of a particular sex? Will the child be accepted even if he or she does not fit the ideal?
  3. Learning to give of self and to receive the care and concern of others. The woman will never again be the same carefree woman she was before her infant’s arrival. She depends on others in ways she has not experienced before.
  4. Committing herself to the child as she progresses through pregnancy. Much of the emotional work of pregnancy involves protecting and nurturing the fetus.
72
Q

partners phases

A
  1. ambivalence
  2. adjustment
  3. focus “feeling like a parent”
73
Q

prevention of low and high birth weight in utero is essential to reduce

A

cvd and stoke in adults

74
Q

C section birth can be linked to _____ in the older child and adulthood

A

obesity
poor gut microbiome

75
Q

oral microbes in the mother

A

travel to placenta by blood and has a relationship between periodontal disease and preterm birth as being due to the influence on placental functions

76
Q

first trimester
- ______ occurs
- increased
- _____ retention increases
- ________ stores decrease

A

fertilization
progesterone levels result in amenorrhea
Na
Nitrogen

77
Q

1st trimester
- _____ volume increases
- levels of relaxin and hCG _______
- pituitary releases

A

blood
increase
melanin stimulating hormone

78
Q

important nutrients to increase

A

portein iron and folic acid

79
Q

In true GDM, glucose usually returns to normal by

A

6 weeks pp

80
Q

Maternal effects of diabetes in pregnancy

A
  • spontaneous abortion
  • G HTN
  • preterm labour
  • hydramnios
  • infections
  • ketoacidosis
81
Q

fetal and newborn effect of diabetes in pregnancy

A
  • congenital abnormalities
  • macrosomia
  • IUGR
  • birth injury
  • delayed lung maturity, RDS
  • neonatal hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia
    hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice, polycythemia
  • perinatal death
82
Q

increased hormones and enzymes in prganncy and insulin

A
  • Increased resistance of cells to insulin
  • Increased speed of insulin breakdown
83
Q

The time of major risk for congenital anomalies to occur from maternal hyperglycemia is during

A

embryonic period of development in the first trimester.

84
Q

high risk for GDM

A
  • Body mass index (BMI) ≥30 kg/m~
  • History of macrosomic infant (>4 000 g or about 9lb
  • Maternal age greater than 35 years
  • Previous unexplained stillbirth or infant having congenital abnormalities
  • History of GDM in a previous pregnancy
  • Family history of DM
  • Using corticosteroid medication
  • Glucose challenge test (50 g glucose) results: 7.8 to 11.0 mmol/L
85
Q

oral hypoglycemic in pregnancy

A

glyburide does not cross placenta
injectables are preferred

86
Q

Hbg and hct tests in HDP

A

severity of HDP

87
Q

platelets test in HDP

A

thrombocytopenia suggests pre-eclampsia

88
Q

protein in urine in HDP

A

confirms pre-eclampsia

89
Q

serum creatinine in HDP

A

elevated and oliguria suggest pre-eclampsia

90
Q

serum uric acid in HDP

A

elevates suggest pre-eclampsia

91
Q

serum transaminase test in HDP

A

elevated= confirms liver involvement in pre-eclampsia

92
Q

pre= eclampsia

A
  • increased BP after 20 weeks
  • proteinuria
  • normal BP before or preexisting HTN
93
Q

RF for pre-eclampsia

A
  • Pregnancy at extremes of maternal age (adolescents or women >40 years)
  • Obesity, pre-existing hypertension
  • Diagnosis of pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancy
  • Diabetes or renal disease
  • Nulliparity, or pregnancy with a new partner
  • Multiple gestation
  • Pre-existing autoimmune diseases such as antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
94
Q

non severe Pre E

A
  • BP ≥140/90 mm Hg x two readings 15 minutes apart
  • proteinuria 1+
  • Presence of one or more adverse conditions (e.g., possible headache, visual problems, epigastric pain, elevated creatinine, low platelets)
95
Q

Severe pre-eclampsia is defined as the following:

A
  • BP reading ≥160/110 mm Hg on two separate readings 15 minutes apart
  • Presence of proteinuria: a urine dipstick results of 2+ to 3+ or greater on two separate urine specimens
  • Presence of one or more severe complications (e.g., severe headache; blurred vision, photophobia, blind spots on fundoscopy, elevated creatinine, platelets <50 × 10’/L, hepatic dysfunction, decreased placental function which can result in an intrauterine growth-restricted [IUGR] fetus)
96
Q

Pre-eclampsia progresses to eclampsia when

A

convulsions occur

97
Q

manifestations of severe pre E linked to

A

decreased blood flow and edema of the organs involved

98
Q

CNS effects of severe Pre E

A
  • severe unrelenting HA from brain edema and small cerebral hemorrhages
  • can precede convulsion
  • hyperactive DTR
99
Q

eyes effects of severe Pre- E

A
  • visual disturbances (blurred vision or double vision)
  • can precede a convulsion
100
Q

urinary tract effects form severe pre- e

A
  • decreased blood flow to kidneys causing oliguria , worsens HTN
101
Q

resp effects with severe pre-eclampsia

A

pulmonary edema

102
Q

Gastrointestinal system and liver effects with severe pre-eclampsia

A
  • epigastric pain/ nausea (liver edema, ischemia and necrosis)
  • increased liver enzymes
103
Q

HEELP syndrome

A
  • variant of GH
  • hemolysis
  • elevated liver enzymes
  • low platelets
104
Q

signs that HEELP could be developing

A
  • RUQ pain or epigastric pain
  • N/V
  • malaise
105
Q

care for someone with HEELP

A
  • may be monitored in Critical care unit
  • given magnesium sulphate to prevent convulsions
  • antihypertensive meds
106
Q

Effects on the fetus for pre-eclampsia

A
  • Pre-eclampsia reduces maternal blood and nutrition flow through the placenta and decreases the oxygen available to the fetus.
  • Fetal hypoxia may result in meconium (first stool) passage into the amniotic fluid.
  • The fetus may have IUGR and at birth will be small for gestational age.
  • Fetal death or stillbirth is a higher risk with pre-eclampsia.
  • In women with pre-existing or GH, administration of magnesium sulphate should be considered for fetal neuroprotection if imminent preterm birth will occur (at ≤31 + 6 weeks)
107
Q

An eclamptic seizure may result in

A

cerebral hemorrhage, placental abruption, fetal compromise, or death of the mother or fetus.

108
Q

recommendations to decrease the risk of pre-eclampsia:

A
  • improving diet
  • prenatal care
  • calcium sup if low
  • no alc
  • exercise
  • folate
  • ## no smoking
109
Q

_________started between 12 and 14 weeks’ gestation, has anticoagulant and anti-inflammatory properties that aid in the prevention of pre-eclampsia for patients with a high risk of developing eclampsia

A

low dose aspirin

110
Q

Initial therapy in pregnancy with HTN

A

one of the following antihypertensives: methyldopa, labetalol, other beta blockers (acebutolol, metoprolol, pindolol, and propranolol), and calcium channel blockers (nifedipine).

111
Q

ACE and ARBS

A

should not be used in pregnancy

112
Q

Treatment of pre-eclampsia focuses on

A

(1) maintaining blood flow to the woman’s vital organs and the placenta
(2) preventing convulsions.

113
Q

cure for pre-eclampsia

A

birth

114
Q

excess magnesium in pre-eclampsia caused from, signs and symptoms

A
  • decreased urine output
  • first causes loss of the deep tendon reflexes, which is followed by depression of respirations; if levels continue to rise, collapse and death can occur.
115
Q

Calcium gluconate

A

reverses the effects of magnesium and should be available for immediate use when a woman receives magnesium sulphate

116
Q
A
117
Q
A